Chapter 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

broad science of study which is divided
into two major subdivision:
Microscopic, Macroscopic (Gross)
Anatomy

A

Anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

further subdivided into Cytology,
Histology and Developmental Anatomy.
The latter can also be under gross
anatomy

A

MICROSCOPIC
ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

further subdivided into Surface,
Regional and Systemic
Anatomy

A

GROSS ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

concerns the study of structure and
function of cells.

A

CYTOLOGY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

studies the forms and structures of
cells, tissues and organs of the body
with the aid of a microscope.

A

HISTOLOGY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

studies the morphogenesis of the
single cell, after the union of two cells
(male and female sex cell) and occur
throughout life

A

DEVELOPMENTAL
ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

study of the structures big enough to
be seen by unaided eye.

A

GROSS ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

deals with the similarity and
dissimilarity of structures of various
species of animal

A

COMPARATIVE
ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

focuses on the structures of the organ
systems, example digestive,
urinary, nervous system

A

SYSTEMIC ANATOMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

branch of anatomy dealing the
different regions of the body

A

Regional Anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

individual’s entire lifespan (starting as a zygote then the
following stages:
embryo, fetus, postpartum life as an individual and ends at death)

A

ONTOGENY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

defined as the time from fertilization to the
earliest

A

EMBRYONIC PERIOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(primordial) stages of organ development (about 30 days of what animals?

A

dog, cat, sheep, and pig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(primordial) stages of organ development (almost 60 days of what animals?

A

horse, cattle, and human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the time between the embryonic period and
parturition

A

FETAL PERIOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the time between the embryonic period and
parturitio

A

FETAL PERIOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Embryonic stage

A

Fertilization
Cleavage
Gastrulation
Organogenesis
Postembryonic stage
Adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

phases of ontogenic development

A

Gametogenesis
Fertilization
Cleavage
Gastrulation
Organogenesis
Growth and Histogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

theory of generation, the development of the embryo is from the
existence of a preformed embryo which is contained in the sperm (spermism) or
in the egg (ovism)

A

preformism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the development of an organism
originates from the fertilized egg to its mature form

A

epigenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the
theory states that origin and evolution of a species is a continuing process that is
measured in several years. Example, the evolution of man from monkey

A

phylogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Father of Embryology
‘most distinguished and
influential of the early nineteenth
century embryologists’
Proposed that all vertebrate embryos
pass a stage
wherein they are anatomically
similar seen in 18 dy dog,
24 dy cow and 48-60 hr chick
embryos

A

KARL ERNST VON BAER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most influential of the late
nineteenth century embryologists
Often called the
‘Father of Experimental
Embryology

A

WILHELM ROUX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

so described the concepts of oviparity
(egg laying),
ovoviviparity (eggs hatched inside
the body, ex. some shark,
snake (anacondas) and viviparity
(organism developed inside
the body);
noted also the two major patterns of cell
division in early development: meroblastic
and holoblastic

A

aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

De Formato Foetu described and
illustrated gross anatomy of
embryos and their membranes

A

HIERONYMUS FABRICIUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

published the first microscopic
account of chick development,
identifying the neural groove,
somites and blood flow to the yolk
sac.

A

MARCELLO MALPIGHI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

first to observe the blastoderm of the
chick embryo and to indicate that
blood islands form before the heart
does.

A

WILLIAM HARVEY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Made the first description of the
germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm
and endoderm) in the chick; Organs
were not formed from a single germ
lay

A

CHRISTIAN PANDER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

First to describe the pharyngeal
arches
Studied the comparative embryology in
frogs,
salamanders, fish, birds and
mammals

A

MARTIN HEINRICH RATHKE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Detailed the observation on the initial
cleavage stages in man
Published the first textbook on embryology
in man and higher animals

A

RUDOLPH ALBERT VON
KOLLIKER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Conducted the first nuclear transfer
experiment
Awarded the Nobel Prize for Physiology of
Medicine
for his discovery of embryonic induction

A

HANS SPEMANN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tested the
totipotency of
the nucleus
Produced the first
blastocyst from
nuclear
Transfer

A

ROBERT BRIGGS
THOMAS KING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the ability to
differentiate into all
cell types

A

Totipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Their work resulted to the birth
of the transgenic sheep, Dolly

A

KEITH CAMPBELL
IAN WILMUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

sheet of cells which gives rise to all tissues and
organs of the body

A

primary germ layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Outermost or upper layer of cells
• Gives rise to the epidermis, nervous tissue and some
skeletal and connective tissue of the head.

A

ECTODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

• The middle layer of cells
• Forms most of the muscles and skeletal tissues,
urogenital system and the heart and blood vessels.

