Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ are organized into P and Q arms where the ____ arms are shorter

_____ have lower GC content while ______ have more GC content and are where genes tend to localize.

A

Chromatids; P

Bands; interbands

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2
Q

Differentiate heterochromatin vs euchromatin

A

Heterochromatin = densely packed, transcriptionally inactive

Euchromatin = dispersed, transcriptionally active

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3
Q

Individual chromatin fibers are composed of a string of _______ — DNA wound around octameric _____ cores, connected via DNA linkers

A

Nucleosomes; histones

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4
Q

Function of nucleosome

A

Nucleosomes form fundamental repeating units of chromatin, which is used to pack the genome into the nucleus while still ensuring appropriate access to it

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5
Q

Promoters and enhancers provide binding sites for transcription factors. What is the difference between the 2?

A

Promoters = initiate gene transcription on same strand/upstream of their associated gene

Enhancers = modulate gene expression over distant sequences; recruit additional factors

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6
Q

Mobile genetic elements called ______ serve to regulate genes and chromatin organization

A

Transposons

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7
Q

2 most common variations in the human genome

A

SNPs = variants at single nucleotide positions; almost always biallelic; occur across genome within exons, introns, intergenic regions, coding regions; may or may not affect gene expression; serve as markers for disease

CNVs = different numbers of large contiguous stretches of DNA; may be biallelic or multiallelic; unknown effect on DNA susceptibility; likely account for much of phenotypic diversity in humans

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8
Q

Epigenic factors associated with histone organization: Histone methylation

A

Occurs at Lys or Arg residues

May be associated with transcription activation or repression (but typically repression!)

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9
Q

Epigenic factors associated with histone organization: histone acetylation

A

Occurs via HATs at Lys residues

Leads to increased transcription (reversed by HDACs)

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10
Q

Epigenic factors associated with histone organization: histone phosphorylation

A

Occurs at Ser residues

May be associated with transcription activation or repression

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11
Q

Epigenic factors associated with histone organization: effect of DNA methylation

A

Transcriptional silencing

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12
Q

Difference between miRNA and IncRNA

A

miRNA leads to posttranscriptional silencing of gene expression, appear to regulate multiple protein-encoding genes

IncRNA modulates gene expression in many ways — promoting or restricting gene expression; many enhancers are sites of lncRNA synthesis

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13
Q

Production of miRNAs

A

Transcription of miRNA genes produces primary mRNA which is processed by DICER, generating mature single-stranded miRNAs of 21-30 nucleotides associated with RISC

Base pairing between miRNA and its target mRNA directs RISC to induce cleavage or repress translation

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14
Q

Ways in which lncRNAs modulate gene expression

A

Bind to regions of chromatin and restrict RNA polymerase access

Can facilitate TF binding and thus promote gene activation

May direct DNA acetylases or methylases

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15
Q

Which organelle functions in very long chain fatty acid metabolism?

A

Peroxisomes

Result in production of hydrogen peroxide

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16
Q

Which organelle functions in intracellular transport and export, ingestion of extracellular substances?

A

Endosomes

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17
Q

_______ = found on internal leaflet of PM, when it flips to the outside it signals apoptosis to phagocytes

A

Phosphatidylserine

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18
Q

What substances pass through the PM via passive membrane diffusion?

A

Small, nonpolar molecules like O2, CO2

Steroids like estradiol, vitamin D

Water, ethanol, urea

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19
Q

Caveolae-mediated endocytosis (potocytosis)

A

Noncoated plasma membrane invaginations associated with GPI-linked molecules, cAMP binding proteins, SRC-family kinases, and folate receptor

Participate in transmembrane delivery of some molecules like folate; regulation of transmembrane signaling and/or cellular adhesion via internalization of receptors and integrins

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20
Q

Method for cellular uptake of LDL and transferrin

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

Begins at clathrin coated pit; after binding their specific receptors, LDL and transferrin are endocytosed in vesicles that fuse with lysosomes where they release their cargo (cholesterol and iron). Receptors are then recycled back to PM

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21
Q

Major class of cytoskeletal proteins that form well organized bundles and networks that control cell shape and movement

A

Actin filaments

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22
Q

Major class of cytoskeletal protein that imparts tensile strength and allows cells to bear mechanical stress

A

Intermediate filaments

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23
Q

Major class of cytoskeletal protein that serves as connecting cables for molecules motor proteins that use ATP to move vesicles, organelles, or other molecules around cells

A

Microtubules

[kinesins are anterograde, dyneins are retrograde]

