Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Duke Elder book > Chapter 1 - Basic science, investigations and lasers > Flashcards

Chapter 1 - Basic science, investigations and lasers Flashcards

1
Q

Which ocular strucuture are derived from the surface ectoderm

A 
Conjuctival and corneal epithelium
Nasolacrimal Duct
Lens
Lacrimal gland
Eyelids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which ocular structures are derived from the neuroectoderm

A

neurosensory retina
Pigment epithelium of retina, iris and ciliary body
pupillary sphincter and dilator muscles
optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which ocular structures are derived from the neural crest

A 
corneal endothelium
trabecular meshwork
strom of cornea, iris and cilirary body
ciliary muscle
choroid
sclera
orbital cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which ocular structures are derived from the mesoderm

A

extraocular muscles
blood vessels
schlemm’s canal endothelium
sclera (temporal portion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Autosomal Dominant diseases

A 
Congenital cataracts
Best disease
Fuchs’ corneal dystrophy (also sporadic)
Granular and lattice corneal dystrophies
Marfan syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Retinitis pigmentosa (also AR or XLR)
Retinoblastoma (most commonly sporadic)
Stickler syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AR-conditions

A

Congenital glaucoma (most commonly sporadic)
Oculocutaneous albinism
Stargardt disease
Retinitis pigmentosa-like conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

X-linked recessive

A

Fabry disease
Lowe syndrome
Ocular albinism
Retinoschisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

X-linked dominant

A

Alport syndrome (also AR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Kearns-Sayre syndrome

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe myco bacteria

A

Acid-fast bacilli that are aerobic and non-spore forming. They contain a cell wall that does not allow Gram staining; Ziehl-Neelson stain is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe chlamydia

A

Obligate intracellular bacterium. They can exist in the form of either elementary bodies (infectious) or reticular bodies (found in host cells only) during their life cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Yeast fungus -explain

A

Yeasts are unicellular microorganisms. A good example is Candida albicans. Candida is a commensal that reproduces by budding. It causes infection in immunocompromised patients and is the most common cause of endogenous endophthalmitis presenting with white fluffy retinal lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Filamentous

A

Their cells grow in a branching-like pattern. Aspergillus spp. and Fusarium spp. are types of filamentous fungi. They are common in warm climates and can cause fungal keratitis, usually following ocular trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dimorphic

A

These fungi have properties of both yeasts and filamentous fungi. Histoplasma capsulatum is a soil fungus, endemic in Mississippi and Ohio River Valleys. Transmission is via inhalation. It can cause presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (POHS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Obligate intracellular parasite (protozoa). Cats are the definitive host. Transmission to humans is via fecal-oral spread, inhalation or undercooked meats. It can also be transmitted in pregnancy via vertical transmission. T. gondii can cause congenital or adult toxoplasmosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acanthamoeba:

A

Protozoa that can be found in soil, water or swimming pools. It can cause severe keratitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Toxocara:

A

A helminth nematode (roundworm). Their hosts are cats and dogs. It can be transmitted to humans through fecal-contaminated material. It causes toxocariasis which presents with endophthalmitis in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Onchocerca volvulus

A

The most common helminth-related ocular infection. The vectors are Simulium blackflies. It causes onchocerciasis (‘river blindness’) and is endemic in Africa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anti-biotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Anti-fungals that inhibit cell membrane function

A

Imidazoles, amphotericin and nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anti-biotic that inhibits protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anti-biotic that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

A

Fluoroquinolones (DNA gyrase)

Metronidazole

23
Q

Innated imune system cells

A

Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells and the complement system

24
Q

Adaptive immune system

A

immune response towards a specific antigen, mediated by lymphocytes (T and B cells).

25
Q

TUMOUR NECROSIS FACTOR

A

Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha are proinflammatory cells produced by macrophages. They help in the activation and differentiation of immune cells and increase vascular permeability. They are therefore mediators of inflammation and septic shock.