A

MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

• Deepest or innermost layer of cells that lines the
digestive, respiratory tract and
those organs associated to digestion

A

ENDODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

• single layer or several layers of cells that
rest on a basal lamina;
• cells are closely joined together at their
lateral surfaces.

A

EPITHELIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Precursor of all connective and muscle tissues and is
component of all organs
except the CNS
a group of loosely and irregularly
arranged cells separated by a
large amount of extracellular
matrix.

A

MESENCHYME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a tissue which
connects and
supports other
tissues of the
body

A

CONNECTIVE TISSUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hollow tube located in the
dorsal midline beneath the
ectoderm.

A

Nueral tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

another hollow tube that run the length of
the embryo near the ventral midline and
gives rise to the digestive tract. It is
derived from the folding of the endoderm

A

GUT TUBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

rostral end of the gut tube =

A

future
pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the caudal end =

A

future anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

• Longitudinal rod
immediately ventral to the
neural tube
• Extends from the level of
the midbrain (mesencephalon) to the tail.
• Indicates the future
location of the vertebral
column.

A

notochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

• SEGMENTED MESODERM LOCATED BENEATH THE
NEURAL TUBE AND ON EITHER SIDE OF THE
NOTOCHORD.
• EACH SEGMENT IS CALLED SOMITE WHICH GIVES
RISE TO THE AXIAL SKELETON AND VOLUNTARY
MUSCLES.

A

PARAXIAL
MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

• MESODERM LOCATED LATERAL TO THE PARAXIAL
MESODERM WHICH WILL GIVE RISE TO THE
urogenital structures.

A

INTERMEDIATE
MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

• MESODERM THAT EXTENDS AROUND THE GUT AND
BENEATH THE SURFACE ECTODERM TO THE
ventral midline.
• Splits to divide into outer parietal and inner splanchnic
layer to form a cavity called
coelom

A

LATERAL
MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

branch of embryology
that deals with the causes and results
of abnormal development or congenital
malformation.

A

Teratology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

abnormality that
arises during prenatal development due
to hereditary or environmental factors.

A

Congenital malformation or
congenital defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

congenital defect caused
by disturbance of development of an
organ or portion of an organ.

A

Anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

congenital defect
caused by disturbance of development
of several organs and causes great
distortion of the individual

A

Monstrosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The process of development and
maturation of sex cells called
gametes

A

gametogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The
lineage of cells from which gametes arise is
called ___?

A

germ line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the cells which produce
the gametes are called ___?

A

primordial germ cells (PGCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The cells which are produced
by the non- germ line cells are called ____?

A

somatic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In mammals, primordial germ cells arise
from

A

yolk sac endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

in mammals The cells migrate to??

A

around the gut to the mesentery into the
gonad

60
Q

While in birds and reptiles, the cells

A

they
travel through the blood
stream and into the gonads.

61
Q

is a process where a single cell divides.

A

Meiosis

62
Q

There are two successive meiosis

A

Meiosis 1 and Meiosis 2

63
Q

homologous chromosomes separate to produce
diploid daughter cells

A

Meiosis1

64
Q

the
sister chromatids that separate results to haploid
daughter cells

A

Meiosis 2

65
Q

more than 2 sets of
chromosomes?

A

polyploidy-

66
Q

In ___, meiosis starts from
the onset of puberty throughout the entire
reproductive life

A

males

67
Q

in ___, starts before
birth and completion is upon fertilization.

A

females

68
Q

is a series of events repeatedly
occurring during growth, DNA
synthesis, and cell division. In p

A

Cell Cycle

69
Q

In ___,
the process is quite simple, it’s just like the
cell grows, its DNA replicates, and the cell
divides (asexual reproduction).

A

prokaryotes

70
Q

is a process wherein a cell divides into two identical daughter cells (cell
division) with same diploid number of chromosomes.

A

Mitosis

71
Q

During this phase, chromatin condenses into
chromosomes and become, nuclear membrane
(envelope enclosing the nucleus) breaks down.
Centrosomes move towards opposite poles. It is
the first and longest phase of mitosis.

A

Prophase

72
Q

At this phase, chromatids align at the
equatorial plane, or center of the cell.
The spindle fibers ensure that sister chromatids separate
and go to different daughter cells when the cell divides.
Some spindles do not attach with the centromeres of
chromosomes, rather, they attach with each other and
grow longer making the whole cell elongate.

A

Metaphase

73
Q

Sister chromatids separate, move towards
opposite pole and the centromere divide. The pulling
apart of the sister chromatids is brought about by the
shortening of the spindle fibers.

A

Anaphase

74
Q

Chromosomes reach the opposite poles
and begin to decondense (unravel), relaxing once again
into a stretched-out chromatin configuration. Nuclear
envelopes form around the chromosomes, and
nucleosomes appear within the nuclear area.