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24
Q

Proteins associated with occluding (tight) junctions

A

Occludin
Claudin
Zonulin
Catenin

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25
Proteins associated with anchoring junctions (desmosomes)
Cadherins (aka E-cadherins, desmogleins, desmocollins, integrins, focal adhesion complexes)
26
Lysosomal degradation can occur d/t autophagy or heterophagy. What’s the difference?
Autophagy = senescent organelles or denatured proteins are targeted for lysosome driven degradation by encircling them with double membrane derived from ER and marked by LC3 proteins. Triggered by cell stressors such as nutrient deprivation or certain IC infections. Heterophagy = lysosomes fuse with endosomes or phagosomes to facilitate degradation of their internalized contents. End products may be released into cytosol for nutrition or discharged into EC space
27
What is the warburg effect
In rapidly growing cells: Glucose and glutamine serve as source of molecules used to synthesize lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins ATP generation per glucose molecule is downregulated [hallmark of cancerous cells!]
28
Receptors associated with kinase activity
Downstream phosphorylation pathways elicited by intrinsice TK activity Examples: RTK, serine/threonine kinases, lipid kinases, nonreceptor tyrosine kinases
29
_____ receptors undergo proteolytic cleavage of receptor when ligand binds, followed by nuclear translocation of cytoplasmic piece
Notch
30
____ receptors have Wnt protein ligands and regulate IC concentrations of b-catenin (increased concentrations when ligand binds receptor and recruits ______)
Frizzled; disheveled
31
Source and function of epidermal growth factor
Source: activated macrophages, salivary glands, keratinocytes Mitogenic for keratinocytes and fibroblasts; stimulates keratinocytes migration, stimulates formation of granulation tissue
32
Source and function of TGF-a
Sources: activated macrophages, keratinocytes Stimulates proliferation of hepatocytes and many other epithelial cells
33
Sources and functions of hepatocyte growth factor (scatter factor)
Sources: Fibroblasts, stromal cells in liver, endothelial cells Enhances proliferation of hepatocytes and other epithelial cells, increases motility
34
Source and function of VEGF
Source: mesenchymal cells Stimulates proliferation of endothelial cells, increases vascular permeability
35
Source and function of platelet-derived growth factor
Source: platelets, macrophages, endothelial cells Chemotactic for neutrophils, macrophages, fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells; activates and stimulates proliferation of fibroblasts, endothelial and other cells; stimulates ECM protein synth
36
Sources and functions of FGF
Source: macrophages, mast cells, endothelial cells Chemotactic and mitogenic for fibroblasts, stimulates angiogenesis and ECM protein synthesis
37
TGF-b source and function
Source: platelets, T cells, macrophages, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts Chemotactic for leukocytes and fibroblasts; stimulates ECM protein synth, suppresses acute inflamm
38
Source and function of keratinocyte growth factor
Source: fibroblasts Stimulates keratinocyte migration, proliferation, and differentiation
39
Functions of ECM
Mechanical support Control of cell proliferation Scaffolding for tissue renewal Establishment of tissue microenvironments
40
2 basic forms of ECM
Interstitial matrix — synthesized by mesenchymal cells like fibroblasts. Constituents include fibronectin, elastin, proteoglycan, hyaluronate Basement membrane — synthesized by overlying epithelium and underlying mesenchymal cells. Major constituents are type IV collagen and laminin
41
3 major groups of ECM
Fibrous structural proteins = collagens + elastins Water-hydrated gels = proteoglycans + hyaluronan Adhesive glycoproteins = fibronectin+laminin+integrins
42
2 main checkpoints of cell cycle and what regulates them
G1-S = monitors integrity of DNA before irreversibly committing cellular resources to DNA replication (Cyclin D-CDK4, Cyclin D-CDK6, and cyclin E-CDK2) G2-M = ensures accurate DNA replication prior to division (Cyclin B-CDK1)
43
Cyclin-D-CDK proteins regulate the G1-S transition by phosphorylating the ___ protein
Rb
44
2 families of CDKI’s
INK4 inhibitors = p16, p15, p18, p19 — act on D-CDK4 and D-CDK6 P21, p27, and p57 = inhibit all CDKs
45
Senescence vs. quiescence
Senescence = no longer able to divide but still alive and metabolically active (alternative to apoptosis) Quiescence = state or period of inactivity or dormancy but can still enter cell cycle (G0)
46
2 major properties of stem cells
Self-renewal Asymmetric division
47
Major example function of long noncoding RNAs
X-inactivation [XIST — transcribed from X chromosome and inactivates the whole thing]
48
Mature miRNAs associate with a multiprotein aggregate called the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC). What are the 2 possible results when this complex binds with target mRNA?
