chapter 1 Flashcards
Historically, who comprised about 80 percent ofAmerica’s air forces? (18)
Enlisted Airmen.
When WWI began in Europe in August 1914, the 1st Aero Squadron mustered 12 officers, 54 enlisted men and six aircraft. How many did it have by the end of 1915?(18)
44 officers, 224 enlisted men and 23 airplanes.
By 1916, a second aero squadron was added for duty in the Philippines. How many total squadrons of 12 aircraft were planned? (18)
24 squadrons - seven with the regular army, 12 with the National Guard and five for coastal defense. (Also balloon units for the field and coast artillery.)
How many squadrons were fully equipped, mannedand organized when the US declared war on Germany on 6 April 1917? (18)
Only one, the 1st Aero Squadron.
Traditionally, commissioned officers served as pilotsbefore WWI. What types of auxiliary capacities did trained enlisted personnel fill? (18)
Supply, construction, photo reconnaissance, radio, mechanics, armament specialists, welders, riggers, sail makers, etc. (Mechanics were needed most.)
At first, service factories were used as training sites. By the end of 1917, the Aviation Section trained mechanics and others at special schools and technical institutions. Where were the two largest located? (18)
In St. Paul, MN and at Kelly Field, TX.
General HQ (GHQ) Air Force waited until WWII began before starting a massive expansion program. T/F (18)
False. (The expansion program began even before WWII broke out.)
In 1938, the total force included fewer than 20,000 enlisted Airmen. By March 1944, air force manpower reached its high point (2,104,405 enlisted men and women). What law did Congress pass in 1940? (18)
The first peacetime conscription law in US history.
Even though training centers expanded and multiplied from 1939 to 1941, what helped meet the demand for training? (19)
Private schools.
What was the estimated ratio of support personnel to planes during WWII? (19)
70 men to one plane.
Women served in the Army Air Force during WWIIthrough what program? (19)
The Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC), created in May 1942 and later renamed the Women’s Army Corps (WAC).
What was the top priority for assignment of Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC) during WWII? (19)
Serving at aircraft warning service stations. (They served in many capacities and demand for them soon far exceeded the numbers available.)
What led to the integration of the Air Force? (19)
On 11May1949, Air Force Letter 35.3 mandated that black Airmen be screened for reassignment to formerly all-white units according to their qualifications. (Within a year, virtually the entire Air Force was integrated with few incidents.)
When did the Third Reich surrender? (19)
In May 1945. (Following the 1944 invasion of Europe and the Allied ground forces’ advance toward Berlin.)
Despite low-level fire bombing and destruction ofJapanese cities throughout spring and summer of 1945, Japan continued to resist What did US commanders realize was the only way to force its unconditional surrender? (19)
An American invasion of the Japanese islands and the subjugation of the Japanese.
Enola Gay dropped the first nuclear bomb on whatJapanese city? (20)
Hiroshima. (6 August 1945.)
Three days after Hiroshima, ____ dropped the second nuclear bomb on Nagasaki, Japan. (20)
Rock’s Car.
The Soviet Union fought against Hitler with theWestern allies. Why didn’t this alliance survive after the war? (20)
Because of ideological differences between capitalist democracies and Communism.
Who were the Big Three who met in 1945 to discuss the postwar division of Europe? (20)
British Prime Minister Winston Churchill, Soviet Premier Josef Stalin and US President Franklin D. Roosevelt.
What did the meeting of the Big Three in 1945 laythe foundation for? (20)
The UN.
What UN plan did the Soviet Union veto in 1946,leading to almost five decades of cold war? (20)
The plan to eliminate nuclear weapons, using inspectors to ensure no country made atomic bombs and supervise the dismantling of existing weapons.
How did the allies respond when the Soviet Unionclosed off all surface access to Berlin, Germany in June 1948? (20)
They “built” an air bridge to supply Berlin rather than forcing the blockade and risking World War III.
What was air power’s most decisive contribution tothe cold war? (20)
The Berlin airlift.
Who led the 15-month Berlin airlift, bringing in more than 2.33 million tons of supplies on 277,569 flights? (20)
Major General William Tunner. (He also led the Hump airlift over the Himalayan mountains to supply China during WWII.)
Of all the enlisted functions, which was perhaps most critical to the success of the Berlin airlift? (20)
Maintenance.
The Soviets capitulated and dismantled the surfaceblockade of Berlin without a bomb being dropped. What did this victory lay the foundation for? (20)
NATO.
The Korean War lasted from 1950 to __ . (21)
1953
How did the Korean War begin? (21)
With a surprise invasion of South Korea by North Korea on 25 June 1950.
By 1950, where was most US ground and air strength located in the Pacific? (21)
In Japan. (But they didn’t have the range to intercede in Korea from Japan.)
Where did the first aerial combat between the USand North Korea take place on 27 June 1950? (21)
Over Kimpo.
Enlisted personnel served as gunners aboard the B-26 and B-29 aircraft during the Korean War. Name the NCO who shot down a North Korean YaK-3, the first such victory recorded during the war. (21)
SSgt Nyle S. Mickley.
What turned a stalled North Korean offensive into adisorganized retreat back to the north in September1950? (21)
US forces landed in South Korea and pursued the beaten army north of the 38th parallel.
Give three examples of missions performed by B-29s that hadn’t been considered before the Korean War. (21)
1) Interdiction; 2) battlefield support;3) air superiority (counter-airfield).
On 9 November 1950, Cpl Harry LaVene (a gunner)scored the first B-29 victory over a jet by downing a(n) __ .(21)
MiG-15. (The first of 27 MiGs shot down by B-29 gunners during the Korean War.)
Name the NCO who shot down two MiGs on 12 April 1951, a feat unmatched by any other gunner. (21)
Sgt Billie Beach.
In 1959, Fidel Castro overthrew the dictator inand instituted a socialist dictatorship. (21)
Cuba. (Hundreds of thousands of Cubans fled, many to the US.)
The CIA planned the 1961 invasion of Cuba at theBay of Pigs in hopes that the Cuban people would overthrow Castro. Who were used as troops? (21-22)
Cuban exiles. (They suffered a crushing defeat.)
In 1962, the Soviets and Cuba began to build what in Cuba?(22)
Intermediate- and medium-range ballistic missile complexes (which would be able to employ nuclear-armed missiles with a range ofup to 5,000 miles).
How was Soviet construction of missile complexes in Cuba confirmed? (22)
Through Air Force reconnaissance flights (first with highaltitude U-2 aircraft, followed by low-level RF-lOls and RB- 66s).
While Strategic Air Command (SAC) and TacticalAir Command (TAC) geared up for a possible invasion of Cuba and war, what did President Kennedy do to deal with the Cuban Missile Crisis? (22)
He imposed a naval blockade to prevent any more materiel from reaching Cuba and negotiated with Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev to remove the missiles.
When Cuban air defenses shot down a U-2 piloted by Maj Rudolf Anderson, what did the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) recommend? (22)
An immediate air strike against Cuba. (But President Kennedy decided to wait.)
The US agreed not to invade Cuba in exchange forremoval of Soviet missiles from the island. What did the US also secretly agree to do? (22)
Remove US missiles from Turkey.
The Cuban missile crisis brought the world dangerously close to nuclear war, but the strategic and tactical power of the US Air Force (coupled with the will and ability to use it) helped deter it. T/F (22)
True.
In the 1950s, US involvement in Vietnam began aswhat kind of operation? (22)
A cold war operation to contain Communism.
What US President first authorized American intervention in Vietnam? (22)
President Harry S. Truman in 1950.
What aid did the US first give to Vietnam between1950 to 1953? (22-23)
Eight C-47 transports, the US Military Assistance Advisory Group (MAAG) and enlisted technicians to handle supply and aircraft maintenance.
What 1953 Viet Minh action (under Ho Chi Minh’sdirection) led President Eisenhower to send C-119 transports to the area? (23)
The Viet Minh major offensive advanced into Laos and menaced Thailand. (In 1954, 300 Airmen were sent to service aircraft along with additional cargo planes.)
What was the first sustained bombing campaign ofthe war against North Vietnam? (23)
Rolling Thunder from 1965 to 1968. (The earlier Operation Flaming Dart was a series of strikes.)
Airmen performed a variety of duties as the war inVietnam expanded, ranging from support to combat and rescue. Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) personnel built revetments and facilities. What did REDHORSE teams provide? (23)
Long-range civil engineer services.
As guerilla attacks continued, air base defense inVietnam became a monumental undertaking performed almost exclusively by Air Force ____ squadrons. (23)
Security police.
Name the SSgt of the 3d Security Police Squadronwho earned a Silver Star for heroics while helping defend Bien Hoa Air Base in Vietnam during the North Vietnamese Tet Offensive of 1968. (23)
SSgt William Piazza.
American presidents wanted the Vietnam conflict tobe fought and resolved by the Vietnamese with the US in a(n) “ __ “role only. (24)
“Advisory.”
American responsibility in the Vietnam conflict became primarily for combat operations after what incident, followed by the Senate resolution in 1964? (24)
The GulfofTonkin incident.
In 1969, President Nixon announced that ending UScombat in Southeast Asia was a primary goal. What did he charge the SecDef with as a top priority? (24)
The Vietnamization of the war.
Enlisted Airmen trained South Vietnamese operational and training crews as Vietnam’s air force grew to become the __ largest in the world. (24)
Fourth.
In 1972, Communist forces crossed the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ), taking advantage of reduced US ground presence. How did President Nixon respond? (24)
Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
What air operation convinced the North Vietnameseto finally resume negotiations? (24)
Operation Linebacker II - 11 days of intensive bombing of Vietnamese cities by B-52s.
When was a cease-fire agreement hammered outwith the North Vietnamese? (24)
By 28 January 1973.
Although there was no victory and no end tofighting, the US withdrew from Vietnam. When did the last US troops leave the country? (24)
29 March 1973. (The military draft ended on 27 January 1973.)
How long after the first cease-fire were North andSouth Vietnam officially unified under a Communist regime? (24)
After only three years (2 July 1976).
One of the first known uses of aircraft to render assistance was dropping food to ____ flood victimsin 1919. (24)
Rio Grande. (Many early domestic humanitarian flights were flown in response to winter emergencies.)
Name two humanitarian missions to foreign nationsflown by Army aircraft before the independent Air Force was established. (24)
Any two of the following: 1) delivering medical supplies to earthquake victims in Chile in 1939; 2) dropping diphtheria vaccine to prevent a shipboard epidemic on a British aircraft carrier in 1943; 3) dropping food to starving French citizens in 1944; and 4) delivering food to the Netherlands in Operation Chowhound in 1945.
What operations in 1956 and 1957 airlifted morethan 10,000 Hungarian refugees to the US for asylum after Soviet forces crushed an anticommunist uprising in Hungary? (24)
Operations Safe Haven I and II.
What month-long airlift delivered more than 1,000tons of material to Chile in 1960 following earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, avalanches and tidal waves? (24)
The Amigos Airlift.
What 1975 event triggered the largest aerial evacuation in history? (24-25)
The fall of Cambodia and South Vietnam to Communist forces. (During Operations Babylift, New Life, Frequent Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
What 1991 humanitarian airlift provided blankets,tents and food to displaced Kurds in northern Iraq following the Persian Gulf War? (254)
Operation Provide Comfort.
What 1991 humanitarian airlift followed a typhoonin Bangladesh? (25)
Operation Sea Angel.
What humanitarian airlift in 1992 and 1993 providedfood, medicine and cargo to the republics of the former Soviet Union? (25)
Operation Provide Hope.
A 1994 humanitarian airlift carried 3,600 tons ofrelief supplies to refugees in what country in war-torn central Africa? (25)
Rwanda.
What 1983 operation rescued hundreds of US citizens attending medical school in Grenada after a coup? (25)
Operation Urgent Fury.
During Operation Urgent Fury, which aircraft proved their worth repeatedly, showing more versatility and accuracy than naval bombardment and land artillery? (25)
AC-130 gunships.
Several Air Force enlisted personnel received special praise for their efforts in Operation Urgent Fury. What was Sgt Charles H. Tisby noted for? (25)
He was a loadmaster who saved the life of a paratrooper in his aircraft by hauling him back into the plane after his static line fouled.
By the mid-1980s, what country (led by MuammarQadhafi) was a leading sponsor of worldwide terrorism, financing terrorist training camps and supplying funds, weapons, logistical support and safe havens for many terrorist groups? (25)
Libya. (It also used subversion or direct military intervention against other African nations and ordered global assassinations.)
