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Lasts Anatomy > Chapter 1 > Flashcards

Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The body is composed of four basic tissues:

A

Epithelial
Connective Tissue
Muscle
Nerve

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2
Q

What tissues compose the skin?

A

Epithelial and Connective Tissue

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3
Q

What cells compose the epidermis?

A

Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium

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4
Q

What are the various skin appendages?

A

Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
Nail
Hair

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5
Q

Name the embryological origin of the epidermis

A

Ectoderm

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6
Q

Name the embryological origin of the dermis

A

Mesoderm

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7
Q

What is the main tissue component of the dermis?

A

Connective Tissue

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8
Q

Name the upper most layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum

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9
Q

What is the composition of the stratum corneum?

A

Cornified layer of dead keratin cells which have lost their nuclei and are constantly being replaced by deeper layers

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10
Q

What causes variation in thick and think skin?

A

Depth of the stratum corneum

thick - sole of feet; thin - forearm

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11
Q

Where are melanocytes situated?

A

Basal layer of the epidermis

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12
Q

How do melanocytes influence skin colour

A

Generate melanin
Liberated from cell
Ingested by epidermal cells

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13
Q

How can synthesising melanocytes be distinguished from a epidermal cell that has ingested melanin?

A

DihydrOxyPhenylAlanine (DOPA) - tryosinase enzyme is converted to melanin

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14
Q

What property of melanocytes influences the skin colour of an individual

A

Activity

high - dark, low - pale

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15
Q

What are skin creases?

A

Flexure lines over joints where the skin is thinner and bound firmly to underlying structures e.g. deep fascia

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16
Q

What regions do not contain sweat glands?

A

Lips, glans penis, tympanic membranes

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17
Q

In which region are the greatest concentration of sweat glands?

A

Palms and soles

Face - forehead

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18
Q

Describe the structure of sweat glands

A

Coiled test-tube that extend below the dermis as straight ducts and corkscrew through the epidermis

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19
Q

Describe the two types of sweat glands

A

Eccrine - majority, transport H20 to the bdoy surface for thermal regulation

Apocrine - larger, equivalent of scent glands, confined to the axillae, areola and urogential regions. Controlled by sex hormones.

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20
Q

Where do the ducts of apocrine glands terminate?

A

Open at a hair follicle

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21
Q

Where are sebaceous glands found?

A

Hairy skin - short duct at side of hair follicle

Directly on skin surface - eyelids, lips, papillae of breasts and labia minora

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22
Q

Describe the hair matrix

A

region of epidermal cells at the base of a hair follicle through which cells transcend inside the tubular epidermal sheath, lose their nuclei and are converted into hard keratin rods

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23
Q

What causes different hair colour?

A

The mixture of three different pigments imparted by melanocytes

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24
Q

Why does hair colour change with age?

A

Decreased melanocyte activity

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25
Q

What causes hair to “stand on end”

A

Arrector pili muscle - smooth muscle, autonomic innervation

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26
Q

Describe the “Rule of 9’s”

A

Used to estimate affected surface area in burns

Head and Upper limb - 9% each
Lower limb, front of thorax and abdo, back of thorax and abdo - 18%

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27
Q

Why are tension lines of skin important?

A

Incisions made along creases and wrinkles heal with minimal scaring

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28
Q

What connects the skin to the underlying bones/deep fascia?

A

Areolar tissue

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29
Q

What is the fat layer of areola tissue called?

A

Panniculus adiposus

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30
Q

Describe the panniculus carnosus

A

Flat sheets of muscle in the panniculus adiposus

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31
Q

What are the attachments of the panniculus carnosus?

A

skin - muscle fibre - deep fascia/bone

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32
Q

Well-developed panniculus carnosus form which muscles?

A 
Platysma
Palmaris brevis
Unstriped muscle of the corrugator cutis ani
Dartos sheet of the scrotum
Subareolar muscle of the nipple
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33
Q

Define deep fascia

A

Membrane of fibrous tissue that encloses the body wall and limbs

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34
Q

Give an example where the deep fascia is:

i) prominent
ii) almost absent
iii) absent

A

i) Iliotibial tract of the fascia lata
ii) Rectus sheath of the external oblique aponeurosis
iii) Face and Ischioanal fossa

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35
Q

While deep fascia passes freely over bone it remains anchored to what structure?

