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Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What glands are associated with rosacea?

A

Sebaceous glands

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2
Q

Most common corneal dystrophy?

A

EBMD

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3
Q

What lesion is the most common precursor for a conjunctival melanoma?

A

Primary acquired melanosis (PAM)

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4
Q

How long do you wait in Jones I test?

A

5 minutes…use NaFl. Jones II use saline

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5
Q

Basal cell carcinoma affects what layer?

A

Basal lamina

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6
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma affects what layer?

A

Spinosum layer (squamous cell carcinoma = actici keratosis)

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7
Q

Myokymia

A

Unilateral eyelid twitching. Lack of sleep, stress, caffeine

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8
Q

What is distichiasis?

What is madarosis?

A
  1. Two rows of eyelashes

2. Loss of eyelashes

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9
Q

What is difference bw external and internal hordeolum?

A

External hordeolum affects gland of Zeiss and Moll. Internal affects meibomian glands

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10
Q

Function of gland of Zeis?

Function of gland of Moll?

A
  1. Lubrication of eyelashes

2. Sweat glands

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11
Q

Paranoid ocular glandular syndrome is caused from?

A

Cat scratch fever

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12
Q

What systemic disease is SLK associated with?

A

Thyroid

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13
Q

Classic sign of chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis?

A

Follicles lower conjunctiva (giant follicles)

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14
Q

Vernal keratoconjunctivits affect mostly what age group?

A

Male children with atopic conditions (trantas dots)

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15
Q

Trantas dots are seen in what type of conjunctivitis?

A

VKC

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16
Q

Side effect of tobramycin and gentamycin (aminoglycosides)

A

SPK

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17
Q

1 cause of Argyl Robertson Pupil

A

Syphilis

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18
Q

What preservative causes SPK?

A

BAK

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19
Q

What ophthalmic antibiotics cause SPK?

A

Aminoglycasides (tobramycin and gentamycin)

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20
Q

What is the most common corneal epithelial dystrophy?

A

EBMD

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21
Q

What is a prodrome?

A

A warning sign (ie: Before herpes outbreak feel tingling)

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22
Q

Recurrent Herpes simplex virus is from which ganglion?

A

Trigeminal CNV

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23
Q

What condition is associated with disciform keratitis?

A

Herpes (stroma)

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24
Q

Two corneal signs that indicate fungal?

A
  1. Fungal = feathery (infiltrate with feathery edges)

2. Satellite infiltrates

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25
Q

Do not instill topical steroids on CL’s? T or F?

A

True. Instill before inserting lenses and then upon removal

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26
Q

What is a good drug and dose to give for a patient with meibomian gland dysfunction?

A

Doxycycline 50mg po bid

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27
Q

If you suspect Horner’s (ptosis, miosis) diagnose using ….

A

10% cocaine or 1% apraclondine or 1% phenylephrine

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28
Q

What percent solution does Homatropine come in?

A

5%

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29
Q

What is the prophylactic oral acyclovir dosage?

A

acyclovir 400mg po bid

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30
Q

Which structures are innervated by cranial nerve 3?

Oculomotor nerve

A

(4 EOM’s) IR, IO, SR, MR, pupillary sphinter muscle which causes constriction, and levator.

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31
Q

Occipital lobe

A

Sight

32
Q

Brainstem

A

Breathing, heart rate, temp

33
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Hearing, learning, feelings

34
Q

Frontal

A

Thinking, behavior, memory and movement

35
Q

Parietal

A

Language and touch

36
Q

Cerebellum

A

Balance and coordinataion

37
Q

Post chiasmal lesions are bilateral or unilateral?

A

Always bilateral

38
Q

POAG always has cupping. T or F?

A

True

39
Q

Pseudoexfoliation material is the most commonly identifiable cause of OAG and is usually unilateral. T or F?

A

True

40
Q

You only get VF defects in both eyes if the lesion is post chiasmal. T or F?

A

True

41
Q

Temporal notching on ON would cause a visual defect where?

A

Central due to the pappilomacular bundle

42
Q

A post chiasmal defect will be homonymous. T or F

A

True

43
Q

RBC’s

A

Blood-oxygen transport to tissue

44
Q

WBC’s

A

Body’s immune response to foreign invaders or it targets its own tissue in autoimmune response.

45
Q

Platlets

A

Clotting

46
Q

When would you order ESR?

A

If you suspect Giant cell arteritis

47
Q

CMP (comprehensive metabolic panel)

A

Used when suspect collagen vascular disorders

48
Q

ELISA/Western Blot test

A

HIV

49
Q

ESR and CRP (C-reactive protein) tests

A

Used when suspect GCA

50
Q

Giant cell arteritis

A

Over 65, jaw pain, HA, fever, swollen nerve

51
Q

How do you find normal ESR?

A

Male: age/2 Female: age + 10/2

52
Q

Chest x-ray

A

TB, sarcoid or Horner’s syndrome

53
Q

MRI

A

Evaluate soft tissues. Order when optic neuritis if suspect MS

54
Q

Homonymous visual field defects indicate pathology posterior to the_________.

A

Optic chiasm

55
Q

CT scan

A

History of penetrating ocular trauma, intraocular foreign body

56
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

A retinitis with fluffy white retinal lesions located next to an inactive scar with vitritis

57
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

A choroiditis with a triad of peripapillary atrophy, chorioretinal lesions in periphery, and maculopathy

58
Q

What is peripapillary atrophy?

A

Atrophy (or thinning in layers of retina around ONH)

59
Q

What percent of patient’s with lattice degeneration will develop a RD?

A

1%

60
Q

The most common symptom of RP is_____.

A

Night blindness

61
Q

RP signs

A

bone-spicule, arteriolar attenuation, waxy optic disc, PSC, hyaline bodies and keratoconnus

62
Q

What is more likely to develop NV glaucoma…CRAO or CRVO?

A

CRVO (CRVO release more VEG-F to clog

63
Q

CRAO are most commonly due to..

A

embolism

64
Q

What bone does the optic foramen pass through

A

Lesser wing of sphenoid

65
Q

What does corneal endothelium do?

A

Uses Na/K pump to move fluid from inside cornea back to aqueous humor. Requires tons of ATP. (In Fuch’s this doesn’t happen resulting in stromal edema)

66
Q

Is Muller’s muscle innervated by SNS or PNS?

A

SNS, it’s a smooth muscle

67
Q

The left trochlear nucleus controls what superior oblique muscle?

A

Right. (The trochlear nerve crosses)

68
Q

Alphagan vs Alphagan P

A

(Brimonidine) Alphagan is .2% or .15% with preservative BAK. Alphagan P is .15% or .1% with Preservative Purite.
Both are alpha adrenergic receptor agonists that decrease IOP by decreasing aqueous humor production and increasing outflow of aqueous

69
Q

Haab’s striae

A

Breaks in descemet’s membrane in congenital glaucoma (from the stretching of the membrane)

70
Q

Kruckenberg spindle

A

Pigment deposits on corneal endothelium (from PDS)

71
Q

Sampaolessi line

A

Pigment in TM and Schwalbe’s line (from PDS)

72
Q

Where does transillumination of iris form in a patient with pigment dispersion syndrome?

A

Peripheral iris

73
Q

What CN’s go through Midbrain, Pons and Medulla?

rule of 4’s

A

Midbrain: 3,4
Pons: 5,6,7,8
Medulla: 9,10,11,12

74
Q

EOM’s and CN’s

A 
SO 4
LR 6
IO 3
MR 3
SR 3
IR 3
75
Q

Which nerves are parasympathetic?

A

3 (accommodation and miosis) and 7 (lacrimation)

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