Chapter 1: Asset Classes Flashcards

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1
Q

Consider the following scenarios:
- Harvey invests in a short-dated, AAA rated government bond
- Sonia invests in a high yield bond
- Fiona invests in a secured corporate bond
- Peter invests in a floating rate note

Using only the information available, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Both Fiona and Harvey have a claim on the issuers’ assets in the case of default
B. Of the four investors, Harvey and Fiona are more likely to receive income until redemption
C. The issuer of Sonia’s investment has a high probability of default
D. Of the four investors, Harvey and Peter are exposed to lower levels of capital fluctuations

A

A. is the correct answer.

Due to the short life of the government bond and the floating coupon on Peter’s bond, these two will have very low price volatility.

Only Fiona, with a secured bond, has a claim on the issuers’ assets. This makes it less likely that the issuer will default - a case that is also evident in the AAA rated government bond.

Sonia’s bond is high risk and more likely to default than any other here.

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2
Q

According to market convention, what is the official classification of gilt maturities into Shorts, Mediums and Longs?

A. 1 - 5 yrs, 6 -15 yrs, 15 yrs +
B. Less than 7 yrs, 7 -15 yrs, 15 yrs +
C. 1 - 5 yrs 6 -10 yrs, 10 yrs +
D. 1 - 7 yrs, 8 -12 yrs, 12 yrs +

A

B. Less than 7 yrs, 7 - 15 yrs, 15 yrs+

The Debt Management Office (DMO) sets out this official classification.

If you chose 1 - 5 yrs, 6 -15 yrs, 15 yrs +, you were thinking of the classification according to the London Stock Exchange where these gilts can be traded. Although an acceptable definition, it is not the official classification.

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3
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of a non-fungible token?

A. A homogenous tangible asset
B. A homogenous intangible asset
C. A unique tangible asset
D. A unique intangible asset

A

D. A NFT is a unique intangible asset.

Generally, with alternative investments, investors end up with a tangible item such as a painting, an antique or a collection of coins. Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are like physical collectors’ items, except they are digital. More specifically, NFTs are unique digital tokens in the blockchain network. Each NFT can be associated with a particular digit asset and a licence to use that asset for a specific purpose.

Cryptocurrencies are tokens as well; however, the key difference is that two cryptocurrencies from the same blockchain are interchangeable—they are fungible. Two NFTs from the same blockchain can look identical, but they are not interchangeable.

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4
Q

All of the following statements are true with regard to settlement of trades in the secondary market EXCEPT:

A. UK corporate bond trades settle 3 business days after trade
B. UK equity trades settle 2 business days after trade
C. UK spot foreign exchange trades settle after 2 business days
D. UK Gilt trades settle after 1 business day

A

A. Prior to October 2013, the settlement time for corporate bonds and equity was 3 business days after trade. This was reduced to 2 business days, in line with EU requirements in the Central Securities Depositary Regulation (CSDR).

Rights issues still have a settlement time of 1 business day.

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5
Q

Permanent interest bearing shares are issued by what type of organisation?

A. Banks
B. Building Societies
C. Insurance Companies
D. Open Ended Investment Companies

A

B. Building societies issue PIBS.

A building society is a mutual fund and does not offer genuine shares. Permanent interest bearing shares (PIBS) are a form of fixed-income security and can be traded on the London Stock Exchange (LSE). They rank lower than other creditors of the building society and are perpetuities (they have no redemption date).

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6
Q

Value and growth approaches to investing in equity tend to be considered as alternative and incompatible approaches.

However, there is a reconciling approach that attempts to capture both aspects in the approach to stock selection. What is this approach commonly known as?

A. GARP
B. Quantitative investing
C. CAPM
D. Long/short strategies

A

A. Growth at Reasonable Price.

GARP is an acronym for ‘Growth At a Reasonable Price’ and commonly uses the P/E ratio combined with growth to compare available shares using PEG ratios.

CAPM is short for Capital Asset Pricing Model.

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7
Q

What measure of inflation is used currently with index-linked gilts?

A. CPI 3 months prior
B. RPI 3 months prior
C. CPI 8 months prior
D. RPI 8 months prior

A

B. Index-linked gilts use RPI 3 months prior.

Index-linked gilts are linked to the retail prices index (RPI). However, to give an element of predictability about the cash flows an investor will receive, the RPI measure used is the one 3 months prior to the payment.

It should be noted that before 2004 the government used an RPI measure 8 months prior to the payment date, and gilts issued before this time still use this method.

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8
Q

Which of the following bonds is likely to display the least volatility?

A. Longer dated
B. Zero coupon
C. Non-investment grade
D. High coupon

A

D. High coupon bond is likely to display the least volatility.

Long dated, low coupon and junk bonds are all higher volatility bonds.

Bonds with lower coupons have more price volatility than bonds with higher coupons.
- When interest rates rise, both high coupon and low coupon bonds will fall in value; the low coupon will fall further in value as it yields less interest to reinvest back into the market at the new, higher rate of interest.
- Likewise, when interest rates fall, both high coupon and low coupon bonds will rise in value; the high coupon will rise further in value as it yields more interest to reinvest back into the market.

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9
Q

What is the best definition of a Eurobond?

A. A bond issued in the home country of its issuer and in a currency other than that of the issuer’s home currency
B. A bond issued outside the home country of the issuer and in the currency of the country of issue
C. A bond issued in the home country of the issuer and in the same currency as the issuer’s home currency
D. A bond issued outside the home country of the issuer and in a currency other than that of the country of issue

A

D. A eurobond is issued through international placing, therefore is issued in more than one country at the same time.

It is also issued in a eurocurrency. A eurocurrency is not necessarily the Euro, and is not necessarily a European currency. A eurocurrency can be any currency held on deposit in a country from where it does not originate, for example Sterling held in the US or US Dollars held in Japan.

Hence a bond issued outside the issuer’s home country in a currency other than that of the country of issue is the best definition of a eurobond.

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between LIBOR and IBID?

A. LIBOR is always higher than IBID
B. IBID is always higher than LIBOR
C. Both rates are at a similar level
D. Either rate could be higher

A

A. LIBOR is always higher than IBID.

IBID is typically set to be 1/8th of a percent lower than LIBOR.

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11
Q

A pension fund manager is concerned about the negative impact of interest rate risk on her portfolio.

She estimates that the fund will need to start buying annuities in roughly 30 years.

Which of the following bond purchases will enable her to best immunise her portfolio from uncertainty in interest rates?

A. 30 year 6%coupon gilt
B. 30 year 4% coupon gilt
C. 30 year 2% coupon gilt
D. 30 year zero coupon gilt

A

D. 30 year zero coupon gilt.

Zero coupon bonds have some intriguing properties that are much valued by pension funds and risk managers who use these bonds to get more effective immunisation against interest rate risk, by matching the duration of their assets with the duration of their liabilities.

The duration of a zero coupon bond is the same as its maturity. Hence, a 30 year liability can be immunised with a 30 year zero coupon bond. Since the DMO does not issue zero coupon gilts, it is necessary for dealers to create them synthetically (STRIPS).

Conventional coupon bearing bonds, even with low coupons and ultra-long maturities, have durations that are limited to around 18 years.

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12
Q

James Knight sees a quoted rate of 6% pa for a deposit account that has interest paid quarterly. What is the annual equivalent rate?

A. 1.06%
B. 1.06136%
C. 6%
D. 6.136%

A

D. 6.136%

Any rate quoted pa is a simple interest rate for the year. This interest rate is paid quarterly, so to calculate the annual equivalent rate (AER) we would need to work out the period rate and then compound the rate for the year.

Period rate - There are 4 three-month periods in a year, so:
6% / 4 = 1.5%
Compound rate:
(1.015^4) - 1 = 0.06136 or 6.136%.

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13
Q

Which of the following are the two main types of money market fund?

A. Constant Net Asset Value and Constant Net Repayment
B. Accumulating Net Asset Value and Accumulating Net Repayment
C. Constant Net Asset Value and Accumulating Net Asset Value
D. Constant Net Repayment and Accumulating Net Repayment

A

C. Constant Net Asset Value (CNAV) and Accumulating Net Value are the two types of money market fund.

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14
Q

An investor makes a sale of 20,000 UK shares at a quoted price (in pence) of 210/220 on the London Stock Exchange. The broker charges 0.25% commission (or a minimum of £10) per trade.

Taking into consideration these charges and any other taxes or levies, how much will the INVESTOR receive on settlement?

A. £41,895
B. £41,894
C. £43,669
D. £44,331

A

B. £41,894

Sale proceeds = 20,000 x £2.10 = £42,000
Broker’s commission = £42,000 x 0.0025 = (£105)
Takeover Panel levy = (£1)
TOTAL = £41,894

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15
Q

Jason Knight, a higher rate tax payer has made a capital gain on a holding of corporate bonds. What is his tax position on the gain?

A. He will be liable for 40% Capital Gains Tax on the gain
B. He may use his CGT allowance (if available) and then be liable to 40% on the balance
C. He may use his CGT allowance (if available) and then be liable to 20% Capital Gains Tax on the balance
D. He has no tax to pay

A

D. He has no tax to pay.

Generally speaking there is no capital gains tax on corporate bonds. If the examiner had specified ‘convertible loan stock’ there would be CGT to pay.

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16
Q

If the government issues a 2.5% index-linked gilt, how would the coupon paid be assessed?

A. The coupon plus the change in the RPI
B. The coupon only - it is the capital that is adjusted for inflation
C. The change in the RPI up to the coupon rate
D. The coupon less the change in the RPI

A

A. The coupon plus the change in the RPI.

The coupon is adjusted upwards by the change in the RPI, as well as the capital.

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17
Q

Alexis, a private investor, is quoted £94 for a gilt with a coupon of 6.5%.

Assuming she buys it 54 days after the last payment of interest, what is the dirty price of the gilt assuming 365 days in the year?

A. £94.96
B. £95.06
C. £95.16
D. £95.26

A

A. £94.96

Dirty price = clean price + accrued interest
Clean price = £94
Accrued interest = 54/365 x £6.5 = £0.96
Dirty price = £94.00 + £0.96 = £94.96.

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18
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the retail bond market?

I. They are traded in units up to £50,000
II. They are sold directly to clients by investment bank sales teams
III. They are sold to clients by wealth management firms
IV. Maturities range from 10 to 15 years

A. I, II only
B. II, IV only
C. I, III, IV only
D. I, III only

A

D. I, III only.

The retail bond market has been steadily growing in recent years, and investors can expect to invest in these bonds via their market intermediaries, such as wealth managers. In contrast, the wholesale bond market would involve direct selling by the sales teams of investment banks.

They are traded in units up to £50,000. The institutional bond market would trade in units above £50,000.

Typical maturities would be between 5 and 10 years.

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19
Q

Gilts are issued by the UK Government to fund which requirement?

A. GEMMS
B. LGNCR
C. PWLB
D. CGNCR

A

D. CGNCR

The central government net cash requirement is a deficit created through the central government spending more on running the country (state benfits, road-building, etc) than it raises through tax, duties, etc. It is funded through the issue of gilts.

Public sector net cash requirement (PSNCR) = CGNCR + LGNCR + PCNCR

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20
Q

How much would an investor pay to buy £50,000 nominal of a gilt at a price of £103.75?

A. £103.75
B. £50,000
C. £51,875
D. £5,187,500

A

C. The nominal value (NV) is the amount that an investor is deemed to have lent the government, but rarely reflects the actual price of the gilt.

In the exam, we always assume £100NV per gilt, so this investor is buying 500 gilts. Each gilt is priced at £103.75, so the total amount payable would be:
£103.75 x 500 gilts = £51,875

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21
Q

What is a cap rate used for?

A. Calculating the market capitalisation of a constituent of an index
B. Estimating the capital expenditure of a firm
C. Valuing a commercial property
D. Estimating the maximum interest rate payable on a loan

A

C. Valuing a commercial property.

A Cap (Capitalisation) Rate is used to value a commercial property. It is estimated from comparable properties that have been sold recently. It is used in conjunction with a commercial property’s net operating income to work out its value. The idea is that the property is worth a multiple of its income generating capacity.

22
Q

Which of the following categories of private equity is typically issued as subordinated debt?

A. Venture Capital
B. Leveraged Buy Outs
C. Mezzanine Capital
D. Distressed Investments

A

C. Mezzanine Capital is typically subordinated debt. This is very risky lending as companies are often not able to meet scheduled repayments in their early stages of development.

23
Q

Unsubordinated bonds are sometimes described as:

A. Junior debt
B. Mid ranking debt
C. Subordinate debt
D. Senior debt

A

D. Senior debt.

Unsubordinated is just a complicated way of stating conventional debt. They could be secured or unsecured and rank above (have seniority) over subordinated (or junior) debt.

24
Q

Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

I. Large capitalisation shares are traded on SEAQ
II. SETS is an order-driven system

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. I only.

Large cap issues, including all of the companies in the FTSE All Share index, are traded on SETS.

25
Q

Cheryl Brown has held an 8% Treasury until redemption over a four year term. If she bought it four years ago for £108 what is her approximate Gross Yield to Redemption?

A. 9.45%
B. 7.4%
C. 5.55%
D. -1.85%

A

C. 5.55 %

The gross redemption yield takes into consideration the running or income yield and the capital gain/loss on redemption.

We assume a £100 nominal value so Cheryl makes a capital loss on redemption:
100-108/4 years = - £2 p.a.
- £2 / 108 = - 1.85%
The interest yield is: £8 coupon/£108 = 7.4% p.a.
The gross redemption yield will take the two together: 7.4% - 1.85% = 5.55%

26
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT in relation to National Savings and Investments?

A. NS&I is an executive agency of the Treasury
B. NS&I products are risk-free
C. NS&I products are not subject to capital gains tax
D. NS&I products are not subject to income tax

A

D. Most of the NS&I products are subject to income tax.

27
Q

Which of the following is incorrect in relation to Permanent Interest Bearing Shares?

A. PIBS have a fixed redemption date
B. PIBS holders are not covered by the Financial Services Compensation Scheme
C. PIBS are traded on the London Stock Exchange
D. PIBS can be converted into a Perpetual Subordinated Bond on demutualisation

A

A. PIBS do NOT have a fixed redemption date, they are iredeemable.

Remember a building society is a mutual fund and does not offer genuine shares. Permanent interest bearing shares (PIBS) are a form of fixed-income security and can be traded on the London Stock Exchange (LSE). They rank lower than other creditors of the building society and are perpetuities (they have no redemption date).

28
Q

Property authorised investment funds (PAIFs) pay three types of distributions to investors: property income, UK dividend income, and other taxable income. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the tax treatment of this income?

A. Property income distributions can be paid gross to some investors
B. UK dividend distributions are paid net, and reclaimable by non-taxpayers
C. Other taxable income is paid net of a the higher rate of tax, and is reclaimable for non-taxpayers
D. All distributions are paid net of a 20% non-reclaimable tax credit

A

A. Property income distributions can be paid gross to some investors.

Property income is typically paid net, but certain tax-exempt investors, e.g. charities, can be paid gross. Other taxable income is treated the same as for other funds and paid out gross.

29
Q

Which of the following statements are relevant for requirement linked accounts?

I. Offer above average headline interest rates
II. May require the account holder to open a separate low interest account
III. The higher interest is usually only offered for the first year
IV. The overall AER for the account holder may be lower than they expect

A. I, II only
B. I, II, III only
C. II, III, IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV

A

D. It is important for the account holder to consider the overall return they make on the accounts they open. The low interest account they take out to obtain the higher rate account will drag down their return. Overall their AER will be lower than the headline rate.

30
Q

Lesley Watson holds a 6% Treasury 2034, trading at a price of £85. What is the interest yield?

A. 3%
B. 3.5%
C. 6%
D. 7%

A

D. 7%.

The interest yield is the income yield on the the bond. It express the the amount paid in the coupon as a percentage of the price an investor would have to pay for the bond. When thinking about the coupon, remember that the nominal value (against which the coupon is set) is always assumed to be £100.

The simplest way to calculate the interest yield is:
6/85 = 7%.

31
Q

When a company has a capitalisation issue, which of the following is most likely to be true?

A. New funds are raised for the company
B. The share premium account will decrease
C. The share price will increase
D. Investors are invited to buy more shares

A

B. In a capitalisation issue no new money is raised, as the shares are issued free of charge. This has a dilutionary impact on the share price, i.e. the share price will fall.

However, in accounting terms, the share capital of the company has increased - each of the new shares has a nominal value that adds to the share capital. This increase in the share capital of the company is typically funded through a movement of money from the company’s share premium account. If there is no money in the share premium account the company can use the profit and loss reserve (or retained income).

32
Q

Space Trek plc has profits of £2.5m, from which £2m is retained and £0.5m is paid in dividends.

Assuming there are 1m shares in issue, what is the dividend cover?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A

C. 5

There are two ways the examiner can ask you to calculate dividend cover, although both are essentially the same.

The first could be:
Dividend cover = earnings per share/dividend per shre

The second is the one used by this question:
Dividend cover = profits / total dividends paid
Dividend Cover = £2.5m / £0.5m = 5x

33
Q

Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding buying gilts direct from the DMO at Auction?