A

Periosteum

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36
Q

Deep fascia is very sensitive - what is its nerve supply?

A

Same nerve innervation as the overlying skin

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37
Q

What is the composition of a ligament?

A

Dense connective tissue - predominantly collagen fibres

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38
Q

What are the attachments of a ligament?

A

Bone to bone

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39
Q

Describe the physical properties of ligaments

A

Non-elastic/Unstretchable

If subject to prolonged strain collagen fibres will elongate and undue mobility is possible

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40
Q

White fibrous tissue ligaments are never subjected to prolonged strain - name the two exceptions

A

Sacroiliac ligament
Intervertebral discs

subject to strain of whole body wt, except when recumbent

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41
Q

Name to ligaments composed of yellow elastic tissue

A

Ligamentum flava

Capsular ligaments of the joints of the auditory ossicles

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42
Q

What are the attachments of a tendon?

A

Muscle to bone

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43
Q

Describe the structure of a tendon

A

Similar to a collagenous ligament - may be flat/cylindrical

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44
Q

Where do tendons derive their blood supply?

A

From vessels descending the muscle body

They anastamose to the periosteum of the bony attachment

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45
Q

What is the purpose of a synovial sheath?

A

To lubricate tendons that bear weight on adjacent structures

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46
Q

Describe the structure of a synovial sheath

A

Parietal layer - attached to the surrounding structures

Visceral layer - firmly fixed to the tendon

Synovial fluid - lubricating thin film of luid

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47
Q

Define “raphe”

A

Interdigitation of the short tendonious fibres of flat muscle sheets.

Raphes can be elongated passively by separation of either attachment

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48
Q

Give an example of a raphe

A

Pterygomanidbular raphe

Buccinator and superior constrictor interdigitate to vary the position of the mandible

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49
Q

Define “cartilage”

A

Dense connective tissue in which cells and fibres are embedded in a matrix

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50
Q

Describe the 3 types of cartilage

A

Hyaline - covers articular surfaces of synovial joints; forms epiphyseal growth plates

Fibrocartilage - intervertebral discs; disc like structure i.e. labrum of the shoulder and hip/menisci of knee; articular surface of clavicle and mandible

Elastic - pinna, epiglottis

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51
Q

How is cartilage repaired?

A

Formation of fibrous tissue - avascular

Capable of a small amount of deformation - resistant to fracture.

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52
Q

Describe the appearance of fibrocartilage

A

Similar to ligaments and tendons

Contains small islands of cartilage cells with ground substance embedded between the cartilage bundles

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53
Q

Describe what happens to hyaline and fibrocartilage with ageing?

A

Calcification and Ossification

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54
Q

Describe the structure of elastic cartilage

A

Ground substance containing large number of elastic fibres

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55
Q

How does cartilage receive blood?

A

Fibrocartilage - ordinary blood supply which is sparse, therefore low metabolic rate

Elastic/Hyaline - have no capillaries, exchange occurs through diffusion of the ground substance

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56
Q

Name the 3 kinds of muscle

A

Skeletal - multinucleated

Cardiovascular - single nucleus

Smooth - single nucleus

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57
Q

What are the 2 histological classifications of muscle

A

Striated

Non-striated

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58
Q

Which muscles are striated?

A

Skeletal and cardiac muscle

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59
Q

What causes striation?

A

Arrangement of mysoin and actin fibres

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60
Q

Describe the appearance of smooth muscle

A

Narrow spindle shaped cells

Parallel in muscles of peristalsis
Whorls/Spirals for mass contraction i.e. bladder/uterus

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61
Q

How is smooth muscle innervated?

A

Autonomic nerves - contractile impulses transmitted through gap junctions

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62
Q

Describe the appearance of cardiac muscle?