A

Telophase

75
Q

is the development and maturation of egg
cell/ovum. This occur in the
female reproductive organ, the ovary

A

Oogenesis

76
Q

The development of the follicle is called ____
which occur during the estrus cycle.

A

folliculogenesis

77
Q

A follicle contain the oocyte surrounded by what cells?

A

follicular cells.

78
Q

a follicle containing the primary oocyte
enclosed by a single layer of flat, follicular epithelial cells

A

Primordial follicle

79
Q

a little larger than the primordial follicle, contains
the primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal follicular
cells

A

Primary follicle

80
Q

-when two or more layers of cuboidal follicular
cells surround the oocyte and with a small or no antrum.

A

Secondary follicle

81
Q

a follicle with already a characteristic antrum

A

Tertiary follicle

82
Q

a large, mature follicle containing
the
secondary oocyte that bulges from the surface of the ovary. A largea
fluid filled cavity as the identifying characteristic and the follicle is
about
to burst to release the ovum

A

Graafian / vesicular / follicle

83
Q

cell membrane intimately enclosing the
oocyte

A

Vitelline membrane

84
Q

an acellular layer located between the vitelline
membrane of the oocyte and the follicular cells

A

Zona pellucida

85
Q

-squamous follicular cells which become cuboidal
as the follicle matures

A

Granulosa cells

86
Q

ayers of follicular cells directly adjacent to the
zona pellucida of the oocyte

A

Corona radiate

87
Q

-mound of granulosa cells on which the
oocyte sits

A

Cumulus oophorus

88
Q

a fluid filled cavity of the follicle

A

Antrum-

89
Q

fluid inside the antrum secreted by the follicular
cells

A

Liquor folliculi

90
Q

There are three phases of oogenesis:

A

multiplication phase (mitosis), growth phase and maturation
phase

91
Q

Coinciding oogenesis is the development and maturation of follicles called

A

folliculogenesis

92
Q

is the process where the matured follicle burst with the liberation of the ovum.

A

Ovulation

93
Q

The remnant of the follicle is now called

A

corpus luteum.

94
Q

secretes progesterone for maintenance of pregnancy.

A

Corpus luteum

95
Q

There are 2 types of ovulation:

Eggs can be released with or without copulation. In occurs in most species.

A

Spontaneous ovulation

96
Q

requires stimulation from males, i.e. coitus/mating to ensure successful fertilization. Examples are Cats, rabbits, camels, and ferrets

A

Induced ovulation

97
Q

During spermiogenesis, spermatids are embedded in the cytoplasm of ___ in the testis.

A

Sertoli cells

98
Q

the process of development and transformation of germinal epithelial cells (stem cells) to spermatozoa.

A

Spermatogenesis

99
Q

s the proliferative phase wherein the spermatogonial cells multiply by a series of mitotic divisions followed by the meiotic divisions to produce the haploid (n) number of chromosomes.

A

Spermatocytogenesis

100
Q

is the maturation/differentiation of the spermatids while they are still in the lumen of the seminiferous tubules

A

Spermiogenesis or spermiohistogenesis

101
Q

starts in the stratified epithelium of the semeniferous tubule, classified as such because layered appearance of the differentiating cells, spermatogonia from the basal layer towards the apical lumen.

A

Spermatocytogenesis

102
Q

Other term for sertoli cells?

A

sustentacular cells

103
Q

The union of the male and female gametes to form a zygote

A

Fertilization

104
Q

deposition of the spermatozoa into the cervix),

A

Capacitation

105
Q

It is a series of cell division following fertilization

A

blastomeres

106
Q

in mammals wherein the zygote contains small amount of yolk (isolecithal egg)

A

Total or holoblastic cleavage

107
Q

in birds and amphibians in which the zygote contains a large amount of yolk (telolecithal egg)

A

Partial or meroblastic cleavage

108
Q

There are 2 kinds of fertilization:

A

external fertilization and internal fertilization

109
Q

is an example of artificial fertilization wherein no male or female interaction occur, chemical or physical stimulation may start the development of the organism, but there has been no report of birth out of this technology.

A

Parthenogenesis

110
Q

Examples of Parthenogenesis

A

Komodo dragon
Bonnethead shark
Water flea
Bynoe’s gecko
Warramaba virgo grasshopper
Mulga trees

111
Q

What terminology are used for mating or copulation in pig

A

Coupling

112
Q

What terminology are used for mating or copulation in dogs

A

Breeding/mating

113
Q

What terminology are used for mating or copulation in horses

A

Covering

114
Q

What terminology are used for mating or copulation cattle, buffaloes, and goats

A

Serving

115
Q

What terminology are used for mating or copulation in sheep

A

Tupping

116
Q

is a sexual intercourse of a male and female with the deposition of semen in the female reproductive tract. Mating can be natural, artificial or in vitro.