26
Q

IL-1

A

Induces immune responses and causes fever

27
Q

IL-2

A

Proliferation of T and B cells

28
Q

IL-5

A

Regulates growth and activation of eosinophils

29
Q

IL-6

A

Involved in differentiation of B cells and production of c-reactive protein (CRP); causes fever

30
Q

IL-8

A

Attracts neutrophils, T cells, basophils and eosinophils

31
Q

IL-10

A

Suppresses immune cells

32
Q

IL-12

A

Differentiates T cells into TH1 and enhances cytotoxicity

33
Q

Normal IOP

A

Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) within a population is considered to be within ± 2 standard deviations of the mean IOP, which ranges between 10 and 21 mmHg.

34
Q

IOP difference in glaucoma

A

IOP in normal individuals has an average diurnal fluctuation ranging between 2 and 6 mmHg, while glaucoma patients have a higher diurnal fluctuation (>10 mmHg). Elevated IOP can cause glaucoma if left untreated.

35
Q

IOP raising agents

A

Steroids
Tropicamide (close-angle glaucoma)
Ketamine

36
Q

Drugs that cause lens opacification and cataracts

A 
steroids
amiodarone
allopurinol
chlorpromazine
tobacco smoke
37
Q

Mechanism of beta-blockers

A

E.g. Timolol

Decreases aqueous production

38
Q

Side effects of BB

A

Decreased corneal sensation, dry eye, tachyphylaxis, bradycardia, bronchospasm and nocturnal hypotension

39
Q

Mechanism of prostaglandin analogue

A

E.g. Latanoprost
Increase aqueous
drainage via the uveoscleral outflow

40
Q

Side effects of prostaglandin

A

Conjunctival hyperaemia, iris hyperpigmentation, increased eyelash length and cystoid macular oedema (CMO)

41
Q

Mechanism of Alpha-2 agonists

A

E.g. Apraclonidine

Decrease aqueous production and increase uveoscleral outflow

42
Q

Side effect of a1 agonist

A

Follicular conjunctivitis, contact dermatitis, tachyphylaxis, dry mouth and sedation. Used with caution in infants as they can cross the blood-brain barrier

43
Q

Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAI)

A

E.g Dorxolamide

Decrease aqueous production

44
Q

Side effects of topical CAI

A

Ocular stinging, bitter taste and punctate keratitis. Contraindicated in patients with sulphonamide allergies

45
Q

Side effects of systemic CAI

A

Paraesthesia, urine frequency (diuretic effect), hypokalaemia, Steven-Johnson syndrome and metabolic acidosis

46
Q

Miotics

A

Pilocarpine

Parasympathomimetics that increase aqueous drainage via trabecular meshwork by causing contraction of ciliary muscles

47
Q

Side effects of miotics

A

Myopia, brow ache, miosis and retinal detachment

48
Q

Osmotic agents mechanism

A

Mannitol

Lowers IOP by decreasing vitreous volume

49
Q

Side-effects of osmotic agents

A

Cardiovascular overload

50
Q

Which drugs cause cystoid macular oedema

A

Latanoprost, epinephrine, rosiglitazone and nicotinic acid

51
Q

Which drugs cause bull’s eye maculopathy

A

Hydroxychloroquine and chloroquine

52
Q

Which drug causes crystaline maculopathy

A

Tamoxifen

53
Q

Drugs that can cause optic nerve damage

A 
Ethambutol
Chloramphenicol
Amiodarone
Vigabatrin: Causes binasal visual field defects
Isoniazid
54
Q

Vortex keratopathy (corneal verticillata) causes

A

Drugs: Amiodarone, chloroquines, indomethacin and phenothiazines.
●●
Fabry disease: An XLR condition characterised by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A. Other features of the disease include burning pain in the extremities, angiokeratomas, renal failure and posterior subcapsular cataracts

Duke Elder book (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions