Chapter 1 Administrative Policy Flashcards

1
Q

1010

A

Intro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1020

A

Scope of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1030

A

consent and competency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Emergency care to minors

A

Fs 743.064

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Emergency exam and treatment of incapacitated persons

A

Fs 401.445

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1030 refusal to treat documentation

A

Mentally competent

Axo x4
No signicant mental impairment
Not mentally incompetent

If concerned for minor contact rescue dis/ bat chief for assistance with transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1030 a patient is

A

A person with subjective and or objective signs and or symptoms or complaints which results evaluation and or treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1030 patient encounter

A

Patient encounter is dependent on neither treatment nor transport nor cooperation from the patient. If I technician perceives a medical problem that requires a valuation, patient encounter has been made in a full report must be completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1030 baker act

A

A Baker act is involuntary mental health commitment by law-enforcement if the patient needs any of the following criteria

Mentally incompetent, danger to self or others
Suicidal
Homocidal

Jfrd members are not legally authorized to execute a baker act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1040

A

Controlled substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1040 what days of the month are the Chiefs inspection for controlled substance

A

Monthly 23 24 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1040 who will restock all controlled substances

A

The rescue district/battalion chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1040 restocking should occur when

A

Minimum aLS inventory is reached

Minimum rescue inventory is reach

Month prior to expiration date

Prior to holiday or weekend when stock is close to minimum rescue inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1060

A

Cooperation with law enforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1070

A

Blood draw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1080

A

Patient restraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1080 jfrd allowed restraints

A

Soft limb
Stretcher straps/harness
Wide cloth

Supine only
No hogtie
Restraints shall not prohibit eval of mental status or injure the patient in anyway
Frequently assess the patient- airway, distal limb is adequate and restraints can be release quickly if patients condition deteriorates
Check extremeties every five mintes
Never leave patient unattended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1080 documentation of restraints

A

Behavior
Type
Status of circulation distal to res

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1090

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1090 rescue officers will provide what color ems copy to hospital

A

Rescue officers will provide the white copy to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1090 app ems field copies must be

A

Shredded after completion of EPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pcr 1090 cancelled by dispatch

A

Cancelled by frcc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1090 cancel by ems agency

A

Cancelled by private ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cancelled by law enforment

A

Jso, jbpd ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1090 citizen assist

A

Assist a citizen without a medical complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1090 stand by meaning

A

Non transporting rescue/non-primary supression unit on a cardiac arrest, hostage situation, secondary units for education, MCI’s or any additional manpower request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1090 false call

A

No patient found any false call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Doa

A

Any obvious death

29
Q

Pronouncement of death

A

Any patient that is pronounced dead on scene MVA,GSW

30
Q

Evaluation only

A

Patient evaluation only

31
Q

Lawn Enforcment

A

Patient evaluated by Jfrd but transported by law enforcement

32
Q

Refused evaluation

A

Anytime a patient refuses an assessment

33
Q

Refused treatment/transport

A

Patient refused treatment and/or transport after evaluation

34
Q

Treated and refuse transport

A

Patient treated on scene and refused transport

35
Q

Transfer to another EMS agency

A

Transferred to ATU

36
Q

Unit assist

A

Unit assist will be used every time a suppression unit arrives on scene at the same time or has the same patient contact time as a rescue unit

37
Q

Treated and transferred care within agency

A

Treated and transferred care within agency must be used when the suppression apparatus arrives on scene first and provide patient care prior to the arrival of the rescue unit. This documentation must also include all information from patient contact time to the transfer of care to the rescue unit

38
Q

Assessment times

A

Five for unstable patient
15 minutes if patient is stable

Min two required, one at patient contact time, one at hospital

Anytime als procedure is performed, must be listed on flow sheet

39
Q

Parent information must be

A

Added to the billing section underneath n0K (next of kin)for all pediatric patients

40
Q

Acquire the patients health insurance info from

A

Hospitals face sheet when Possible and document into billing section

41
Q

If the laptop is not functioning following a transport,

A

A paper responsibility signature must be completed.

The form is located on our target solutions under Jfrd EMS resources

The paper signature form must be delivered to rescue district/battalion chief he will then hand-deliver it to quality improvement officer

42
Q

Only approve Jfrd format for PCR narrative

A

Cc
Hpi
Pe
Tx

43
Q

Cc

A

Patients main complaint

44
Q

Hpi

A

Exactly how the patient presented to Jfrd personnel

Complete description of why patient called

Include a detailed description of the patients compaints

45
Q

Physical exam

A

Evaluate objective and atomic Vinings through the use of observation, palpitation, percussion, and ausciltation

Include location, quality, pain scale, duration and any associated signs or symptoms that may relate to the present illness

Include pertinent positive and negative findings

46
Q

Tx

A

And sure that you document;