What 1984 directive established in principle a USpolicy of preemptive and retaliatory strikes against terrorists? (25)
National Security Decision Directive 138.
In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
All four branches of the US Armed Forces played arole in Operation Just Cause. Its first night was the largest nighttime airborne operation since WWII. T/F (26)
True. (On the first night, 84 aircraft dropped nearly 5,000 troops.)
What equipment was first used during a contingency by Air Force personnel in Operation Just Cause’s nighttime airdrop? (26)
Night vision goggles.
How long did it take US forces to eliminate organizedresistance during Operation Just Cause? (26)
Just six days. (It was the largest and most complex air operationsince Vietnam.)
What country did Iraq’s Saddam Hussein invadeand attempt to annex on 2 August 1990? (26)
The small, oil-rich nation of Kuwait.
In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
Within the first week of Desert Storm, the air warwas essentially won. T/F (27)
False. (It was won within the first 24 hours.)
During Desert Storm, coalition air forces poundedentrenched ground forces into surrender. What did they do during the final stages of the air war? (27)
They “tank plinked,” destroying Iraqi tanks on the ground one at a time.
From suppliers to the line crews, coalition maintainers enabled a constant surge during Desert Storm. T/F (27)
True. (Maintenance was a key to the success of the air campaign.)
Name two lesser known high-tech jobs taken on byenlisted personnel during Desert Storm. (27)
1) Collection and analysis of electronic emissions undertaken with Electronic Warfare Officers (EWO); and 2) airborne intelligence technicians.
How long did it take for Iraq to surrender once theair war ended and the land invasion began during Desert Storm? (27)
Scarcely 48 hours. (Iraq surrendered on 28 February 1991.)
In the 43-day Desert Storm war with Iraq, the AirForce was the equal partner of land and sea power for the first time in modern combat. T/F (27)
True.
The Air Force went into Desert Storm talking in coldwar terms about air superiority and sustainable casualties. What did it come out trumpeting? (27)
Air supremacy and minimal or no casualties.
On 27 September 1991, the cold war was officiallyover. What event signaled the end? (27)
Strategic bomber crews were ordered to stand down from their decades-long round-the-clock readiness for nuclear war. (It was a new world and the enlisted Airman’s role changed, too.)
When Iraqi troops defeated a Kurdish rebellion innorthern Iraq in April 1991, more than a million Kurds fled to Iran and Turkey to avoid massacres. What operation was a UN Security Council-authorized humanitarian relief effort? (27)
Operation Provide Comfort. (The US organized a combined task force.)
Operation Provide Comfort evolved into a largerphased operation for US ground troops. T/F (27)
True.
What did Operations Quick Transit I, II and III doin 1996? (27)
Airlifted displaced Kurds to safe areas in Turkey after Kurdish factions’ struggle for power led one faction to accept Iraqi backing to drive another from the city of Irbil. (7,000 refugees proceeded on to Guam for settlement in the US in Operation Pacific Haven.)
What operation succeeded Operation Provide Comfort in January 1997? (28)
Operation Northern Watch.
What operation established a no-fly zone in southern Iraq in 1992 to discourage renewed Iraqi military activity near Kuwait? (28)
Operation Southern Watch. (It officially ended on 26 August 2003.)
Operation Southern Watch supported UN SecurityCouncil Resolution 688, which required what two things? (28)
1) Protecting Shiite Muslims under aerial attack by Saddam Hussein after Operation Desert Storm; and 2) enforcing other UN sanctions against Iraq.
Why did the US launch cruise missile strikes against the Iraqi Intelligence Service Headquarters in Baghdad . , in June 1993? (28)
In retaliation for the planned assassination of former President George H. W. Bush during an April 1993 visit to Kuwait.
Operation Vigilant Warrior brought thousands ofadditional US armed forces personnel into the Iraqi theater in response to what Iraqi action? (28)
Iraqi troops massing at the Kuwaiti border in October 1994.
Operation Southern Watch proved the __ conceptwas sound when a composite unit arrived fully armed and began flying within 12 hours of landing. (28)
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). (Additional AEFs were deployed since to support Operation Southern Watch.)
When President Clinton expanded the SouthernWatch no-fly zone to the 33d parallel just south of Baghdad in 1997, it meant most of Iraqi airspace fell into nofly zones. T/F (28)
True. (President Clinton acted in response to Iraqi aggression against Kurdish rebels in northern Iraq.)
How did the Air Force react to the 1996 bombing ofKhobar Towers, Dhahran AB? (28)
It reorganized existing security police units into new security forces groups and squadrons trained and specialized in all aspects of force protection, including terrorist activity and deployed force security.
List the four operations the US initiated in Somaliabetween 1992 and 1994. (28-29)
1) Operation Provide Relief; 2) Operation Impressive Lift; 3) Operation Restore Hope; and 4) Operation Restore Hope II.
What 1992 operation helped relieve the suffering ofrefugees from the famine in Somalia? (28)
Operation Provide Relief
What prevented much of the relief supplies fromreaching the refugees during Operation Provide Relief? (28)
Continued civil war and clan fighting within Somalia.
In September 1992, Operation Impressive Lift airlifted hundreds of ____ forces to Somalia to increase security for relief efforts. (28)
UN. (Pakistani soldiers under the UN banner.)
What operation did President George H.W. Bushauthorize to establish order in Somalia with US troops in December 1992 so food could reach those in need? (29)
Operation Restore Hope. (The UN assumed control of the mission in March 1993 and it ended in May 1993.)
What operation was prompted by US losses in Mogadishu, Somalia in October 1993? (28)
Operation Restore Hope II. (It airlifted US troops and cargo to stabilize Mogadishu and ended in March 1994.)
When the last US forces exited Somalia without further casualties, the country was stable and the threat of famine had ended. T/F (29)
False. (Anarchy ruled in Somalia and the threat of famine remained.)
When the US decided to intervene in Haiti in 1994,how many plans did the US Atlantic Command develop for Operation Uphold Democracy? (29)
Two (one forcible-entry, the other passive-entry).
What unexpectedly changed Operation Uphold Democracy in 1994 from a military invasion to an insertion of a multinational peacekeeping force? (29)
At the last minute, former President Jimmy Carter persuaded the military leader of Haiti to relinquish control.
The successful adaptation to the last-minute change in mission in Haiti showed the __ air power offers US military and political leaders to fulfill foreign policy objectives. (29)
Flexibility.
Which UN airlift operation to Sarajevo in Bosnialasted from 1992 to 1996? (29)
Operation Provide Promise.
What factors led Yugoslavia to break into independent ethnic states? (29)
The collapse of Communism in Eastern Europe coupled with the disintegration of the Soviet Union itself
Which religions were prominent in the breakup ofYugoslavia in 1992? (29)
Roman Catholicism (in Slovenia and Croatia), Eastern Orthodoxy (in Serbia) and Islam (in Bosnia).
Serbs within Bosnia grew fearful because of theirminority status to the Muslims. What action did they take? (29)
They armed themselves and began forming their own ethnic state by seizing territory and besieging the Bosnian capital of Sarajevo.
At least 15 countries airlifted supplies to Sarajevo.Over the course of Operation Provide Promise, AFR, ANG and active duty units rotated from the US on __ - week deployments. (29)
3-week
Why did President Clinton significantly expand Operation Provide Promise? (29)
In response to continued attacks by Bosnian Serbs on Sarajevo and on the relief aircraft themselves.
What secondary mission dropped 50 tons of toys and children’s clothes and shoes over Sarajevo in December 1993? (29)
Operation Provide Santa.
Where did warring Bosnian factions sign peace accords in December 1995? (29)
At Wright-Patterson AFB, OH.
What NATO operation (1993-1995) attempted toimpose a no-fly zone over Bosnia in an effort to limit the war? (29)
Operation Deny Flight.
When did NATO score the first aerial combat victories in its 45-year history? (29)
When two US F-16s intercepted six Bosnian Serb jets and shot down four in February 1994 during Operation Deny Flight.
Operation Deny Flight stopped the Bosnian Serbattacks and effectively limited the war. T/F (30)
False.
What 1995 operation held Bosnian Serbs accountable for attacks against UN forces and Sarajevo with an incessant air campaign, striking targets throughout the country? (30)
Operation Deliberate Force.
Operation Deliberate Force marked the first campaign in aerial warfare where __ munitions outweighed conventional bombs. (30)
Precision. (The Serbs agreed to NA TO terms and the bombing stopped. Deliberate Force officially ended 21 September 1995.)
After the warring Bosnian parties signed peace accords in Paris in December 1995, what operation replaced Operation Deliberate Force in 1996? (30)
Operation Joint Endeavor. (Its mission was to implement the agreements.)
The Serbian government’s oppression of the ethnicAlbanian population in Kosovo turned to violence and mass killings, led by President __ . (30)
President Slobodan Milosevic.
What NATO operation began in March 1999 to forceSerbia to accept NA TO terms for ending the conflict and avoid the ethnic cleansing that took place in Bosnia? (30)
Operation Allied Force.
NATO hoped Milosevic would capitulate after just afew days of air strikes, but it took __ days and morethan 38,000 sorties in the air war over Serbia. (30)
78 days.
Why were NATO’s unity and determination fundamental in resolving the conflict with Milosevic? (30)
The precision and persistence of the air campaign convinced Milosevic that he couldn’t outwait NATO.
The Air Force responded quickly to the four unprecedented acts of violence in New York City, western Pennsylvania and Washington, DC on __ 2001. (30)
11 September 2001.
When did fighter aircraft begin to fly combat airpatrols over US skies in support of Operation Noble Eagle? (30)
11 September 2001, the same day as the terrorist attacks.
What percentage of pilots flying Noble Eagle missions belonged to the ANG? (30)
More than 80%.
After 11 September 2001, what operation took thefight to the nation’s enemies overseas, most notably in Afghanistan? (31)
Operation Enduring Freedom.
What was the twofold mission of Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
To I) provide humanitarian airlift to the people of Afghanistan; and 2) conduct military action to root out terrorists and their supporters there.
The government of Afghanistan, the __ , refuseddemands to hand over suspected terrorists and close terrorist training camps after 11 September 2001. (31)
Taliban.
Aircraft from which three countries began a sustained campaign against terrorist targets during Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
The US, Great Britain and France.
Along with US special operations and Afghan opposition forces, what weapons did air power employ to break the Taliban’s will and capacity to resist in Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
Precision weapons.
Set in southeastern Afghanistan on 4 March 2002,the Pentagon called it Operation Anaconda. What did the men who fought there call it? (31)
The Battle of Robert’s Ridge. (The press called it the Battle at Shah-I-Kot Mountain.)
0peration Anaconda was one of the most intensesmall-unit firefights of the war against terrorism. USforces distinguished themselves with conspicuous bravery. Which forces secured the mountaintop and inflicted serious losses on al-Qaeda? (31)
Air Force, Army and Navy special operators. (Seven US servicemen were killed.)
0n 17 March 2003, what ultimatum did PresidentGeorge W. Bush give Saddam Hussein and his sons? (31)
Leave Iraq within 48 hours or face conflict. (It was rejected.)
What operation officially began on 20 March 2003and ended on 1 May 2003? (31)
Operation Iraqi Freedom.
How many troops deployed to the Gulf region forOperation Iraqi Freedom, forming a coalition of multinational troops? (31)
More than 300,000.
More cruise missiles were fired on the first day ofOperation Iraqi Freedom than during the entire firstGulf War. T/F (31)
True. (Between 300 and 400 cruise missiles were fired. The second day called for launching as many again.)
The battle plan for Operation Iraqi Freedom wasbased on what concept? (31)
“Shock and Awe,” destroying the enemy’s will to fight rather than physically destroying its military force.
What slowed the coalition’s advance during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Heavy sand storms. (But soldiers came within 50 miles of Baghdad by 24 March and US tanks rumbled through downtown Baghdad on 7 April.)
Who was SSgt Scott Sather? (32)
A combat controller who became the first Airman killed in Operation Iraqi Freedom. (He died on 8 April 2003 and received seven medals during his career, including the Bronze Star.)
What town did British forces take, the key to delivering humanitarian aid during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Basra.
When did US commanders declare that Saddam’sregime no longer controlled Baghdad? (32)
9 April 2003.
Who was the first person on the 55 most wantedleaders list issued by the coalition during Operation Iraqi Freedom to surrender? (32)
Iraq’s science advisor.