A

Broad, short cell branches

Adjacent cells interdigitate at their intercalated discs to increase surface area for conduction

Arranged in whorls/spirals to support cardiac ejection

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63
Q

How is cardiac muscle innervated?

A

Autonomic nerves

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64
Q

Describe the appearance of skeletal muscle

A

Non-branching fibres bound by loose areolar tissue containing fibroblasts and macrophages

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65
Q

What is the epimysium?

A

Membranous envelope of connective tissue that encapsulates the muscle

Varying thickness and density

66
Q

Describe the 2 muscle fibres composing skeletal muscle

A

Red fibres - slow twitch, aerobic respiration, high mitochondrial content, myoglobin, succinate dehydrogenase and low myosin ATPase

White fibres - fast twitch, anaerobic, high glycogen and phosphorylase content

67
Q

True or False: the fibres of a single motor unit are all the samei.e. white or red

A

True - unless the nerve supply is altered i.e. regeneration after injury

68
Q

What is a muscle spindle?

A

Intrafusual fibre - specialised muscle fibre encased in a connective tissue capsule

Constant in position and most numerous in muscles concerned with fine movement

69
Q

What is the innervation of intrafusal fibres?

A

Gamma motor neurons of the anterior horn

70
Q

What is the innervation of extrafusal fibres?

A

Large alpha cells

71
Q

Describe the function of muscle spindles

A

Sensory receptor - informs the CNS of a muscles state of contraction

72
Q

How does individual muscle disposition influence activity?

A

Parallel - maximal range of mobility

Oblique - increased force of pull

73
Q

What are the 3 patterns of oblique muscle disposition?

A

Unipennate muscles - tendon forms along one margin e.g. flexor pollicis longus

Bipennate muscles - tendon forms centrally (usually as a fibrous septum)
e.g. rectus femoris

Multipennate muscles - series of bipennate muscles lying side-by-side
e.g. acromial fibres of deltoid, subscapularis
cylindrical muscle in which a central tendon forms
e.g. tibialis anterior

74
Q

What does a smooth mark on a bone indicate

A

Tendon or ligament attachment

Rough marks - mixture of flesh/tendon or lengthy aponeurosis

75
Q

Define “movement”

A

Co-ordinated activity of many muscles usually assisted by gravity

76
Q

Define “prime-mover”

A

Desired movement e.g. biceps flexing elbow

77
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

Opposite of desired movement

e.g. triceps relax to assist elbow flexion

78
Q

Define “fixator”

A

Stabilisers one attachment of a muscle so that the other end may move
E.g. muscles holding the scapula in place as the deltoid moves the humerus

79
Q

Define “synergist”

A

Prevent unwanted movement

E.g. stabilisation of flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris as finger flexion occurs

80
Q

What is the innervation of skeletal muscle?

A

Somatic nerves via one or more branches, which also contain afferent and autonomic fibres

81
Q

What are the efferent fibres in spinal nerves?

A

Axons of the large alpha anterior horn of the spinal cord.

Pass to extrafusal fibres and small gamma cells which supply the spindle (intrafusal fibre)

82
Q

How are the skeletal muscles of cranial nerves supplied?

A

Motor nuclei of cranial nerve

83
Q

What is a limb plexus?

A

Branch of nerves supplying a limb muscle.

Flexor muscles - anterior division of nerve plexus
Extensor muscles - posterior division of nerve plexus

84
Q

A nerve to the body wall or in a limb contains approx what % of afferent fibres?

A

40% - these innervate muscles spindles and mediate proprioceptive impulses - vital for co-ordinated muscle contraction

85
Q

Which nerves supply the ocular and facial muscles?

A

Cranial Nerves III, IV, VI and VII - contain no afferent fibres

86
Q

How are proprioceptive impulse conveyed form the ocular and facial muscles?

A

Via local branches of the trigeminal nerve

87
Q

Which crainal nerves contain no afferent fibres?

A

Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, VIII, XI, XII

Proprioceptive impulses are conveyed for/via
Hypoglossal nerve via C2/C3 SCM
Accessory nerve via C3/C4 trapezius

88
Q

Describe the composition of bone

A

Dense connective tissue with cells and fibres embedded in a calcified ground substance, termed bone matrix

89
Q

What are Harvesian canals?