I. With a non-competitive bid, the price is not known in advance
II. With a successful non-competitive bid, the investor’s application will be met in full

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both

Non-competitive bids are exactly as the name suggests. Everyone gets the gilts that they bid for and everyone pays the same price for the gilts. However, this price cannot be calculated until after the competitive auction has been completed.

34
Q

In the event of liquidation, what is the correct priority of payment: first to last?

A. Subordinated debt, preference shares, senior debt, ordinary shares
B. Preference shares, senior debt, subordinated debt, ordinary shares
C. Preference shares, ordinary shares, senior debt, subordinated debt
D. Senior debt, subordinated debt, preference shares, ordinary shares

A

D. Senior debt, subordinated debt, preference shares, ordinary shares.

These priorities show the order the liquidators will consider when paying out funds to creditors and owners. Note that debt holders are paid before shareholders.

35
Q

Jennifer Spears phones her broker to sell £12,000 worth of shares in a UK company, Fashion plc. Assuming her broker charges 1% commission, what will her total cost be for this transaction?

A. £120
B. £121
C. £180
D. £181

A

B. £121.

Commission 1% = £120

Plus Takeover Panel Levy (as the transaction is above £10,000) £1 = £121 total.

This is a sale, so no stamp duty is due.

36
Q

Which of the following is/are adjusted for inflation with an Index-linked gilt?

I. The coupon
II. The redemption value

A. i only
B. ii only
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both

Both the coupon and the redemption value will be adjusted for inflation based on the retail prices index (RPI). This gives the holder an element of inflation protection, as not only will the amount returned to the investor have the same purchasing power as the amount lent, but the return offered by the coupon will also offer the equivalent purchasing power throughout the life of the bond.

37
Q

Which of the following does not result in any diversification benefits?

A. Perfect negative correlation
B. Imperfect negative correlation
C. Perfect positive correlation
D. Imperfect positive correlation

A

C. Perfect positive correlation.

No diversification benefits arise if assets move perfectly in synch together.

38
Q

Growth plc issue a rights issue at £4 on a 1 for 2 basis. Miranda Meadows holds 50 shares in Growth plc and the current share price is £5. What is the theoretical ex-rights price?

A. £5.26
B. £5.06
C. £4.86
D. £4.66

A

D. £4.66.

Miranda holds 50 shares at £5 each and has the right to buy 25 further shares at the lower price of £4. Once issued these new shares will trade equally with the existing shares, causing the overall share price to fall. The theoretical ex-rights price is the expected price of the share after the dilution.
Existing holding = 50 x £5 = £250
New shares +25 x £4 = £100

Total value = £350
Total no. of shares is now 50 + 25 = 75
Therefore, £350/75 = £4.66 per share.

39
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding peer to peer lending?

I. Independent companies match borrowers and lenders online for a fee
II. Interest is received net of the basic rate
III. Depositors have recourse to the FSCS for losses incurred
IV. Peer to peer lending is now permitted as an ISA investment

A. I, III and IV only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I and IV only

A

D. I and IV only.

Interest is received gross and must be declared in full to the HMRC. Depositors have no recourse to the FSCS for losses incurred.

40
Q

Michael Knight phones his broker to buy £15,000 worth of shares in a UK company, NewTec plc. Assuming his broker charges 1.5% commission, what will his total outlay be including all relevant fees and charges?

A. £15,301
B. £15,226
C. £15,225
D. £14,774

A

A. £15,301.

Shares £15,000
Commission 1.5% £225
Stamp Duty 0.5% £75
PTM levy £1
Total Cost £15,301.

41
Q

Which of the following is not excluded from the formation of a bond index?

A. Strippable bonds
B. Variable interest bonds
C. Convertible bonds
D. Index-linked bonds

A

A. Strippable bonds.

Strippable bonds are included in bond indices. All the others are excluded.

42
Q

Which of the following are the correct components of enterprise value (EV)?

A. EV = Market capitalisation + Market value of preferred shares + Market value of debt + Cash
B. EV = Market capitalisation + Market value of preferred shares + Market value of debt - Cash
C. EV = Market capitalisation - Market value of preferred shares + Market value of debt + Cash
D. EV = Market capitalisation + Market value of preferred shares - Market value of debt + Cash

A

B. EV = Market capitalisation + Market value of preferred shares + Market value of debt - Cash

EV is often considered as a cost of taking over the company. It would require buying out all the stakeholders, such as the owners and creditors. However, the new owner would inherit the cash position of the company, enabling them to pay off some of the debt. That is why the cash is subtracted from the value of the securities.