On 2 May 2003, President Bush announced victoryin Iraq while aboard the aircraft carrier __ . (32)
USS Abraham Lincoln.
What was President Bush’s 2 May 2003 declarationof victory in Iraq based on? (32)
An assessment given three days prior by General Tommy Franks, the top US military commander in the Gulf.
What operation signaled the start of the War in Afghanistan? (33)
Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF). (It began on 7 October 2001 and is now the US’ longest-running war.)
During Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF), Airmenplayed a key role in the attempt to drive out the__ .(32)
Taliban. (Airmen also established forward assault landing strips, directed close air support strikes and recovered downed and wounded personnel.)
Which TSgt received the Silver Star for his actionsafter his patrol was ambushed in Afghanistan? (32)
TSgt Kevin Whalen. (He returned enemy fire to allow his team to seek cover, then called in close air support despite being wounded. He insisted that all other wounded be evacuated first so he could maintain control of close air support.)
What event on 25 June 1996 drove the Air Force toemphasize combat preparation as part of BMT? (32)
The Khobar Towers bombing. (A deployment phase called the BEAST was added to BMT to simulate the deployed environment.)
In addition to tackling the BEAST and massive obstacle courses, which additional BMT concepts help prepare Airmen for combat? (33)
Defending and protecting their base of operations, directing search and recovery operations, basic self-aid and buddy care, and leadership training. (Airmen are more prepared in 2012 for deployment, as a result of lessons learned from Khobar Towers.)
0n 11 March 2004 in Afghanistan, SMSgt RamonColon-Lopez overran enemy positions and suppressed enemy fire after his team’s helicopter took sustained small-arms fire and was seriously damaged as it landed. He and his team succeeded in driving the enemy away. Which medal did Colon-Lopez receive for his actions? (33)
The Combat Action Medal. (Colon-Lopez was one of the first six recipients of the medal and also received the Bronze Star with Valor.)
Due to budget constraints, the Air Force reduced the active duty force in 2007 to __ percent of its size at the end of the Gulf War in 1991. (33)
64 percent. (In 2008, the number of active duty personnel shrank from 360,000 to 330,000.)
Name one of the three combat controllers who distinguished themselves during a January 2007 battle against about 800 heavily-entrenched Iraqi insurgents. (33)
Any one of the following: TSgt Bryan Patton; SSgt David Orvosh; or SSgt Ryan Wallace.
Which command did the Air Force establish in October 2008 to focus on nuclear assets? (33)
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
What caused the Air Force to establish Air ForceGlobal Strike Command (AFGSC)? (33)
Two incidents involving mishandling of nuclear weapons. (Due to the incidents and the Air Force’s declining nuclear focus and performance, both SECAF Michael Wynne and Chief of Staff: US Air Force (CSAF) General T. Michael Moseley resigned.)
When did the US complete its withdrawal of militarytroops from Iraq? (33)
18 December 2011. (This fulfilled the 2008 bilateral agreement signed, by President Bush, that mandated troop withdrawal from Iraqi territory by the end of201 l.)
What was the stated goal of the US invasion of Afghanistan on 7 October 2001? (34)
Dismantling the al Qaeda terrorist organization and ending its use of Afghanistan a~ a base.
Which is the US’ longest-running war? (34)
The War in Afghanistan.
On 21 May 2012, leaders of the NATO-membercountries approved President Obama’s exit strategy for Afghanistan. What does this exit strategy call for? (34)
An end to combat operations in Afghanistan in 2013 and withdrawal of the US-led international military force by the end of 2014.
Since the start of wartime operations in Iraq andAfghanistan, how many Civil Engineering ExplosiveOrdnance Disposal (EOD) Airmen have died while protecting US and coalition forces, as well as civilians, from IEDs? (34)
- (In addition to those killed in action, 140 EOD Airmen were seriously wounded during combat operations.)
After 100 years, air power has evolved and its applications and effectiveness have improved with each conflict. During WWI, air power played a minor role. What role did it play in Kosovo? (34)
The only role.
Historically, who comprised about 80 percent ofAmerica’s air forces? (18)
Enlisted Airmen.
When WWI began in Europe in August 1914, the 1st Aero Squadron mustered 12 officers, 54 enlisted men and six aircraft. How many did it have by the end of 1915?(18)
44 officers, 224 enlisted men and 23 airplanes.
By 1916, a second aero squadron was added for duty in the Philippines. How many total squadrons of 12 aircraft were planned? (18)
24 squadrons - seven with the regular army, 12 with the National Guard and five for coastal defense. (Also balloon units for the field and coast artillery.)
How many squadrons were fully equipped, mannedand organized when the US declared war on Germany on 6 April 1917? (18)
Only one, the 1st Aero Squadron.
Traditionally, commissioned officers served as pilotsbefore WWI. What types of auxiliary capacities did trained enlisted personnel fill? (18)
Supply, construction, photo reconnaissance, radio, mechanics, armament specialists, welders, riggers, sail makers, etc. (Mechanics were needed most.)
At first, service factories were used as training sites. By the end of 1917, the Aviation Section trained mechanics and others at special schools and technical institutions. Where were the two largest located? (18)
In St. Paul, MN and at Kelly Field, TX.
General HQ (GHQ) Air Force waited until WWII began before starting a massive expansion program. T/F (18)
False. (The expansion program began even before WWII broke out.)
In 1938, the total force included fewer than 20,000 enlisted Airmen. By March 1944, air force manpower reached its high point (2,104,405 enlisted men and women). What law did Congress pass in 1940? (18)
The first peacetime conscription law in US history.
Even though training centers expanded and multiplied from 1939 to 1941, what helped meet the demand for training? (19)
Private schools.
What was the estimated ratio of support personnel to planes during WWII? (19)
70 men to one plane.
Women served in the Army Air Force during WWIIthrough what program? (19)
The Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC), created in May 1942 and later renamed the Women’s Army Corps (WAC).
What was the top priority for assignment of Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC) during WWII? (19)
Serving at aircraft warning service stations. (They served in many capacities and demand for them soon far exceeded the numbers available.)
What led to the integration of the Air Force? (19)
On 11May1949, Air Force Letter 35.3 mandated that black Airmen be screened for reassignment to formerly all-white units according to their qualifications. (Within a year, virtually the entire Air Force was integrated with few incidents.)
When did the Third Reich surrender? (19)
In May 1945. (Following the 1944 invasion of Europe and the Allied ground forces’ advance toward Berlin.)
Despite low-level fire bombing and destruction ofJapanese cities throughout spring and summer of 1945, Japan continued to resist What did US commanders realize was the only way to force its unconditional surrender? (19)
An American invasion of the Japanese islands and the subjugation of the Japanese.
Enola Gay dropped the first nuclear bomb on whatJapanese city? (20)
Hiroshima. (6 August 1945.)
Three days after Hiroshima, ____ dropped the second nuclear bomb on Nagasaki, Japan. (20)
Rock’s Car.
The Soviet Union fought against Hitler with theWestern allies. Why didn’t this alliance survive after the war? (20)
Because of ideological differences between capitalist democracies and Communism.
Who were the Big Three who met in 1945 to discuss the postwar division of Europe? (20)
British Prime Minister Winston Churchill, Soviet Premier Josef Stalin and US President Franklin D. Roosevelt.
What did the meeting of the Big Three in 1945 laythe foundation for? (20)
The UN.
What UN plan did the Soviet Union veto in 1946,leading to almost five decades of cold war? (20)
The plan to eliminate nuclear weapons, using inspectors to ensure no country made atomic bombs and supervise the dismantling of existing weapons.
How did the allies respond when the Soviet Unionclosed off all surface access to Berlin, Germany in June 1948? (20)
They “built” an air bridge to supply Berlin rather than forcing the blockade and risking World War III.
What was air power’s most decisive contribution tothe cold war? (20)
The Berlin airlift.
Who led the 15-month Berlin airlift, bringing in more than 2.33 million tons of supplies on 277,569 flights? (20)
Major General William Tunner. (He also led the Hump airlift over the Himalayan mountains to supply China during WWII.)
Of all the enlisted functions, which was perhaps most critical to the success of the Berlin airlift? (20)
Maintenance.
The Soviets capitulated and dismantled the surfaceblockade of Berlin without a bomb being dropped. What did this victory lay the foundation for? (20)
NATO.
The Korean War lasted from 1950 to __ . (21)
1953
How did the Korean War begin? (21)
With a surprise invasion of South Korea by North Korea on 25 June 1950.
By 1950, where was most US ground and air strength located in the Pacific? (21)
In Japan. (But they didn’t have the range to intercede in Korea from Japan.)
Where did the first aerial combat between the USand North Korea take place on 27 June 1950? (21)
Over Kimpo.
Enlisted personnel served as gunners aboard the B-26 and B-29 aircraft during the Korean War. Name the NCO who shot down a North Korean YaK-3, the first such victory recorded during the war. (21)
SSgt Nyle S. Mickley.
What turned a stalled North Korean offensive into adisorganized retreat back to the north in September1950? (21)
US forces landed in South Korea and pursued the beaten army north of the 38th parallel.
Give three examples of missions performed by B-29s that hadn’t been considered before the Korean War. (21)
1) Interdiction; 2) battlefield support;3) air superiority (counter-airfield).
On 9 November 1950, Cpl Harry LaVene (a gunner)scored the first B-29 victory over a jet by downing a(n) __ .(21)
MiG-15. (The first of 27 MiGs shot down by B-29 gunners during the Korean War.)
Name the NCO who shot down two MiGs on 12 April 1951, a feat unmatched by any other gunner. (21)
Sgt Billie Beach.
In 1959, Fidel Castro overthrew the dictator inand instituted a socialist dictatorship. (21)
Cuba. (Hundreds of thousands of Cubans fled, many to the US.)
The CIA planned the 1961 invasion of Cuba at theBay of Pigs in hopes that the Cuban people would overthrow Castro. Who were used as troops? (21-22)
Cuban exiles. (They suffered a crushing defeat.)
In 1962, the Soviets and Cuba began to build what in Cuba?(22)
Intermediate- and medium-range ballistic missile complexes (which would be able to employ nuclear-armed missiles with a range ofup to 5,000 miles).
How was Soviet construction of missile complexes in Cuba confirmed? (22)
Through Air Force reconnaissance flights (first with highaltitude U-2 aircraft, followed by low-level RF-lOls and RB- 66s).
While Strategic Air Command (SAC) and TacticalAir Command (TAC) geared up for a possible invasion of Cuba and war, what did President Kennedy do to deal with the Cuban Missile Crisis? (22)
He imposed a naval blockade to prevent any more materiel from reaching Cuba and negotiated with Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev to remove the missiles.
When Cuban air defenses shot down a U-2 piloted by Maj Rudolf Anderson, what did the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) recommend? (22)
An immediate air strike against Cuba. (But President Kennedy decided to wait.)
The US agreed not to invade Cuba in exchange forremoval of Soviet missiles from the island. What did the US also secretly agree to do? (22)
Remove US missiles from Turkey.
The Cuban missile crisis brought the world dangerously close to nuclear war, but the strategic and tactical power of the US Air Force (coupled with the will and ability to use it) helped deter it. T/F (22)
True.
In the 1950s, US involvement in Vietnam began aswhat kind of operation? (22)
A cold war operation to contain Communism.
What US President first authorized American intervention in Vietnam? (22)
President Harry S. Truman in 1950.
What aid did the US first give to Vietnam between1950 to 1953? (22-23)
Eight C-47 transports, the US Military Assistance Advisory Group (MAAG) and enlisted technicians to handle supply and aircraft maintenance.
What 1953 Viet Minh action (under Ho Chi Minh’sdirection) led President Eisenhower to send C-119 transports to the area? (23)
The Viet Minh major offensive advanced into Laos and menaced Thailand. (In 1954, 300 Airmen were sent to service aircraft along with additional cargo planes.)
What was the first sustained bombing campaign ofthe war against North Vietnam? (23)
Rolling Thunder from 1965 to 1968. (The earlier Operation Flaming Dart was a series of strikes.)
Airmen performed a variety of duties as the war inVietnam expanded, ranging from support to combat and rescue. Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) personnel built revetments and facilities. What did REDHORSE teams provide? (23)
Long-range civil engineer services.
As guerilla attacks continued, air base defense inVietnam became a monumental undertaking performed almost exclusively by Air Force ____ squadrons. (23)
Security police.