A

Large space within bone containing blood capillaries which communicate with cannaliculi

90
Q

What are lamallae?

A

Concentric layers of matrix laid down in bone development

91
Q

What are Volkmanns canals?

A

Anastamosing vessels between Haversian canals

92
Q

Describe the 2 macroscopic forms of bone

A

Compact bone - hard and dense

Cancellous bone - spongy trabeculae arranged to resist stress and strain

93
Q

How does bone remodelling occur?

A

Influenced by stress
Resorption occurs by phagocytic osteoclasts
Deposition of new bone occurs by osteoblasts

94
Q

What is the name of the deeper layer of the periosteum and what does it do?

A

Osteogenic layer - contains cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

95
Q

What are Sharpey’s fibres?

A

Attach the periosteum to underlying bone - particularly strong at sites of tendon/ligament attachment

96
Q

Does periosteum cover the articularting surface of bones in synovial joints?

A

No

97
Q

How many layers comprise the endosteum?

A

1

98
Q

What is fracture callus?

A

Mass of inflammatory tissue and bone forming cells present at a fracture site

99
Q

What is indicated by excessive cartilage formation?

A

Mobilised fracture site

100
Q

Define “osteochondrogenic”

A

Well vascualrised areas are osteogenic and produce new bone

In areas that become avascular chondrogenic cells form hyaline cartilage instead

101
Q

What are the 2 main processes of bone development?

A

Intramembranous ossification - vault of the skull, face and clavicle

Enbdochondrial ossification - long bones of the skeleton

102
Q

What is sub-periosteal ossification?

A

Development of bone thickness - occurs by intramembranous ossification

103
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

Destruction of pre-exisitng hyaline cartilage

Replaced with bone

104
Q

What is the primary center of ossification in long bones?

A

Site where bone firsts form

E.g. diaphysis in long bones

105
Q

Describe secondary cartilage

A

Provision of cartilage surface on membrane bones

i.e. head of the mandible, ends of the clavicle

106
Q

How does the appearance of secondary cartilage vary from hyaline cartilage?

A

Secondary cartilage - larger cells, closely packed, more fibrous matrix

107
Q

What is a sesamoid bone?

A

Seed like bone usually associated with tendons that glide over adjacent bone
i.e. patella

108
Q

Give 3 examples of sesamoid bones

A

Patella
Flexor pollics brevis sesamoid bone
Peroneus longus tendon - prevents friction of cuboid bone

109
Q

Give the 3 possible unions between bones

A

Fibrous joint
Cartilaginous joint
Synovial joint

110
Q

Describe a fibrous joint

A

Between bones or cartilage, formed by fibrous tissue
Negligible movement
e.g. bones of the vault of the skull, lower end of the tibia and fibula

111
Q

Describea primary cartilaginous joint

A

Union of bone and hyaline cartilage
Immobile and very strong
e.g. Epiphyses, ribs and costal cartilage

112
Q

Describe a secondary cartilaginous joint (symphysis)

A

Union between bones with a thin lamina of hyaline cartilage united by fibrocartilage
Limited movement
Cavity in fibrocartilage - never lined with synovium
e.g. pubic symphysis, sternomanubrial joint, intervertebral disc (gel filled)

113
Q

Detail the 6 features that characterise synovial joints

A

Ends covered in hyaline cartilage
Surrounded by a capsule which encloses a…
Joint cavity = capsular ligament
Ligaments - internally/externally reinforce the joint capsule
Synovial membrane - lines the internal joint capsule
Movement

114
Q

Define “closed-pack” in terms of a joint

A

Surface of two bones in maximal contact with reinforcing ligaments under greatest tension

115
Q

Where are intra-articular fibrocartilages found?