43
Q

In comparing a rights issue with a bonus issue, which of the following is correct?

I. Rights issues always have a rights price below the current share price
II. The theoretical ex-rights price will be equal to the current share price

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. I only.

During a rights issue, new shares will be offered to existing investors at a discount to the current market price. This makes it more attractive to investors and means the issuer is more likely to raise the capital that they need.

However, issuing shares at a discount will dilute the share price on the markets, giving a theoretical ex-rights price lower than the current market price.

44
Q

In relation to equities, the record date usually falls on what day of the week?

A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday

A

D. Friday.

For companies trading on the London Stock Exchange, the company registrar will check who is entitled to dividends on the record date. This is typically a Friday. The share will go ex-dividend on the Thursday immediately preceding this day.

45
Q

Consider the following scenarios.

  • Huw buys shares through an initial public offer
  • Frederick subscribes for shares through a rights issue
  • Mary receives shares in a bonus issue

Which of the following is UNTRUE?
A. Frederick and Mary will typically find their share price fall
B. Mary does not need to pay for any new shares
C. The bonus issue alone will not cause any redistribution in ownership
D. The new shares received by Mary would have been underwritten

A

D. Mary receives shares for free in the bonus issue. As the company is not raising any new capital, underwriting is not necessary. All of the other statements are true.

46
Q

Which of the following are key risks of deposits?

I. Inflation risk
II. Operational risk

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both of these are risks of deposits.

47
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT in relation to investors buying gilts from the DMO’s Gilt Purchase and Sale Service?

A. It is operated by Computershare
B. It is an execution only service
C. Investors specify the nominal amount to buy
D. The investor cannot specify the price

A

C. Investors specify the nominal amount to buy.

As gilts will rarely be issued at their nominal value, the purchase and sale service run by Computershare needs to ensure that investors can afford the gilts that they wish to buy. For this reason, investors specify the market value, not the nominal value.

48
Q

Which of the following is the best description of a yield curve

A. A historical time chart of a yield on a particular bond
B. A cross sectional chart of yields of different bonds of different issuers at a point in time
C. A snapshot of all yields of different bonds by the same issuer at a point in time
D. A snapshot of yields of different bonds with the same maturity from different issuers at a point in time

A

C. A snapshot of all yields of different bonds by the same issuer at a point in time.

A yield curve must not be confused with a historical time series chart of a yield on a particular bond. Instead, it is a snapshot of all the yields on a series of different maturity bonds, issued by the same issuer at one point in time.

49
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding property authorised investment funds (PAIFs)?

I. PAIFs pay no tax on their property investment income
II. PAIFs must generate at least 50% of their net income from their property investment business
III. No single corporate investor can hold more than 5% of the shares in a PAIF
IV. The property investment business must represent at least 60% of the PAIFs total assets

A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III and IV

A

B. I and IV only.

PAIFs must generate at least 60% of their net income from their property investment business. Additionally, no single corporate investor can hold 10% or more of the shares in a PAIF.

50
Q

The price to book ratio is often used as a relative valuation measure for shares in the banking sector. What are the components of the ratio?

A. The market value of the ordinary shares is compared to the value of net assets on the balance sheet
B. The market value of the ordinary shares is compared to the value of sales on the income statement
C. The market value of the ordinary shares is compared to the value of total assets on the balance sheet
D. The market value of the ordinary shares is compared to the value of liabilities on the balance sheet

A

A. The market value of equity is compared to the value of equity, or net assets, on the balance (book) sheet.

51
Q

Natasha Deville holds a 13% Exchequer Stock 2029 trading at a price of £118. What is the running yield?

A. 5.5%
B. 6.5%
C. 11%
D. 13%

A

C. 11%

The running yield is the income yield on the the bond. It express the the amount paid in the coupon as a percentage of the price an investor would have to pay for the bond.

When thinking about the coupon, remember that the nominal value (against which the coupon is set) is always assumed to be £100.

The simplest way to calculate the running yield is:
13/118 = 11%.

52
Q

Which is the most risky debt?

A. BB rated debt
B. C rated debt
C. CC rated debt
D. B rated debt

A

B. C rated debt.

In Standard and Poors ratings C rated debt is the most risky. It is worth noting that all of these would be considered speculative grade or junk.