Name the SSgt of the 3d Security Police Squadronwho earned a Silver Star for heroics while helping defend Bien Hoa Air Base in Vietnam during the North Vietnamese Tet Offensive of 1968. (23)
SSgt William Piazza.
American presidents wanted the Vietnam conflict tobe fought and resolved by the Vietnamese with the US in a(n) “ __ “role only. (24)
“Advisory.”
American responsibility in the Vietnam conflict became primarily for combat operations after what incident, followed by the Senate resolution in 1964? (24)
The GulfofTonkin incident.
In 1969, President Nixon announced that ending UScombat in Southeast Asia was a primary goal. What did he charge the SecDef with as a top priority? (24)
The Vietnamization of the war.
Enlisted Airmen trained South Vietnamese operational and training crews as Vietnam’s air force grew to become the __ largest in the world. (24)
Fourth.
In 1972, Communist forces crossed the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ), taking advantage of reduced US ground presence. How did President Nixon respond? (24)
Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
What air operation convinced the North Vietnameseto finally resume negotiations? (24)
Operation Linebacker II - 11 days of intensive bombing of Vietnamese cities by B-52s.
When was a cease-fire agreement hammered outwith the North Vietnamese? (24)
By 28 January 1973.
Although there was no victory and no end tofighting, the US withdrew from Vietnam. When did the last US troops leave the country? (24)
29 March 1973. (The military draft ended on 27 January 1973.)
How long after the first cease-fire were North andSouth Vietnam officially unified under a Communist regime? (24)
After only three years (2 July 1976).
One of the first known uses of aircraft to render assistance was dropping food to ____ flood victimsin 1919. (24)
Rio Grande. (Many early domestic humanitarian flights were flown in response to winter emergencies.)
Name two humanitarian missions to foreign nationsflown by Army aircraft before the independent Air Force was established. (24)
Any two of the following: 1) delivering medical supplies to earthquake victims in Chile in 1939; 2) dropping diphtheria vaccine to prevent a shipboard epidemic on a British aircraft carrier in 1943; 3) dropping food to starving French citizens in 1944; and 4) delivering food to the Netherlands in Operation Chowhound in 1945.
What operations in 1956 and 1957 airlifted morethan 10,000 Hungarian refugees to the US for asylum after Soviet forces crushed an anticommunist uprising in Hungary? (24)
Operations Safe Haven I and II.
What month-long airlift delivered more than 1,000tons of material to Chile in 1960 following earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, avalanches and tidal waves? (24)
The Amigos Airlift.
What 1975 event triggered the largest aerial evacuation in history? (24-25)
The fall of Cambodia and South Vietnam to Communist forces. (During Operations Babylift, New Life, Frequent Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
What 1991 humanitarian airlift provided blankets,tents and food to displaced Kurds in northern Iraq following the Persian Gulf War? (254)
Operation Provide Comfort.
What 1991 humanitarian airlift followed a typhoonin Bangladesh? (25)
Operation Sea Angel.
What humanitarian airlift in 1992 and 1993 providedfood, medicine and cargo to the republics of the former Soviet Union? (25)
Operation Provide Hope.
A 1994 humanitarian airlift carried 3,600 tons ofrelief supplies to refugees in what country in war-torn central Africa? (25)
Rwanda.
What 1983 operation rescued hundreds of US citizens attending medical school in Grenada after a coup? (25)
Operation Urgent Fury.
During Operation Urgent Fury, which aircraft proved their worth repeatedly, showing more versatility and accuracy than naval bombardment and land artillery? (25)
AC-130 gunships.
Several Air Force enlisted personnel received special praise for their efforts in Operation Urgent Fury. What was Sgt Charles H. Tisby noted for? (25)
He was a loadmaster who saved the life of a paratrooper in his aircraft by hauling him back into the plane after his static line fouled.
By the mid-1980s, what country (led by MuammarQadhafi) was a leading sponsor of worldwide terrorism, financing terrorist training camps and supplying funds, weapons, logistical support and safe havens for many terrorist groups? (25)
Libya. (It also used subversion or direct military intervention against other African nations and ordered global assassinations.)
What 1984 directive established in principle a USpolicy of preemptive and retaliatory strikes against terrorists? (25)
National Security Decision Directive 138.
In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
All four branches of the US Armed Forces played arole in Operation Just Cause. Its first night was the largest nighttime airborne operation since WWII. T/F (26)
True. (On the first night, 84 aircraft dropped nearly 5,000 troops.)
What equipment was first used during a contingency by Air Force personnel in Operation Just Cause’s nighttime airdrop? (26)
Night vision goggles.
How long did it take US forces to eliminate organizedresistance during Operation Just Cause? (26)
Just six days. (It was the largest and most complex air operationsince Vietnam.)
What country did Iraq’s Saddam Hussein invadeand attempt to annex on 2 August 1990? (26)
The small, oil-rich nation of Kuwait.
In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
Within the first week of Desert Storm, the air warwas essentially won. T/F (27)
False. (It was won within the first 24 hours.)
During Desert Storm, coalition air forces poundedentrenched ground forces into surrender. What did they do during the final stages of the air war? (27)
They “tank plinked,” destroying Iraqi tanks on the ground one at a time.
From suppliers to the line crews, coalition maintainers enabled a constant surge during Desert Storm. T/F (27)
True. (Maintenance was a key to the success of the air campaign.)
Name two lesser known high-tech jobs taken on byenlisted personnel during Desert Storm. (27)
1) Collection and analysis of electronic emissions undertaken with Electronic Warfare Officers (EWO); and 2) airborne intelligence technicians.
How long did it take for Iraq to surrender once theair war ended and the land invasion began during Desert Storm? (27)
Scarcely 48 hours. (Iraq surrendered on 28 February 1991.)
In the 43-day Desert Storm war with Iraq, the AirForce was the equal partner of land and sea power for the first time in modern combat. T/F (27)
True.
The Air Force went into Desert Storm talking in coldwar terms about air superiority and sustainable casualties. What did it come out trumpeting? (27)
Air supremacy and minimal or no casualties.
On 27 September 1991, the cold war was officiallyover. What event signaled the end? (27)
Strategic bomber crews were ordered to stand down from their decades-long round-the-clock readiness for nuclear war. (It was a new world and the enlisted Airman’s role changed, too.)
When Iraqi troops defeated a Kurdish rebellion innorthern Iraq in April 1991, more than a million Kurds fled to Iran and Turkey to avoid massacres. What operation was a UN Security Council-authorized humanitarian relief effort? (27)
Operation Provide Comfort. (The US organized a combined task force.)
Operation Provide Comfort evolved into a largerphased operation for US ground troops. T/F (27)
True.
What did Operations Quick Transit I, II and III doin 1996? (27)
Airlifted displaced Kurds to safe areas in Turkey after Kurdish factions’ struggle for power led one faction to accept Iraqi backing to drive another from the city of Irbil. (7,000 refugees proceeded on to Guam for settlement in the US in Operation Pacific Haven.)
What operation succeeded Operation Provide Comfort in January 1997? (28)
Operation Northern Watch.
What operation established a no-fly zone in southern Iraq in 1992 to discourage renewed Iraqi military activity near Kuwait? (28)
Operation Southern Watch. (It officially ended on 26 August 2003.)
Operation Southern Watch supported UN SecurityCouncil Resolution 688, which required what two things? (28)
1) Protecting Shiite Muslims under aerial attack by Saddam Hussein after Operation Desert Storm; and 2) enforcing other UN sanctions against Iraq.
Why did the US launch cruise missile strikes against the Iraqi Intelligence Service Headquarters in Baghdad . , in June 1993? (28)
In retaliation for the planned assassination of former President George H. W. Bush during an April 1993 visit to Kuwait.
Operation Vigilant Warrior brought thousands ofadditional US armed forces personnel into the Iraqi theater in response to what Iraqi action? (28)
Iraqi troops massing at the Kuwaiti border in October 1994.
Operation Southern Watch proved the __ conceptwas sound when a composite unit arrived fully armed and began flying within 12 hours of landing. (28)
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). (Additional AEFs were deployed since to support Operation Southern Watch.)
When President Clinton expanded the SouthernWatch no-fly zone to the 33d parallel just south of Baghdad in 1997, it meant most of Iraqi airspace fell into nofly zones. T/F (28)
True. (President Clinton acted in response to Iraqi aggression against Kurdish rebels in northern Iraq.)
How did the Air Force react to the 1996 bombing ofKhobar Towers, Dhahran AB? (28)
It reorganized existing security police units into new security forces groups and squadrons trained and specialized in all aspects of force protection, including terrorist activity and deployed force security.
List the four operations the US initiated in Somaliabetween 1992 and 1994. (28-29)
1) Operation Provide Relief; 2) Operation Impressive Lift; 3) Operation Restore Hope; and 4) Operation Restore Hope II.
What 1992 operation helped relieve the suffering ofrefugees from the famine in Somalia? (28)
Operation Provide Relief
What prevented much of the relief supplies fromreaching the refugees during Operation Provide Relief? (28)
Continued civil war and clan fighting within Somalia.
In September 1992, Operation Impressive Lift airlifted hundreds of ____ forces to Somalia to increase security for relief efforts. (28)
UN. (Pakistani soldiers under the UN banner.)
What operation did President George H.W. Bushauthorize to establish order in Somalia with US troops in December 1992 so food could reach those in need? (29)
Operation Restore Hope. (The UN assumed control of the mission in March 1993 and it ended in May 1993.)
What operation was prompted by US losses in Mogadishu, Somalia in October 1993? (28)
Operation Restore Hope II. (It airlifted US troops and cargo to stabilize Mogadishu and ended in March 1994.)
When the last US forces exited Somalia without further casualties, the country was stable and the threat of famine had ended. T/F (29)
False. (Anarchy ruled in Somalia and the threat of famine remained.)
When the US decided to intervene in Haiti in 1994,how many plans did the US Atlantic Command develop for Operation Uphold Democracy? (29)
Two (one forcible-entry, the other passive-entry).
What unexpectedly changed Operation Uphold Democracy in 1994 from a military invasion to an insertion of a multinational peacekeeping force? (29)
At the last minute, former President Jimmy Carter persuaded the military leader of Haiti to relinquish control.
The successful adaptation to the last-minute change in mission in Haiti showed the __ air power offers US military and political leaders to fulfill foreign policy objectives. (29)
Flexibility.
Which UN airlift operation to Sarajevo in Bosnialasted from 1992 to 1996? (29)
Operation Provide Promise.
What factors led Yugoslavia to break into independent ethnic states? (29)
The collapse of Communism in Eastern Europe coupled with the disintegration of the Soviet Union itself
Which religions were prominent in the breakup ofYugoslavia in 1992? (29)
Roman Catholicism (in Slovenia and Croatia), Eastern Orthodoxy (in Serbia) and Islam (in Bosnia).
Serbs within Bosnia grew fearful because of theirminority status to the Muslims. What action did they take? (29)
They armed themselves and began forming their own ethnic state by seizing territory and besieging the Bosnian capital of Sarajevo.
At least 15 countries airlifted supplies to Sarajevo.Over the course of Operation Provide Promise, AFR, ANG and active duty units rotated from the US on __ - week deployments. (29)
3-week
Why did President Clinton significantly expand Operation Provide Promise? (29)
In response to continued attacks by Bosnian Serbs on Sarajevo and on the relief aircraft themselves.
What secondary mission dropped 50 tons of toys and children’s clothes and shoes over Sarajevo in December 1993? (29)
Operation Provide Santa.
Where did warring Bosnian factions sign peace accords in December 1995? (29)
At Wright-Patterson AFB, OH.
What NATO operation (1993-1995) attempted toimpose a no-fly zone over Bosnia in an effort to limit the war? (29)
Operation Deny Flight.
When did NATO score the first aerial combat victories in its 45-year history? (29)
When two US F-16s intercepted six Bosnian Serb jets and shot down four in February 1994 during Operation Deny Flight.
Operation Deny Flight stopped the Bosnian Serbattacks and effectively limited the war. T/F (30)
False.
What 1995 operation held Bosnian Serbs accountable for attacks against UN forces and Sarajevo with an incessant air campaign, striking targets throughout the country? (30)
Operation Deliberate Force.
Operation Deliberate Force marked the first campaign in aerial warfare where __ munitions outweighed conventional bombs. (30)
Precision. (The Serbs agreed to NA TO terms and the bombing stopped. Deliberate Force officially ended 21 September 1995.)