A

Occur in joints where 2 separate movements take place

Sternoclavicular joint - elevation and depressino
Knee - rotation

116
Q

What is the circulus vasculosus (Fig 1.9)

A

Vascular plexus between the capsule and synovial membrane.
Attached to the epiphyseal line
Branches supply the synovial membrane and joint mesenchyme

117
Q

Anatomically - why was the metaphysis a common site of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Blood vessels cannot communicate across the cartilaginous epiphysis
Arteries arising from the shaft form end arteries at the metaphysis - prone to embolism/infarction

Once the epiphyseal plate ossifies, vascular communication is established

118
Q

Why is joint pain poorly localised?

A

Joint capsules and ligaments contain some myelinated nerve fibres

Synovial membranes have few

Articular cartilage has no afferent fibres

119
Q

List 3 components of joint stability

A

Bony contour
Ligaments
Muscle

120
Q

What happens to white fibrous tissue (collagen) and yellow elastic tissue under continuous stretch?

A

White fibrous tissue - elongates

Yellow elastic tissue - shortens after elongation to maintain stability

121
Q

How are the arches of the foot stabilised?

A

Muscles

Ligaments contribute little stability as they are continuously stretched

122
Q

Define “mucous membrane”

A

Lining of an internal body that communicates with exterior

123
Q

What layers compose a mucous membrane?

A

Epithelium
Lamina propria - underlying connective tissue
Muscularis mucosae - smooth muscle

124
Q

Define “serous membrane”

A

Lining of a closed body cavity e.g. pericardial, pleural, peritoneal

Layer of connective tissue and single flattened mesothelial cells

125
Q

What are the two layers of a serous membrane?

A

Parietal layer - loosely attached to areolar tissue

Visceral layer - adheres tightly to viscera

126
Q

What is the innervation of the parietal layer of a serous membrane?

A

Somatopleure - supplied segmentally by spinal nerves

127
Q

What is the innervation of the visceral layer of a serous membrane?

A

Spalnchopleuere - no sensory supply

128
Q

Why are there more veins then arteries?

A

Hydrodynamics - veins are larger but operate under less pressure

129
Q

What is the purpose of dead space around a vein?

A

Accommodates dilatation secondary to increased blood flow

130
Q

Name the 3 layers of blood vessel and describe how they vary in different vessels

A

Tunica intima - one layer in capillaries; contains the internal elastic lamina in arteries

Tunica media

Tunica adventitia

131
Q

What layer is missing from the wall of the inferior vena cava?

A

Tunica media

132
Q

Which veins do not contain true valves?

A

Superior and Inferior vena cava

Veins of the head and neck, vertebral, cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic and pelvic veins

133
Q

Describe the 2 types of arterial anastamoses

A

Actual - arteries meet end to end; cut vessel will spurt from both ends
E.g. labial branches of the facial arteries, intercostal arteries, uterine and ovarine, greater/lesser curvature of stomach, arterial archades of the mesentry, marginal artery of the colon

Potential - anastamosis is by terminal arterioles - given sufficient time arteries will dilate to take blood.
Sudden occlusion may yield inadequate nourishment
E.g. coronary arteries, limb arteries anastamose in the region of the joint, cortical arteries of the cerebral hemisphere

134
Q

What lymphatic vessels typically accompany veins and arteries?

A

Superficial lymphatics - veins

Deep lymphatics - arteries

135
Q

Describe the 2 types of immune response

A

Humoral antibody response - production of antibodies (protein molecules) which circulate in the blood, attach to foreign proteins forming an antigen-antibody complex, removed by phagocytosis

Cell mediated immune response - production of specific cells that circulate in the blood and target antigens for destruction/phagocytosis

136
Q

Detail the 2 types of lymphocytes

A

T cells - cell mediated immunity

B cells - humoral antibody production, transform into plasma cells which give rise to immunoglobulins

137
Q

Where do T cells reside?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes and lymphoid follicles

138
Q

What are the sites of origin and development of immune cells?

A

Stem Cells

T cells - thymus
B cells - bone marrow

139
Q

Name the lymphoid glands

A

Thymus
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Tonsils

140
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Collection of lymphoid follicles in the ileum

141
Q

What is GALT?