How the patient was moved to stretcher and details of the ER transfer to include staff members name that receive the patient

Any changes in patient condition that occurred during the transport and transfer of care at hospital

The continuous monitoring of the patient

47
Q

Note section

A

The additional section will be used for any unusual circumstances that occurred during the entire duration of the incident

48
Q

Refusal

A
One set of vitals per patient
Any improvement
Phys exam:
A + O x 4
TRauma medical psych toxins "TMPT"
Competency of patient:
Greater than or equal to 18 or court emancipated minor
Is a +O x 4
No drugs or alcohol

Patient is competent
Explain need for treatment risk associated with refusal willingness of ema to transport patient and that they should call 911 if anything changes

49
Q

Document of pcr for refusal

A

All cases of refusal
All cases with an assessment of competency
All refusal language
Name of patent
Signature of patient or guardian
No one else can sign for a legally competent adult
If patient refuses to sign document it
Printed name, signature and phone number of competent witnes

50
Q

Appropriate witnesses in order of preference

A

Spouse, relatives, lawn force meant, friends, and other fire rescue personnel

51
Q

1110

A

Qi

52
Q

1120

A

Reporting abuse/neglect

53
Q

Vulnerable adult

A

Defined as one Hugh, due to their age or disability, maybe unable to adequately provide for their own care or protection

54
Q

Reporting abuse

A

Report suspicions to ED doc

State of florida req:
Oic verbal report to staye toll free # 1800-962-2873
Notify rescue district chief

Notify div chiefbof rescue in 24 hours including only first name and id number of the contact person. NO patient info in email.

55
Q

Resuscitation protocol

A

1130

56
Q

Unquestionable death

A
Unresp
Apneic
Pulseless
And
Lividity
Body decay
Rigor mortis
Open cranium
Decapitated or severed trunk
57
Q

Trauma death criteria

A

Apneic
Pulseless
If rythmis asystile or wide complex vent ruthm of 30 or lesswithout a pulse, document time and call code

58
Q

Trauma patients of unstable nature should be transported

A

Within 10 minutes when possible

59
Q

If patient not assessed within 15 minutes talk to charge nurse

If transfer of car delayed more than 30 minutes contact frcc

A

1140

60
Q

Atu should be considered for critically ill or injured patients at any time ground transport to the closedt appropriate hospital

A

exceeds 20 minutes

61
Q

Service animals are defined as

A

Dogs that are individually trained to do work or perform task for people with disabilities

62
Q

Service dog questions

A

Only two questions allowed

Is the dog a service dog because of a disability

What work or task has the dog been trained to perform

63
Q

Ada mini horses

A

Range inheigth from 24 inches to 34 inches measures to the shoulders and weigh between 60 and 100 lbs

64
Q

Trauma alert criteria 1160

A

Airway- assisted beyond o2
Circulation- no radial and heart rate greater than 120 or systolic of less than 90

Best motor response BMR gcs four or less or prescense of paralysis or suspicion of spinal cord injury with loss of sensation

Cutaneous- 2nd or 3rd dregres burns to 15% or more of total body surface areas. Or proximal amp to wrist or ankle or any penetrating i jury to head. Neck or torso

Long bone two or more

65
Q

Anytime two trauma alert

A

Airway 30 or greater
Circulation sustained hr of 120 bpm or greater
Bmr of 5 on the motor component of the glasgow coma scale
Cutaneous soft tissue loss from degloving or major flap avulsion greater than 5 inches or has a gsw to extremeties of body
Long body fracture- single long bone fracture resulting from motor vehicle collisoon or fall from an elevation of ten feet or greater
Age-55 or greater
Moi- ejected from a motor vehicle, of any type or impacted steering wheel causing deformity

66
Q

Pediatric criteria for trauma alert one of these

A

Airway airway is maintain by adjust suction intubation or jaw thrust
Circulation non palpable carotid or femoral or systolic less than 50
Consciousness - ams, lethargy inibiloty to follow commands unresponsiceness to voice coma spinal iniurt
Fracture long bone fracture open or multiple fracture sites
Cutaneous- major flap or degloving; 2 or 3 degree burns to 10% of the body surface are.
Amp promomal to wrist or ankle, penetrating injury to head. Neck or torso

67
Q

Pediatric two or more

A

Consciousness symptoms of amnesia or loss of consciouness
Curculation cortid or femoral palpable but radial or pedal not; or the systolic pressure is less than 90mmhg
Fracture signs or synptoms of a single closed long bone fracture
Size pediatric trauma of 11 kilograms or less body length 33 inches

68
Q

Issuing a trauma alert

A

Jfrd call trauma alert
Frcc shall notify satc or saptc

Medical director or issuing ed physcian are only ones allow to change trauma alert status