After the warring Bosnian parties signed peace accords in Paris in December 1995, what operation replaced Operation Deliberate Force in 1996? (30)
Operation Joint Endeavor. (Its mission was to implement the agreements.)
The Serbian government’s oppression of the ethnicAlbanian population in Kosovo turned to violence and mass killings, led by President __ . (30)
President Slobodan Milosevic.
What NATO operation began in March 1999 to forceSerbia to accept NA TO terms for ending the conflict and avoid the ethnic cleansing that took place in Bosnia? (30)
Operation Allied Force.
NATO hoped Milosevic would capitulate after just afew days of air strikes, but it took __ days and morethan 38,000 sorties in the air war over Serbia. (30)
78 days.
Why were NATO’s unity and determination fundamental in resolving the conflict with Milosevic? (30)
The precision and persistence of the air campaign convinced Milosevic that he couldn’t outwait NATO.
The Air Force responded quickly to the four unprecedented acts of violence in New York City, western Pennsylvania and Washington, DC on __ 2001. (30)
11 September 2001.
When did fighter aircraft begin to fly combat airpatrols over US skies in support of Operation Noble Eagle? (30)
11 September 2001, the same day as the terrorist attacks.
What percentage of pilots flying Noble Eagle missions belonged to the ANG? (30)
More than 80%.
After 11 September 2001, what operation took thefight to the nation’s enemies overseas, most notably in Afghanistan? (31)
Operation Enduring Freedom.
What was the twofold mission of Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
To I) provide humanitarian airlift to the people of Afghanistan; and 2) conduct military action to root out terrorists and their supporters there.
The government of Afghanistan, the __ , refuseddemands to hand over suspected terrorists and close terrorist training camps after 11 September 2001. (31)
Taliban.
Aircraft from which three countries began a sustained campaign against terrorist targets during Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
The US, Great Britain and France.
Along with US special operations and Afghan opposition forces, what weapons did air power employ to break the Taliban’s will and capacity to resist in Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
Precision weapons.
Set in southeastern Afghanistan on 4 March 2002,the Pentagon called it Operation Anaconda. What did the men who fought there call it? (31)
The Battle of Robert’s Ridge. (The press called it the Battle at Shah-I-Kot Mountain.)
0peration Anaconda was one of the most intensesmall-unit firefights of the war against terrorism. USforces distinguished themselves with conspicuous bravery. Which forces secured the mountaintop and inflicted serious losses on al-Qaeda? (31)
Air Force, Army and Navy special operators. (Seven US servicemen were killed.)
0n 17 March 2003, what ultimatum did PresidentGeorge W. Bush give Saddam Hussein and his sons? (31)
Leave Iraq within 48 hours or face conflict. (It was rejected.)
What operation officially began on 20 March 2003and ended on 1 May 2003? (31)
Operation Iraqi Freedom.
How many troops deployed to the Gulf region forOperation Iraqi Freedom, forming a coalition of multinational troops? (31)
More than 300,000.
More cruise missiles were fired on the first day ofOperation Iraqi Freedom than during the entire firstGulf War. T/F (31)
True. (Between 300 and 400 cruise missiles were fired. The second day called for launching as many again.)
The battle plan for Operation Iraqi Freedom wasbased on what concept? (31)
“Shock and Awe,” destroying the enemy’s will to fight rather than physically destroying its military force.
What slowed the coalition’s advance during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Heavy sand storms. (But soldiers came within 50 miles of Baghdad by 24 March and US tanks rumbled through downtown Baghdad on 7 April.)
Who was SSgt Scott Sather? (32)
A combat controller who became the first Airman killed in Operation Iraqi Freedom. (He died on 8 April 2003 and received seven medals during his career, including the Bronze Star.)
What town did British forces take, the key to delivering humanitarian aid during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Basra.
When did US commanders declare that Saddam’sregime no longer controlled Baghdad? (32)
9 April 2003.
Who was the first person on the 55 most wantedleaders list issued by the coalition during Operation Iraqi Freedom to surrender? (32)
Iraq’s science advisor.
On 2 May 2003, President Bush announced victoryin Iraq while aboard the aircraft carrier __ . (32)
USS Abraham Lincoln.
What was President Bush’s 2 May 2003 declarationof victory in Iraq based on? (32)
An assessment given three days prior by General Tommy Franks, the top US military commander in the Gulf.
What operation signaled the start of the War in Afghanistan? (33)
Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF). (It began on 7 October 2001 and is now the US’ longest-running war.)
During Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF), Airmenplayed a key role in the attempt to drive out the__ .(32)
Taliban. (Airmen also established forward assault landing strips, directed close air support strikes and recovered downed and wounded personnel.)
Which TSgt received the Silver Star for his actionsafter his patrol was ambushed in Afghanistan? (32)
TSgt Kevin Whalen. (He returned enemy fire to allow his team to seek cover, then called in close air support despite being wounded. He insisted that all other wounded be evacuated first so he could maintain control of close air support.)
What event on 25 June 1996 drove the Air Force toemphasize combat preparation as part of BMT? (32)
The Khobar Towers bombing. (A deployment phase called the BEAST was added to BMT to simulate the deployed environment.)
In addition to tackling the BEAST and massive obstacle courses, which additional BMT concepts help prepare Airmen for combat? (33)
Defending and protecting their base of operations, directing search and recovery operations, basic self-aid and buddy care, and leadership training. (Airmen are more prepared in 2012 for deployment, as a result of lessons learned from Khobar Towers.)
0n 11 March 2004 in Afghanistan, SMSgt RamonColon-Lopez overran enemy positions and suppressed enemy fire after his team’s helicopter took sustained small-arms fire and was seriously damaged as it landed. He and his team succeeded in driving the enemy away. Which medal did Colon-Lopez receive for his actions? (33)
The Combat Action Medal. (Colon-Lopez was one of the first six recipients of the medal and also received the Bronze Star with Valor.)
Due to budget constraints, the Air Force reduced the active duty force in 2007 to __ percent of its size at the end of the Gulf War in 1991. (33)
64 percent. (In 2008, the number of active duty personnel shrank from 360,000 to 330,000.)
Name one of the three combat controllers who distinguished themselves during a January 2007 battle against about 800 heavily-entrenched Iraqi insurgents. (33)
Any one of the following: TSgt Bryan Patton; SSgt David Orvosh; or SSgt Ryan Wallace.
Which command did the Air Force establish in October 2008 to focus on nuclear assets? (33)
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
What caused the Air Force to establish Air ForceGlobal Strike Command (AFGSC)? (33)
Two incidents involving mishandling of nuclear weapons. (Due to the incidents and the Air Force’s declining nuclear focus and performance, both SECAF Michael Wynne and Chief of Staff: US Air Force (CSAF) General T. Michael Moseley resigned.)
When did the US complete its withdrawal of militarytroops from Iraq? (33)
18 December 2011. (This fulfilled the 2008 bilateral agreement signed, by President Bush, that mandated troop withdrawal from Iraqi territory by the end of201 l.)
What was the stated goal of the US invasion of Afghanistan on 7 October 2001? (34)
Dismantling the al Qaeda terrorist organization and ending its use of Afghanistan a~ a base.
Which is the US’ longest-running war? (34)
The War in Afghanistan.
On 21 May 2012, leaders of the NATO-membercountries approved President Obama’s exit strategy for Afghanistan. What does this exit strategy call for? (34)
An end to combat operations in Afghanistan in 2013 and withdrawal of the US-led international military force by the end of 2014.
Since the start of wartime operations in Iraq andAfghanistan, how many Civil Engineering ExplosiveOrdnance Disposal (EOD) Airmen have died while protecting US and coalition forces, as well as civilians, from IEDs? (34)
- (In addition to those killed in action, 140 EOD Airmen were seriously wounded during combat operations.)
After 100 years, air power has evolved and its applications and effectiveness have improved with each conflict. During WWI, air power played a minor role. What role did it play in Kosovo? (34)
The only role.
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Historically, who comprised about 80 percent ofAmerica’s air forces? (18)
Enlisted Airmen.
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When WWI began in Europe in August 1914, the 1st Aero Squadron mustered 12 officers, 54 enlisted men and six aircraft. How many did it have by the end of 1915?(18)
44 officers, 224 enlisted men and 23 airplanes.
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By 1916, a second aero squadron was added for duty in the Philippines. How many total squadrons of 12 aircraft were planned? (18)
24 squadrons - seven with the regular army, 12 with the National Guard and five for coastal defense. (Also balloon units for the field and coast artillery.)
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How many squadrons were fully equipped, mannedand organized when the US declared war on Germany on 6 April 1917? (18)
Only one, the 1st Aero Squadron.
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Traditionally, commissioned officers served as pilotsbefore WWI. What types of auxiliary capacities did trained enlisted personnel fill? (18)
Supply, construction, photo reconnaissance, radio, mechanics, armament specialists, welders, riggers, sail makers, etc. (Mechanics were needed most.)
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At first, service factories were used as training sites. By the end of 1917, the Aviation Section trained mechanics and others at special schools and technical institutions. Where were the two largest located? (18)
In St. Paul, MN and at Kelly Field, TX.
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General HQ (GHQ) Air Force waited until WWII began before starting a massive expansion program. T/F (18)
False. (The expansion program began even before WWII broke out.)
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In 1938, the total force included fewer than 20,000 enlisted Airmen. By March 1944, air force manpower reached its high point (2,104,405 enlisted men and women). What law did Congress pass in 1940? (18)
The first peacetime conscription law in US history.
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Even though training centers expanded and multiplied from 1939 to 1941, what helped meet the demand for training? (19)
Private schools.
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What was the estimated ratio of support personnel to planes during WWII? (19)
70 men to one plane.
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Women served in the Army Air Force during WWIIthrough what program? (19)
The Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC), created in May 1942 and later renamed the Women’s Army Corps (WAC).
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What was the top priority for assignment of Women’s Army Auxiliary Corps (WAAC) during WWII? (19)
Serving at aircraft warning service stations. (They served in many capacities and demand for them soon far exceeded the numbers available.)
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What led to the integration of the Air Force? (19)
On 11May1949, Air Force Letter 35.3 mandated that black Airmen be screened for reassignment to formerly all-white units according to their qualifications. (Within a year, virtually the entire Air Force was integrated with few incidents.)
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When did the Third Reich surrender? (19)
In May 1945. (Following the 1944 invasion of Europe and the Allied ground forces’ advance toward Berlin.)
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Despite low-level fire bombing and destruction ofJapanese cities throughout spring and summer of 1945, Japan continued to resist What did US commanders realize was the only way to force its unconditional surrender? (19)
An American invasion of the Japanese islands and the subjugation of the Japanese.
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Enola Gay dropped the first nuclear bomb on whatJapanese city? (20)
Hiroshima. (6 August 1945.)
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Three days after Hiroshima, ____ dropped the second nuclear bomb on Nagasaki, Japan. (20)
Rock’s Car.
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The Soviet Union fought against Hitler with theWestern allies. Why didn’t this alliance survive after the war? (20)
Because of ideological differences between capitalist democracies and Communism.
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Who were the Big Three who met in 1945 to discuss the postwar division of Europe? (20)
British Prime Minister Winston Churchill, Soviet Premier Josef Stalin and US President Franklin D. Roosevelt.
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What did the meeting of the Big Three in 1945 laythe foundation for? (20)
The UN.
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What UN plan did the Soviet Union veto in 1946,leading to almost five decades of cold war? (20)
The plan to eliminate nuclear weapons, using inspectors to ensure no country made atomic bombs and supervise the dismantling of existing weapons.
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How did the allies respond when the Soviet Unionclosed off all surface access to Berlin, Germany in June 1948? (20)
They “built” an air bridge to supply Berlin rather than forcing the blockade and risking World War III.
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What was air power’s most decisive contribution tothe cold war? (20)
The Berlin airlift.
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Who led the 15-month Berlin airlift, bringing in more than 2.33 million tons of supplies on 277,569 flights? (20)
Major General William Tunner. (He also led the Hump airlift over the Himalayan mountains to supply China during WWII.)
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Of all the enlisted functions, which was perhaps most critical to the success of the Berlin airlift? (20)
Maintenance.
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The Soviets capitulated and dismantled the surfaceblockade of Berlin without a bomb being dropped. What did this victory lay the foundation for? (20)
NATO.
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The Korean War lasted from 1950 to __ . (21)
1953
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How did the Korean War begin? (21)
With a surprise invasion of South Korea by North Korea on 25 June 1950.