A

Gut associated lymphoid tissue - largest mass of lymphoid tissue in the body

142
Q

What are M cells?

A

Overlying mucosal lymphoid follicles at enterocytes
Absorb antigenic material - expose it to intrapeithelial and follicular lymphocytes/macrophages to stimulate an immune response

143
Q

Describe the structure of the thymus

A

Dense band of lymphoid tissue at the cortex of the lobules.

Inner pale medulla containing the corpuscle of Hassall - remnants of epithelium of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch

144
Q

Within a lymph node where are B and T cells found?

A

B lymphocytes - follicles and medulla

T lymphocytes - paracortical areas (thymus dependent zone) and in the cortex between follicles

145
Q

Which two lymph organs have no afferent vessels?

A

Spleen and Thymus

146
Q

What distinguishes lymph nodes from tonsils?

A

Tonsillar crypts - stratified squamous epithelium

147
Q

What is the reticuloendothelial sytem?

A

Monocyte/macrocyte system which facilitates phagocytosis

148
Q

Detail the 2 divisions of the nervous system

A

Central Nervous System - Brain and Spinal Cord

Peripheral Nervous System - Cranial Nerves, Spinal Nerves and associated ganglia

149
Q

Describe the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system

A

Somatic - innervation of skeletal muscle and transmission of sensory information

Autonomic - control of cardiac and smooth muscle, glands

150
Q

Define a “neuron” and its components

A

Structural and functional unit of the nervous system

Nucleus (cell body) with multiple nerve fibres
Single cytoplasmic process - axon, conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body
Multiple cytoplasmic processes - dendrites, reception of stimuli

151
Q

Define “diffuse neuroendocrine system”

A

Multiple synapses with receptors for neurotransmitters and endocrine function.

Noradrenaline, acetylcholine, neuroendocrine cells/neuromediators/amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells

152
Q

Cell bodies with similiar functions show tendency to group themselves together and form ____ within the CNS and ____ outside it.

Similarly, processes from such aggreations of cell bodies tend to run in bundles forming ____ within the CNS and ___ outside the brain and spinal cord

A

Nucei Ganglia

Tracts Nerves

153
Q

Name the different types of neuroglial cells

A

Astrocytes - derived from ectoderm

Oligodendrocytes - derived from ectoderm

Microglial cell - phagocytic cell corresponding to a macrophage of connective tissue, derived from mesoderm

Satellite cells (ganglia) - ectoderm

Schwann cells (peripheral nerves)- ectoderm

154
Q

Name the 2 myelin forming cells

A

Oligodendrocytes - CNS

Schwann cells - PNS

155
Q

What are the Nodes of Ranvier

A

Site of adjacent myelinating cells

156
Q

Describe the varying sizes of peripheral nerve fibres and associated function

A

Group A - up to 20um in diameter:
alpha - 12-20um. Motor and proprioception (Ia and Ib)
beta - 5-12um. Touch, pressure and proprioception (II)
gamma - 5-12um. Fusimotor to muscle spindles (II)
delta - 1-15um. Touch, pain and temperature (III)

Group B - up to 3um diameter. Myelinated
- preganglionic autonomic

Group C - up to 2um diameter. Unmyelinated.
- post ganglionic autonomic, and touch and pain (IV)

157
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there in the human body?

A

31.

8 - cervical
12 - thoracic
5 - lumbar
5 - sacral
1 - coccygeal
158
Q

Cervical/Sacral/Lumbar/Brachial nerve plexii form from which rami

A

Anterior rami

159
Q

What are nervi nervorum?

A

Nerves lining the connective tissue covering a larger nerve.

160
Q

What are the properties of:

  • mixed nerves
  • cutaneous nerves
A

mixed nerve - motor, sensory, proprioception

cutaneous nerves - touch/pain/temperature

161
Q

Describe the innervation of the body wall

A

Innervation occurs segmentally by the spinal nerves

Posterior rami - extensor muscles of vertebral column, skull and overlying skin

Anterior rami - all other muscles of the trunk and limbs, overlying skin.

Lasts Anatomy (2 decks)

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