A

Copulation/mating

117
Q

What Site of deposition in the female reproductive tract in dogs and horses?

A

Uterus

118
Q

is the deposition of semen thru the cervix of the animal using AI gun.

A

Artificial Insemination (AI)

119
Q

is an assisted reproductive technology wherein ova are picked up via guided Ultrasonograpy (OPU) or ovum are aspirated from ovaries collected from the abbatoir, fertilized in the laboratory and transferred into a recipient animal.

A

In-Vitro fertilization

120
Q

Delivers spermatozoa to the fertilization site very shortly after copulation (15 -30 mins)

A

Rapid Transport Phase

121
Q

movement of sperm cells from one horn to another (usually during AI)

A

Intercornual transport

122
Q

What Site of deposition in the female reproductive tract in cattle and sheep

A

Vagina

123
Q

What Site of deposition in the female reproductive tract in pigs

A

Cervix/uterus

124
Q

The release/ migration of matured spermatids into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules to the efferent duct (epididymis) of the male tract.

A

Spermiation

125
Q

Delivers spermatozoa to the ampulla in a more uniform manner over a sustained period of time (6-12 hrs)

A

Slow/Sustained Transport Phase

126
Q

Sperm cells swim up the ovum while the ovum moves down and meet the sperm cells in what part of the oviduct?

A

ampulla of the oviduct.

127
Q

After capacitation sperm cells undergo to the foregoing events (post capacitation):

A

• Hyperactive motility
• Binding to zona pellucida
• Acrosomal reaction
• Penetration of zona pellucida
• Sperm-oocyte membrane fusion
• Sperm engulfed
• Decondensation of sperm nucleus
• Formation of male pronucleus

128
Q

After capacitation ovum undergo to the foregoing events (post capacitation):

A

Cortical reaction
Zona Block
Vitelline Block

129
Q

process whereby the zona pellucida undergoes biochemical changes so that no further sperm can penetrate the zona

A

Zona block

130
Q

reduction in the ability of the oocyte plasma membrane to fuse with additional spermatozoa

A

Vitelline block

131
Q

technology used to achieve pregnancy in procedures such as artificial insemination, in vitro fertilization and surrogacy

A

Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)

132
Q

introduction of sperm into the female’s uterus or cervix for the purpose of achieving pregnancy through in vivo fertilization by means other than sexual intercourse

A

Artificial insemination -

133
Q

union of egg and sperm in vitro, subsequently the embryos are transferred into the uterus through the cervix for pregnancy to commence.

A

In Vitro Fertilization

134
Q

a tool of assisted reproductive technology against infertility. Eggs are removed from a female ovaries and placed in one of fallopian tubes, along with the male sperm.

A

Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)

135
Q

Sperm is injected directly into the eggs in a laboratory. It is used if infertility originates from the male such as: Low numbers of sperm, Low sperm motility. Single spermatozoan is directly injected into the cytoplasm of the oocyte through a micropuncture of zona pellucida.

A

Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

136
Q

an assisted reproduction technology in which embryos are placed into the uterus of a recipient female (surrogate) animal to establish a pregnancy. It is accompanied by hormone treatment to induce multiple ovulation (MOET).

A

Embryo transfer

137
Q

What are the Advantages of MOET?

A

*Shorter period of breed improvement
*Improvement of stock quality
*Multiplication of rare or endangered species
*Preservation of superior gene quality
*Lower transportation/importation cost
*Increase rate of twinning or multiple birth
*Contribution to the study of sterility or low fertility

138
Q

n the above figure demonstrates how a genetically superior old, unproductive cow is taken into the abbatoir for slaughter. The ovaries are collected then, oocytes are aspirated and in-vitro fertilized the eggs. Then transferred to surrogate/recipient mother. Offspring born, grow and become champion of genetic quality.

A

In-Vitro Fertilization- Embryo Transfer (IVFET)

139
Q

the nucleus of the oocyte is removed and injected/implanted by the diploid nucleus of a somatic cell. Master genes that have been shut down in the original cell is then activated resulting to the creation of a new but the same organism.

A

CLONING/Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)

140
Q
  • a technique used to identify abnormalities in chromosomes. In humans, the following are common:
A

KARYOTYPING

141
Q

Additional autosome (47 chromosomes)

A

Down Syndrome

142
Q

XXY

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

143
Q

XO

A

Turner Syndrome

144
Q

appeared to be most frequent in horses

A

X monosomy

145
Q

is the occurrence of one or more extra or missing chromosome

A

Aneuploidies

146
Q

Is observed in freemartin animals

A

XX/XY

147
Q

is observed in many animals like goat, pig, horse and dog manifested by ovotestes, with uterus and oviduct and duct deferens

A

XX DSD