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By 1950, where was most US ground and air strength located in the Pacific? (21)
In Japan. (But they didn’t have the range to intercede in Korea from Japan.)
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Where did the first aerial combat between the USand North Korea take place on 27 June 1950? (21)
Over Kimpo.
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Enlisted personnel served as gunners aboard the B-26 and B-29 aircraft during the Korean War. Name the NCO who shot down a North Korean YaK-3, the first such victory recorded during the war. (21)
SSgt Nyle S. Mickley.
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What turned a stalled North Korean offensive into adisorganized retreat back to the north in September1950? (21)
US forces landed in South Korea and pursued the beaten army north of the 38th parallel.
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Give three examples of missions performed by B-29s that hadn’t been considered before the Korean War. (21)
1) Interdiction; 2) battlefield support;3) air superiority (counter-airfield).
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On 9 November 1950, Cpl Harry LaVene (a gunner)scored the first B-29 victory over a jet by downing a(n) __ .(21)
MiG-15. (The first of 27 MiGs shot down by B-29 gunners during the Korean War.)
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Name the NCO who shot down two MiGs on 12 April 1951, a feat unmatched by any other gunner. (21)
Sgt Billie Beach.
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In 1959, Fidel Castro overthrew the dictator inand instituted a socialist dictatorship. (21)
Cuba. (Hundreds of thousands of Cubans fled, many to the US.)
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The CIA planned the 1961 invasion of Cuba at theBay of Pigs in hopes that the Cuban people would overthrow Castro. Who were used as troops? (21-22)
Cuban exiles. (They suffered a crushing defeat.)
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In 1962, the Soviets and Cuba began to build what in Cuba?(22)
Intermediate- and medium-range ballistic missile complexes (which would be able to employ nuclear-armed missiles with a range ofup to 5,000 miles).
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How was Soviet construction of missile complexes in Cuba confirmed? (22)
Through Air Force reconnaissance flights (first with highaltitude U-2 aircraft, followed by low-level RF-lOls and RB- 66s).
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While Strategic Air Command (SAC) and TacticalAir Command (TAC) geared up for a possible invasion of Cuba and war, what did President Kennedy do to deal with the Cuban Missile Crisis? (22)
He imposed a naval blockade to prevent any more materiel from reaching Cuba and negotiated with Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev to remove the missiles.
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When Cuban air defenses shot down a U-2 piloted by Maj Rudolf Anderson, what did the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) recommend? (22)
An immediate air strike against Cuba. (But President Kennedy decided to wait.)
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The US agreed not to invade Cuba in exchange forremoval of Soviet missiles from the island. What did the US also secretly agree to do? (22)
Remove US missiles from Turkey.
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The Cuban missile crisis brought the world dangerously close to nuclear war, but the strategic and tactical power of the US Air Force (coupled with the will and ability to use it) helped deter it. T/F (22)
True.
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In the 1950s, US involvement in Vietnam began aswhat kind of operation? (22)
A cold war operation to contain Communism.
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What US President first authorized American intervention in Vietnam? (22)
President Harry S. Truman in 1950.
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What aid did the US first give to Vietnam between1950 to 1953? (22-23)
Eight C-47 transports, the US Military Assistance Advisory Group (MAAG) and enlisted technicians to handle supply and aircraft maintenance.
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What 1953 Viet Minh action (under Ho Chi Minh’sdirection) led President Eisenhower to send C-119 transports to the area? (23)
The Viet Minh major offensive advanced into Laos and menaced Thailand. (In 1954, 300 Airmen were sent to service aircraft along with additional cargo planes.)
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What was the first sustained bombing campaign ofthe war against North Vietnam? (23)
Rolling Thunder from 1965 to 1968. (The earlier Operation Flaming Dart was a series of strikes.)
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Airmen performed a variety of duties as the war inVietnam expanded, ranging from support to combat and rescue. Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) personnel built revetments and facilities. What did REDHORSE teams provide? (23)
Long-range civil engineer services.
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As guerilla attacks continued, air base defense inVietnam became a monumental undertaking performed almost exclusively by Air Force ____ squadrons. (23)
Security police.
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Name the SSgt of the 3d Security Police Squadronwho earned a Silver Star for heroics while helping defend Bien Hoa Air Base in Vietnam during the North Vietnamese Tet Offensive of 1968. (23)
SSgt William Piazza.
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American presidents wanted the Vietnam conflict tobe fought and resolved by the Vietnamese with the US in a(n) “ __ “role only. (24)
“Advisory.”
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American responsibility in the Vietnam conflict became primarily for combat operations after what incident, followed by the Senate resolution in 1964? (24)
The GulfofTonkin incident.
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In 1969, President Nixon announced that ending UScombat in Southeast Asia was a primary goal. What did he charge the SecDef with as a top priority? (24)
The Vietnamization of the war.
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Enlisted Airmen trained South Vietnamese operational and training crews as Vietnam’s air force grew to become the __ largest in the world. (24)
Fourth.
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In 1972, Communist forces crossed the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ), taking advantage of reduced US ground presence. How did President Nixon respond? (24)
Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
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What air operation convinced the North Vietnameseto finally resume negotiations? (24)
Operation Linebacker II - 11 days of intensive bombing of Vietnamese cities by B-52s.
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When was a cease-fire agreement hammered outwith the North Vietnamese? (24)
By 28 January 1973.
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Although there was no victory and no end tofighting, the US withdrew from Vietnam. When did the last US troops leave the country? (24)
29 March 1973. (The military draft ended on 27 January 1973.)
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How long after the first cease-fire were North andSouth Vietnam officially unified under a Communist regime? (24)
After only three years (2 July 1976).
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One of the first known uses of aircraft to render assistance was dropping food to ____ flood victimsin 1919. (24)
Rio Grande. (Many early domestic humanitarian flights were flown in response to winter emergencies.)
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Name two humanitarian missions to foreign nationsflown by Army aircraft before the independent Air Force was established. (24)
Any two of the following: 1) delivering medical supplies to earthquake victims in Chile in 1939; 2) dropping diphtheria vaccine to prevent a shipboard epidemic on a British aircraft carrier in 1943; 3) dropping food to starving French citizens in 1944; and 4) delivering food to the Netherlands in Operation Chowhound in 1945.
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What operations in 1956 and 1957 airlifted morethan 10,000 Hungarian refugees to the US for asylum after Soviet forces crushed an anticommunist uprising in Hungary? (24)
Operations Safe Haven I and II.
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What month-long airlift delivered more than 1,000tons of material to Chile in 1960 following earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, avalanches and tidal waves? (24)
The Amigos Airlift.
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What 1975 event triggered the largest aerial evacuation in history? (24-25)
The fall of Cambodia and South Vietnam to Communist forces. (During Operations Babylift, New Life, Frequent Wind and New Arrivals, more than 50,000 refugees were airlifted to the US and units moved 5,000 relief workers and more than 8,500 tons of supplies.)
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What 1991 humanitarian airlift provided blankets,tents and food to displaced Kurds in northern Iraq following the Persian Gulf War? (254)
Operation Provide Comfort.
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What 1991 humanitarian airlift followed a typhoonin Bangladesh? (25)
Operation Sea Angel.
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What humanitarian airlift in 1992 and 1993 providedfood, medicine and cargo to the republics of the former Soviet Union? (25)
Operation Provide Hope.
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A 1994 humanitarian airlift carried 3,600 tons ofrelief supplies to refugees in what country in war-torn central Africa? (25)
Rwanda.
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What 1983 operation rescued hundreds of US citizens attending medical school in Grenada after a coup? (25)
Operation Urgent Fury.
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During Operation Urgent Fury, which aircraft proved their worth repeatedly, showing more versatility and accuracy than naval bombardment and land artillery? (25)
AC-130 gunships.
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Several Air Force enlisted personnel received special praise for their efforts in Operation Urgent Fury. What was Sgt Charles H. Tisby noted for? (25)
He was a loadmaster who saved the life of a paratrooper in his aircraft by hauling him back into the plane after his static line fouled.
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By the mid-1980s, what country (led by MuammarQadhafi) was a leading sponsor of worldwide terrorism, financing terrorist training camps and supplying funds, weapons, logistical support and safe havens for many terrorist groups? (25)
Libya. (It also used subversion or direct military intervention against other African nations and ordered global assassinations.)
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What 1984 directive established in principle a USpolicy of preemptive and retaliatory strikes against terrorists? (25)
National Security Decision Directive 138.
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In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
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The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
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What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
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The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
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When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
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All four branches of the US Armed Forces played arole in Operation Just Cause. Its first night was the largest nighttime airborne operation since WWII. T/F (26)
True. (On the first night, 84 aircraft dropped nearly 5,000 troops.)
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What equipment was first used during a contingency by Air Force personnel in Operation Just Cause’s nighttime airdrop? (26)
Night vision goggles.
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How long did it take US forces to eliminate organizedresistance during Operation Just Cause? (26)
Just six days. (It was the largest and most complex air operationsince Vietnam.)
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What country did Iraq’s Saddam Hussein invadeand attempt to annex on 2 August 1990? (26)
The small, oil-rich nation of Kuwait.
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In 1990, Iraq (with the fourth largest army in theworld and a program to develop nuclear weapons) was poised at what country’s doorstep? (26)
Saudi Arabia. (If the Saudis also fell, Iraq would control 50% of the world’s oil.)
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The US sought and received UN sanction to actagainst Iraq. How many nations joined us in Operation Desert Shield? (26)
27.
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What was Operation Desert Shield’s aim? (26)
The massive military buildup in Saudi Arabia near Iraq’s border aimed to deter Saddam Hussein’s aggression against the Saudis and prepare for a counterinvasion, if necessary.
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The defensive deployment for Operation DesertShield was impressive. A month into the crisis, how many Allied aircraft were in theater and combat ready? (26)
1,220.
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When did Operation Desert Storm begin? (26)
15 January 1991. (After Saddam Hussein missed the final deadline to withdraw from Kuwait.)
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Within the first week of Desert Storm, the air warwas essentially won. T/F (27)
False. (It was won within the first 24 hours.)
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During Desert Storm, coalition air forces poundedentrenched ground forces into surrender. What did they do during the final stages of the air war? (27)
They “tank plinked,” destroying Iraqi tanks on the ground one at a time.
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From suppliers to the line crews, coalition maintainers enabled a constant surge during Desert Storm. T/F (27)
True. (Maintenance was a key to the success of the air campaign.)
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Name two lesser known high-tech jobs taken on byenlisted personnel during Desert Storm. (27)
1) Collection and analysis of electronic emissions undertaken with Electronic Warfare Officers (EWO); and 2) airborne intelligence technicians.
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How long did it take for Iraq to surrender once theair war ended and the land invasion began during Desert Storm? (27)
Scarcely 48 hours. (Iraq surrendered on 28 February 1991.)
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In the 43-day Desert Storm war with Iraq, the AirForce was the equal partner of land and sea power for the first time in modern combat. T/F (27)
True.
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The Air Force went into Desert Storm talking in coldwar terms about air superiority and sustainable casualties. What did it come out trumpeting? (27)
Air supremacy and minimal or no casualties.
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On 27 September 1991, the cold war was officiallyover. What event signaled the end? (27)
Strategic bomber crews were ordered to stand down from their decades-long round-the-clock readiness for nuclear war. (It was a new world and the enlisted Airman’s role changed, too.)
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When Iraqi troops defeated a Kurdish rebellion innorthern Iraq in April 1991, more than a million Kurds fled to Iran and Turkey to avoid massacres. What operation was a UN Security Council-authorized humanitarian relief effort? (27)
Operation Provide Comfort. (The US organized a combined task force.)
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Operation Provide Comfort evolved into a largerphased operation for US ground troops. T/F (27)
True.
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What did Operations Quick Transit I, II and III doin 1996? (27)
Airlifted displaced Kurds to safe areas in Turkey after Kurdish factions’ struggle for power led one faction to accept Iraqi backing to drive another from the city of Irbil. (7,000 refugees proceeded on to Guam for settlement in the US in Operation Pacific Haven.)
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What operation succeeded Operation Provide Comfort in January 1997? (28)
Operation Northern Watch.
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What operation established a no-fly zone in southern Iraq in 1992 to discourage renewed Iraqi military activity near Kuwait? (28)
Operation Southern Watch. (It officially ended on 26 August 2003.)
