Chapter 1 Flashcards
What glands are associated with rosacea?
Sebaceous glands
Most common corneal dystrophy?
EBMD
What lesion is the most common precursor for a conjunctival melanoma?
Primary acquired melanosis (PAM)
How long do you wait in Jones I test?
5 minutes…use NaFl. Jones II use saline
Basal cell carcinoma affects what layer?
Basal lamina
Squamous cell carcinoma affects what layer?
Spinosum layer (squamous cell carcinoma = actici keratosis)
Myokymia
Unilateral eyelid twitching. Lack of sleep, stress, caffeine
What is distichiasis?
What is madarosis?
- Two rows of eyelashes
2. Loss of eyelashes
What is difference bw external and internal hordeolum?
External hordeolum affects gland of Zeiss and Moll. Internal affects meibomian glands
Function of gland of Zeis?
Function of gland of Moll?
- Lubrication of eyelashes
2. Sweat glands
Paranoid ocular glandular syndrome is caused from?
Cat scratch fever
What systemic disease is SLK associated with?
Thyroid
Classic sign of chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis?
Follicles lower conjunctiva (giant follicles)
Vernal keratoconjunctivits affect mostly what age group?
Male children with atopic conditions (trantas dots)
Trantas dots are seen in what type of conjunctivitis?
VKC
Side effect of tobramycin and gentamycin (aminoglycosides)
SPK
1 cause of Argyl Robertson Pupil
Syphilis
What preservative causes SPK?
BAK
What ophthalmic antibiotics cause SPK?
Aminoglycasides (tobramycin and gentamycin)
What is the most common corneal epithelial dystrophy?
EBMD
What is a prodrome?
A warning sign (ie: Before herpes outbreak feel tingling)
Recurrent Herpes simplex virus is from which ganglion?
Trigeminal CNV
What condition is associated with disciform keratitis?
Herpes (stroma)
Two corneal signs that indicate fungal?
- Fungal = feathery (infiltrate with feathery edges)
2. Satellite infiltrates
Do not instill topical steroids on CL’s? T or F?
True. Instill before inserting lenses and then upon removal
What is a good drug and dose to give for a patient with meibomian gland dysfunction?
Doxycycline 50mg po bid
If you suspect Horner’s (ptosis, miosis) diagnose using ….
10% cocaine or 1% apraclondine or 1% phenylephrine
What percent solution does Homatropine come in?
5%
What is the prophylactic oral acyclovir dosage?
acyclovir 400mg po bid
Which structures are innervated by cranial nerve 3?
Oculomotor nerve
(4 EOM’s) IR, IO, SR, MR, pupillary sphinter muscle which causes constriction, and levator.
Occipital lobe
Sight
Brainstem
Breathing, heart rate, temp
Temporal lobe
Hearing, learning, feelings
Frontal
Thinking, behavior, memory and movement
Parietal
Language and touch
Cerebellum
Balance and coordinataion
Post chiasmal lesions are bilateral or unilateral?
Always bilateral
POAG always has cupping. T or F?
True
Pseudoexfoliation material is the most commonly identifiable cause of OAG and is usually unilateral. T or F?
True
You only get VF defects in both eyes if the lesion is post chiasmal. T or F?
True
Temporal notching on ON would cause a visual defect where?
Central due to the pappilomacular bundle
A post chiasmal defect will be homonymous. T or F
True
RBC’s
Blood-oxygen transport to tissue
WBC’s
Body’s immune response to foreign invaders or it targets its own tissue in autoimmune response.
Platlets
Clotting
When would you order ESR?
If you suspect Giant cell arteritis
CMP (comprehensive metabolic panel)
Used when suspect collagen vascular disorders
ELISA/Western Blot test
HIV
ESR and CRP (C-reactive protein) tests
Used when suspect GCA
Giant cell arteritis
Over 65, jaw pain, HA, fever, swollen nerve
How do you find normal ESR?
Male: age/2 Female: age + 10/2
Chest x-ray
TB, sarcoid or Horner’s syndrome
MRI
Evaluate soft tissues. Order when optic neuritis if suspect MS
Homonymous visual field defects indicate pathology posterior to the_________.
Optic chiasm
CT scan
History of penetrating ocular trauma, intraocular foreign body
Toxoplasmosis
A retinitis with fluffy white retinal lesions located next to an inactive scar with vitritis
Histoplasmosis
A choroiditis with a triad of peripapillary atrophy, chorioretinal lesions in periphery, and maculopathy
What is peripapillary atrophy?
Atrophy (or thinning in layers of retina around ONH)
What percent of patient’s with lattice degeneration will develop a RD?
1%
The most common symptom of RP is_____.
Night blindness
RP signs
bone-spicule, arteriolar attenuation, waxy optic disc, PSC, hyaline bodies and keratoconnus
What is more likely to develop NV glaucoma…CRAO or CRVO?
CRVO (CRVO release more VEG-F to clog
CRAO are most commonly due to..
embolism
What bone does the optic foramen pass through
Lesser wing of sphenoid
What does corneal endothelium do?
Uses Na/K pump to move fluid from inside cornea back to aqueous humor. Requires tons of ATP. (In Fuch’s this doesn’t happen resulting in stromal edema)
Is Muller’s muscle innervated by SNS or PNS?
SNS, it’s a smooth muscle
The left trochlear nucleus controls what superior oblique muscle?
Right. (The trochlear nerve crosses)
Alphagan vs Alphagan P
(Brimonidine) Alphagan is .2% or .15% with preservative BAK. Alphagan P is .15% or .1% with Preservative Purite.
Both are alpha adrenergic receptor agonists that decrease IOP by decreasing aqueous humor production and increasing outflow of aqueous
Haab’s striae
Breaks in descemet’s membrane in congenital glaucoma (from the stretching of the membrane)
Kruckenberg spindle
Pigment deposits on corneal endothelium (from PDS)
Sampaolessi line
Pigment in TM and Schwalbe’s line (from PDS)
Where does transillumination of iris form in a patient with pigment dispersion syndrome?
Peripheral iris
What CN’s go through Midbrain, Pons and Medulla?
rule of 4’s
Midbrain: 3,4
Pons: 5,6,7,8
Medulla: 9,10,11,12
EOM’s and CN’s
SO 4 LR 6 IO 3 MR 3 SR 3 IR 3
Which nerves are parasympathetic?
3 (accommodation and miosis) and 7 (lacrimation)