mRNA is either degraded (perfect match) or repressed (imperfect match)
49
Main difference between siRNAs and miRNAs
siRNAs = in vitro miRNAs = in vivo
50
Proteasome = specialized type of “grinder” that selectively chews up denatured proteins and releases peptides in the process. Peptides are presented via Ag presentation in the context of ________
MHC Class I
51
What membrane constituent can serve as a cofactor for platelets when clotting blood?
Phosphatidylserine
52
_______ anchors may help keep the protein in on the EXTRACELLULAR leaflet of the membrane
GPI
53
How does a small, polar molecule like alcohol cross membranes?
Passive diffusion
54
Defects in the LDL receptor are associated with what disease?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
55
What cell-cell process or cell-matrix interaction is involved in leukocyte extravasation?
Tight junctions, transcytosis (aka paracellular transport) [note that diapedesis is an example of transcytosis]
56
Individual types of intermediate filaments have characteristic tissue-specific patterns of expression that can be used for assigning a cell of origin for poorly differentiated tumors. _____: nuclear lamina of all cells, maintain nuclear morphology, regulate normal nuclear transcription. Mutation leads to muscular dystrophy or progeria
Laminins
57
Individual types of intermediate filaments have characteristic tissue-specific patterns of expression that can be used for assigning a cell of origin for poorly differentiated tumors. _______: mesenchymal cells (fibroblasts and endothelium)
Vimentin
58
Individual types of intermediate filaments have characteristic tissue-specific patterns of expression that can be used for assigning a cell of origin for poorly differentiated tumors. _____: muscle cells; forms scaffold on which actin and myosin contract
Desmin
59
Individual types of intermediate filaments have characteristic tissue-specific patterns of expression that can be used for assigning a cell of origin for poorly differentiated tumors. _____: glial cells around neurons; astrocytes
Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
60
The minus end of a microtubule is generally associated with a ______ near the nucleus where it is paired with _____
MTOC/centrosome; centrioles
61
The ER is organized into a meshwork of tubules and flattened lamellae forming a continuous sheet around a single lumen that is topologically equivalent to the ______ environment
Extracellular
62
What organelle is highly prominent in secretory cells like goblet or plasma cells?
Golgi
63
Characteristic sign of atrophy
Autophagy
64
Hallmark of autophagy
Decreased protein synthesis
65
Mitochondria initiate protein synthesis via _______, which serves as a target for antibiotics since it leaves human translation alone
N-formylmethionine
66
Rous Sarcoma Virus (SRC) is prototype of what type of receptor which possesses no intrinsic catalytic activity?
Nonreceptor tyrosine kinase (Src-family kinases)
67
Frizzled family receptors are activated by Wnt protein ligands to regulate levels of _______ (second messenger in growth factor signaling), which is always targeted by ubiquitin but recruitment of ______ leads to inhibition of ubiquitin
beta-catenin; disheveled
68
Another name for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)
Scatter factor
69
TGF-B causes scars and fibrosis in lungs by stimulating fibrinogen and collagen as well as inhibiting _____
MMPs
70
Gene commonly overexpressed in breast cancers
ERB-B2 (HER2) [belong to EGF family and bind same receptors with intrinsic TK activity]
71
Most potent inducer for VEGF production
Hypoxia — via HIF-1
72
Increased levels of soluble version of _____ in pregnant women can lead to preeclampsia (HTN+proteinuria) by “sopping up” the free _____ required for maintaining normal endothelium
VEGFR-1 (s-FLT-1); VEGF
73
Which types of collagen are fibrillar vs. non-fibrillar?
Fibrillar = Types I, II, III, and V Non-fibrillar = Types IV, IX, and VII
74
What ECM components provide compressibility to tissues and serve as reservoirs for GFs secreted into the ECM like FGF and HGF?
Proteoglycans and hyaluronans
75
_____ cells are cells that can enter the cell cycle under the right environmental stimuli _____ cells are cells that can under no circumstances enter the cell cycle Thus, the hallmark of cancer is loss of replicative ______
Quiescent Senescent Senescence
76
Intermediate filament in nuclear lamina of all cells
Lamin A, B, and C
77
Intermediate filament in mesenchymal cells like fibroblasts and endothelium
Vimentin
78
Intermediate filament in muscle cells, forming the scaffold on which actin and myosin contract
Desmin
79
Intermediate filament in axons of neurons, imparting strength and rigidity
Neurofilaments
80
Intermediate filament in glial cells around neurons
Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
81
Intermediate filaments of which there are at least 30 different varities, subdivided into acidic and neutral/basic. Different types present in different cells can be used as cell markers
Cytokeratins