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Operation Southern Watch supported UN SecurityCouncil Resolution 688, which required what two things? (28)
1) Protecting Shiite Muslims under aerial attack by Saddam Hussein after Operation Desert Storm; and 2) enforcing other UN sanctions against Iraq.
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Why did the US launch cruise missile strikes against the Iraqi Intelligence Service Headquarters in Baghdad . , in June 1993? (28)
In retaliation for the planned assassination of former President George H. W. Bush during an April 1993 visit to Kuwait.
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Operation Vigilant Warrior brought thousands ofadditional US armed forces personnel into the Iraqi theater in response to what Iraqi action? (28)
Iraqi troops massing at the Kuwaiti border in October 1994.
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Operation Southern Watch proved the __ conceptwas sound when a composite unit arrived fully armed and began flying within 12 hours of landing. (28)
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). (Additional AEFs were deployed since to support Operation Southern Watch.)
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When President Clinton expanded the SouthernWatch no-fly zone to the 33d parallel just south of Baghdad in 1997, it meant most of Iraqi airspace fell into nofly zones. T/F (28)
True. (President Clinton acted in response to Iraqi aggression against Kurdish rebels in northern Iraq.)
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How did the Air Force react to the 1996 bombing ofKhobar Towers, Dhahran AB? (28)
It reorganized existing security police units into new security forces groups and squadrons trained and specialized in all aspects of force protection, including terrorist activity and deployed force security.
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List the four operations the US initiated in Somaliabetween 1992 and 1994. (28-29)
1) Operation Provide Relief; 2) Operation Impressive Lift; 3) Operation Restore Hope; and 4) Operation Restore Hope II.
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What 1992 operation helped relieve the suffering ofrefugees from the famine in Somalia? (28)
Operation Provide Relief
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What prevented much of the relief supplies fromreaching the refugees during Operation Provide Relief? (28)
Continued civil war and clan fighting within Somalia.
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In September 1992, Operation Impressive Lift airlifted hundreds of ____ forces to Somalia to increase security for relief efforts. (28)
UN. (Pakistani soldiers under the UN banner.)
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What operation did President George H.W. Bushauthorize to establish order in Somalia with US troops in December 1992 so food could reach those in need? (29)
Operation Restore Hope. (The UN assumed control of the mission in March 1993 and it ended in May 1993.)
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What operation was prompted by US losses in Mogadishu, Somalia in October 1993? (28)
Operation Restore Hope II. (It airlifted US troops and cargo to stabilize Mogadishu and ended in March 1994.)
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When the last US forces exited Somalia without further casualties, the country was stable and the threat of famine had ended. T/F (29)
False. (Anarchy ruled in Somalia and the threat of famine remained.)
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When the US decided to intervene in Haiti in 1994,how many plans did the US Atlantic Command develop for Operation Uphold Democracy? (29)
Two (one forcible-entry, the other passive-entry).
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What unexpectedly changed Operation Uphold Democracy in 1994 from a military invasion to an insertion of a multinational peacekeeping force? (29)
At the last minute, former President Jimmy Carter persuaded the military leader of Haiti to relinquish control.
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The successful adaptation to the last-minute change in mission in Haiti showed the __ air power offers US military and political leaders to fulfill foreign policy objectives. (29)
Flexibility.
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Which UN airlift operation to Sarajevo in Bosnialasted from 1992 to 1996? (29)
Operation Provide Promise.
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What factors led Yugoslavia to break into independent ethnic states? (29)
The collapse of Communism in Eastern Europe coupled with the disintegration of the Soviet Union itself
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Which religions were prominent in the breakup ofYugoslavia in 1992? (29)
Roman Catholicism (in Slovenia and Croatia), Eastern Orthodoxy (in Serbia) and Islam (in Bosnia).
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Serbs within Bosnia grew fearful because of theirminority status to the Muslims. What action did they take? (29)
They armed themselves and began forming their own ethnic state by seizing territory and besieging the Bosnian capital of Sarajevo.
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At least 15 countries airlifted supplies to Sarajevo.Over the course of Operation Provide Promise, AFR, ANG and active duty units rotated from the US on __ - week deployments. (29)
3-week
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Why did President Clinton significantly expand Operation Provide Promise? (29)
In response to continued attacks by Bosnian Serbs on Sarajevo and on the relief aircraft themselves.
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What secondary mission dropped 50 tons of toys and children’s clothes and shoes over Sarajevo in December 1993? (29)
Operation Provide Santa.
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Where did warring Bosnian factions sign peace accords in December 1995? (29)
At Wright-Patterson AFB, OH.
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What NATO operation (1993-1995) attempted toimpose a no-fly zone over Bosnia in an effort to limit the war? (29)
Operation Deny Flight.
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When did NATO score the first aerial combat victories in its 45-year history? (29)
When two US F-16s intercepted six Bosnian Serb jets and shot down four in February 1994 during Operation Deny Flight.
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Operation Deny Flight stopped the Bosnian Serbattacks and effectively limited the war. T/F (30)
False.
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What 1995 operation held Bosnian Serbs accountable for attacks against UN forces and Sarajevo with an incessant air campaign, striking targets throughout the country? (30)
Operation Deliberate Force.
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Operation Deliberate Force marked the first campaign in aerial warfare where __ munitions outweighed conventional bombs. (30)
Precision. (The Serbs agreed to NA TO terms and the bombing stopped. Deliberate Force officially ended 21 September 1995.)
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After the warring Bosnian parties signed peace accords in Paris in December 1995, what operation replaced Operation Deliberate Force in 1996? (30)
Operation Joint Endeavor. (Its mission was to implement the agreements.)
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The Serbian government’s oppression of the ethnicAlbanian population in Kosovo turned to violence and mass killings, led by President __ . (30)
President Slobodan Milosevic.
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What NATO operation began in March 1999 to forceSerbia to accept NA TO terms for ending the conflict and avoid the ethnic cleansing that took place in Bosnia? (30)
Operation Allied Force.
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NATO hoped Milosevic would capitulate after just afew days of air strikes, but it took __ days and morethan 38,000 sorties in the air war over Serbia. (30)
78 days.
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Why were NATO’s unity and determination fundamental in resolving the conflict with Milosevic? (30)
The precision and persistence of the air campaign convinced Milosevic that he couldn’t outwait NATO.
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The Air Force responded quickly to the four unprecedented acts of violence in New York City, western Pennsylvania and Washington, DC on __ 2001. (30)
11 September 2001.
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When did fighter aircraft begin to fly combat airpatrols over US skies in support of Operation Noble Eagle? (30)
11 September 2001, the same day as the terrorist attacks.
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What percentage of pilots flying Noble Eagle missions belonged to the ANG? (30)
More than 80%.
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After 11 September 2001, what operation took thefight to the nation’s enemies overseas, most notably in Afghanistan? (31)
Operation Enduring Freedom.
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What was the twofold mission of Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
To I) provide humanitarian airlift to the people of Afghanistan; and 2) conduct military action to root out terrorists and their supporters there.
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The government of Afghanistan, the __ , refuseddemands to hand over suspected terrorists and close terrorist training camps after 11 September 2001. (31)
Taliban.
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Aircraft from which three countries began a sustained campaign against terrorist targets during Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
The US, Great Britain and France.
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Along with US special operations and Afghan opposition forces, what weapons did air power employ to break the Taliban’s will and capacity to resist in Operation Enduring Freedom? (31)
Precision weapons.
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Set in southeastern Afghanistan on 4 March 2002,the Pentagon called it Operation Anaconda. What did the men who fought there call it? (31)
The Battle of Robert’s Ridge. (The press called it the Battle at Shah-I-Kot Mountain.)
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0peration Anaconda was one of the most intensesmall-unit firefights of the war against terrorism. USforces distinguished themselves with conspicuous bravery. Which forces secured the mountaintop and inflicted serious losses on al-Qaeda? (31)
Air Force, Army and Navy special operators. (Seven US servicemen were killed.)
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0n 17 March 2003, what ultimatum did PresidentGeorge W. Bush give Saddam Hussein and his sons? (31)
Leave Iraq within 48 hours or face conflict. (It was rejected.)
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What operation officially began on 20 March 2003and ended on 1 May 2003? (31)
Operation Iraqi Freedom.
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How many troops deployed to the Gulf region forOperation Iraqi Freedom, forming a coalition of multinational troops? (31)
More than 300,000.
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More cruise missiles were fired on the first day ofOperation Iraqi Freedom than during the entire firstGulf War. T/F (31)
True. (Between 300 and 400 cruise missiles were fired. The second day called for launching as many again.)
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The battle plan for Operation Iraqi Freedom wasbased on what concept? (31)
“Shock and Awe,” destroying the enemy’s will to fight rather than physically destroying its military force.
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What slowed the coalition’s advance during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Heavy sand storms. (But soldiers came within 50 miles of Baghdad by 24 March and US tanks rumbled through downtown Baghdad on 7 April.)
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Who was SSgt Scott Sather? (32)
A combat controller who became the first Airman killed in Operation Iraqi Freedom. (He died on 8 April 2003 and received seven medals during his career, including the Bronze Star.)
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What town did British forces take, the key to delivering humanitarian aid during Operation Iraqi Freedom? (32)
Basra.
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When did US commanders declare that Saddam’sregime no longer controlled Baghdad? (32)
9 April 2003.
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Who was the first person on the 55 most wantedleaders list issued by the coalition during Operation Iraqi Freedom to surrender? (32)
Iraq’s science advisor.
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On 2 May 2003, President Bush announced victoryin Iraq while aboard the aircraft carrier __ . (32)
USS Abraham Lincoln.
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What was President Bush’s 2 May 2003 declarationof victory in Iraq based on? (32)
An assessment given three days prior by General Tommy Franks, the top US military commander in the Gulf.
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What operation signaled the start of the War in Afghanistan? (33)
Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF). (It began on 7 October 2001 and is now the US’ longest-running war.)
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During Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF), Airmenplayed a key role in the attempt to drive out the__ .(32)
Taliban. (Airmen also established forward assault landing strips, directed close air support strikes and recovered downed and wounded personnel.)
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Which TSgt received the Silver Star for his actionsafter his patrol was ambushed in Afghanistan? (32)
TSgt Kevin Whalen. (He returned enemy fire to allow his team to seek cover, then called in close air support despite being wounded. He insisted that all other wounded be evacuated first so he could maintain control of close air support.)
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What event on 25 June 1996 drove the Air Force toemphasize combat preparation as part of BMT? (32)
The Khobar Towers bombing. (A deployment phase called the BEAST was added to BMT to simulate the deployed environment.)
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In addition to tackling the BEAST and massive obstacle courses, which additional BMT concepts help prepare Airmen for combat? (33)
Defending and protecting their base of operations, directing search and recovery operations, basic self-aid and buddy care, and leadership training. (Airmen are more prepared in 2012 for deployment, as a result of lessons learned from Khobar Towers.)
chapter 1
0n 11 March 2004 in Afghanistan, SMSgt RamonColon-Lopez overran enemy positions and suppressed enemy fire after his team’s helicopter took sustained small-arms fire and was seriously damaged as it landed. He and his team succeeded in driving the enemy away. Which medal did Colon-Lopez receive for his actions? (33)
The Combat Action Medal. (Colon-Lopez was one of the first six recipients of the medal and also received the Bronze Star with Valor.)
chapter 1
Due to budget constraints, the Air Force reduced the active duty force in 2007 to __ percent of its size at the end of the Gulf War in 1991. (33)
64 percent. (In 2008, the number of active duty personnel shrank from 360,000 to 330,000.)
chapter 1
Name one of the three combat controllers who distinguished themselves during a January 2007 battle against about 800 heavily-entrenched Iraqi insurgents. (33)
Any one of the following: TSgt Bryan Patton; SSgt David Orvosh; or SSgt Ryan Wallace.
chapter 1
Which command did the Air Force establish in October 2008 to focus on nuclear assets? (33)
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
chapter 1
What caused the Air Force to establish Air ForceGlobal Strike Command (AFGSC)? (33)
Two incidents involving mishandling of nuclear weapons. (Due to the incidents and the Air Force’s declining nuclear focus and performance, both SECAF Michael Wynne and Chief of Staff: US Air Force (CSAF) General T. Michael Moseley resigned.)
chapter 1
When did the US complete its withdrawal of militarytroops from Iraq? (33)
18 December 2011. (This fulfilled the 2008 bilateral agreement signed, by President Bush, that mandated troop withdrawal from Iraqi territory by the end of201 l.)
chapter 1
What was the stated goal of the US invasion of Afghanistan on 7 October 2001? (34)
Dismantling the al Qaeda terrorist organization and ending its use of Afghanistan a~ a base.
chapter 1
Which is the US’ longest-running war? (34)
The War in Afghanistan.
chapter 1
On 21 May 2012, leaders of the NATO-membercountries approved President Obama’s exit strategy for Afghanistan. What does this exit strategy call for? (34)
An end to combat operations in Afghanistan in 2013 and withdrawal of the US-led international military force by the end of 2014.
chapter 1
Since the start of wartime operations in Iraq andAfghanistan, how many Civil Engineering ExplosiveOrdnance Disposal (EOD) Airmen have died while protecting US and coalition forces, as well as civilians, from IEDs? (34)
- (In addition to those killed in action, 140 EOD Airmen were seriously wounded during combat operations.)
chapter 1
After 100 years, air power has evolved and its applications and effectiveness have improved with each conflict. During WWI, air power played a minor role. What role did it play in Kosovo? (34)
The only role.
chapter 2
In June 1907, what event began the story of today’sAir Force? (35)
Cpl Edward Ward and Pvt Joseph Barrett of the US Army Signal Corps were directed to learn to inflate and repair balloons at Fort Wood on Bedloes Island (now called Liberty Island) in New York Harbor.
chapter 2
Describe how the US military’s air arm developedfrom the Aeronautical Division, US Army Signal Corps (1907-1914), to today’s US Air Force. (35-Fig)
1) Aviation Section, US Army Signal Corps (1914-1918); 2) Division of Military Aeronautics, Secretary of War (1918);3) Army Air Service (1918-1926); 4) Army Air Corps (1926-1947) - General HQ (GHQ) Air Force (1935-1939); 5) US Army Air Forces (1941-1947), and 6) US Air Force (1947- Present)
chapter 2
When did the US Army first use balloon detachments? (35)
During the Civil War.
chapter 2
Name the freelance civilian who made the first useful balloon reconnaissance mission for the Army in 1861. (35)
John La Mountain.
chapter 2
What did Thaddeus Lowe demonstrate that a balloon could do? (35)
Effectively direct artillery fire by telegraph.
chapter 2
Whose balloon, Santiago, was used by the SignalCorps during the Spanish-American War? (35)
William Ivy Baldwin. (His wife helped build the 14,000 cubic foot balloon.)
chapter 2
Where and when did the Wright brothers first flytheir heavier-than-air craft? (36)
At Kitty Hawk, NC in 1903. (This stimulated public enthusiasm for aeronautics.)
chapter 2
Where did the War Department send Ward andBarrett, the first two enlisted men assigned to the Signal Corps’ small Aeronautical Division, on 2July1907? (36)
They reported to the Leo Stevens balloon factory in New York City to be schooled in fabric handling, manufacturing buoyant gases, and the inflation and control of balloons.
chapter 2
Who headed the new three-person-strong Aeronautical Division of the US Army Signal Corps in 1907? (36)
Capt Charles Chandler (assisted by Cpl Edward Ward and Pvt Joseph Barrett).
chapter 2
Who became the Army’s first enlisted pilot in 1912?(36)
PFC Vernon Burge.
chapter 2
In August 1908, the Wright brothers arrived at FortMyers with the US Army’s first airplane, Aeroplane No. 1. Why was this more than four years after the Wright brothers’ first successful flight? (36)
Because the government refused to accept that man had flown in a heavier-than-air machine.
chapter 2
What was the name of the Army’s first dirigible?(36)
Dirigible No. 1.
chapter 2
Who died while testing Aeroplane No. 1 at Fort Myers in September 1908? (36)
Lt Thomas E. Selfridge. (Further testing was suspended until the summer of 1909. The Signal Corps formally accepted Aeroplane No. 1 on 2 August 1909.)
chapter 2
Who was in charge of Aeroplane No. 1 when part ofthe Aeronautical Division of the US Army Signal Corps arrived at Ft Sam Houston, TX in 1910? (36)
Lt Benjamin D. Foulois. (He taught himself to fly.)
chapter 2
At Ft Sam Houston, what did Pvts Glenn Madoleand Vernon Burge, along with a civilian mechanic, build to improve the first fragile aircraft? (36)
A wheeled landing system.
chapter 2
By October 1912, the Aeronautical Division had 11aircraft, 14 flying officers and 39 enlisted mechanics. Name the mechanic who was the first enlisted person to die in a military aircraft accident. (36-37)
Cpl Frank Scott. (Scott AFB, IL is named in his honor.)
chapter 2
Name the Air Force squadron activated on 5 March 1913. (36-37)
The 1st Aero Squadron (Provisional).
chapter 2
When Congress authorized the aviation section ofthe Signal Corps on 18 July 1914, how many officers and enlisted men were authorized? (37)
60 officers and 260 enlisted men.
chapter 2
What military rating did Congress create when itauthorized the aviation section of the Signal Corps? (37)
“Aviation mechanician.” (It gave a 50% pay increase for enlisted men “instructed in the art of flying” while on flying status, limited such personnel to 40 and specified that no more than 12 enlisted men could train as aviators.)
chapter 2
In March 1916, what did President Woodrow Wilsonorder the 1st Aero Squadron to do? (37)
Help protect the border with Mexico and apprehend the rebel Pancho Villa.
chapter 2
What type of missions did the 1st Aero Squadron fly their eight Curtiss JN-3 “Jennies” on while protecting the border with Mexico? (37)
They flew reconnaissance flights and delivered mail and dispatches.
chapter 2
The fruitless Punitive Expedition against PanchoVilla was recalled after 11 months. How was this first demonstration of US air power impressive? (37)
It wasn’t impressive, but instead was deeply disappointing.
chapter 2
The hunt for Pancho Villa was unsuccessful; however, what valuable aviation lessons were learned? (37)
Lessons about aviation under field conditions, including the need for adequate maintenance and plenty of backup aircraft to rotate into service.
chapter 2
Which two countries did Americans fly with as earlyas 1915 in the European war? (37)
Great Britain and France.
chapter 2
The American-manned Lafayette Escadrille ofFrance included one of the very few enlisted Americans, and the only African American man of any nationality, to serve as a pilot. Who was he? (38)
Cpl Eugene Bullard. (He was the son of a former slave from Georgia.)
chapter 2
- Despite his record of daring and dedication, Bullard was denied the officer’s commission accorded other escadrille aviators when they were incorporated into theAmerican ____ . (38)
American Expeditionary Force (AEF).
chapter 2
Sgt Fred C. Graveline served as an observer for both V the aircraft and balloon corps during WWI. How was he honored? (38)
An observer and aerial gunner, he was one of only four enlisted personnel to receive the Distinguished Service Cross.
chapter 2
Gen Mitchell successfully proved that airplanescould sink battleships beginning in 1921. Name the bombardier who distinguished himself in 1923 with innovative tactics to score direct hits. (39)
Sgt Ulysses “Sam” Nero.
chapter 2
What did the relatively limited air activities focus onthrough the mid-1920s? (39)
Establishing records, testing equipment and garnering headlines.
chapter 2
Between World Wars, enlisted men participated in a range of experimental work. What was Sgt RalphBottriell the first person to test? (39)
The first backpack-style freefall parachute in 1919. (He earned the Distinguished Flying Cross in 1933 for service as an experimental parachute tester.)
chapter 2
Who became a popular hero as a gunner in both thePacific and Europe during WWII and was decoratedeight times for heroism, including personal recognition by Generals MacArthur, Eisenhower and Doolittle? (39-40)
Cpl John D. Foley, nicknamed “Johnny Zero.”
chapter 2
Sgt Sandy Sanchez was one of the enlisted force’smost decorated Airmen of WWII. What was his position? (41)
Gunner. (Killed during a raid against the last operational Nazi oil refinery on 15 March 1945 after flying 44 missions, his honors included the Silver Star, Soldier’s Medal and Distinguished Flying Cross.)
chapter 2
The 25th Liaison Squadron was one of the more celebrated liaison units. Which of its members earned the Air Medal and Silver Star for separate Pacific rescue exploits in early 1944? (41)
SSgt James Nichols.
chapter 2
Name the TSgt who was liberated as a POW in Germany during WWII and later became the first CMSAF in 1967. (40)
TSgt Paul Airey. (He received the first Air Force POW medal in 1988.)
chapter 2
When did the air wing of the Army accept blacks inthe service? (40)
- (They only accepted blacks when forced by Congress and wartime emergency, admitting them on a strictly segregated basis.)
chapter 2
Training and service for black enlisted Airmen andofficers were mostly confined to a single, separate base at __ ,AL.(40)
Tuskegee, AL. (All-black combat fighter units formed the famous “Tuskegee Airmen.”)
chapter 2
Name the “first woman in the Air Force.” (41)
Esther Blake. (She enlisted on the first minute of the first hour of the first day regular Air Force duty was authorized for women on 8 July 1948.)
chapter 2
The rank system for the new Air Force changed in1950 when corporal was removed from NCO status. How did the lower four ranks change in 1952? (41)
They changed from Pvt, PFC, Cpl and Sgt to AB, A3C, A2Cand Al C, respectively.
chapter 2
The separate Air Force, with its sophisticated hardware, emphasized __ rated as SSgts or TSgts. (41)
Specialists.
chapter 2
In 1956, Strategic Air Command (SAC) assigned 75enlisted radio and electronic countermeasures operators to fill a shortage of __ slots in new B-52 wings. (42)
Electronic Warfare Officer (EWO). (They served until commissioned replacements were available in 1964.)
chapter 2
Gunners flew aboard gunships, B-57s and B-52s.Name the B-52 tail gunner who shot down an enemy MiG, the first of only two confirmed shoot downs by enlisted Airmen during the Vietnam War. (42)
SSgt Samuel Turner. (The fifth overall MiG-21 kill during Linebacker II went to AlC Albert E. Moore.)
chapter 2
How did SSgt Parnell Fisher, a loadmaster, earn the Silver Star during the Vietnam War in 1966? (43)
He saved the crew and AC-47 gunship when a flare exploded prematurely, deploying its parachute in the aircraft. Fisher threw the flare out and, when the parachute caught under the cargo door, cut the lines while leaning outside the aircraft.
chapter 2
SSgt William Piazza of the 3d Security Police Squadron earned a Silver Star for defending Bien Hoa Air Base in Vietnam during what 1968 offensive? (43, 43-Fig)
The North Vietnamese Tet Offensive.
chapter 2
Who was the last US serviceman to engage Communist forces in ground combat in Southeast Asia as he helped rescue the crew of the USS Mayaguez (captured in May 1975) in the famed Son Tay POW camp raid? (42)
CMSgt Wayne Fisk.
chapter 2
Who was the first Airman killed in Operation IraqiFreedom? (43)
SSgt Scott Sather, a combat controller. (He earned seven medals, including the Bronze Star, during his career.)
chapter 2
Who became both the first Security Forces Airman(and the first female Airman killed in the line of duty) to die in Operation Iraqi Freedom when her vehicle contacted an IED while providing convoy security? (43)
AlC Elizabeth Jacobson.
chapter 2
How many enlisted Airmen received the Medal ofHonor during the Vietnam War? (44)
Three.
chapter 2
How many enlisted members have been awarded the Medal of Honor, America’s highest military decoration? (44, 44-Fig)
Seven.
chapter 2
Name the four enlisted members who received theMedal of Honor during WWII. (44-Fig)
Maynard “Snuffy” Harrison Smith (1943); Forrest Lee Vosler (1943); Archibald Mathies (1944); and Henry “Red” Eugene Erwin (1945).
chapter 2
Name the three enlisted members who received theMedal of Honor during the Vietnam Conflict. (44-Fig)
William H. Pitsenbarger (1966), Richard L. Etchberger (1968) and John Levitow (1969).
chapter 2
Who earned the first Medal of Honor awarded to anenlisted man for actions on his very first mission, when his aircraft was attacked over France? (44-45)
Sgt Maynard “Snuffy” H. Smith. (He put out intense flames, administered first aid and manned guns to ward off enemy fighter attacks.)
chapter 2
Who earned a Medal of Honor as a radio operatorwhen, despite multiple wounds, he took over as tail gunner and repaired a radio by touch to send a distress signal over Germany? (45)
TS gt Forrest L. V osler.
chapter 2
Which engineer and ball turret gunner earned a Medal of Honor posthumously for helping fly a severely damaged aircraft from Germany back to England after the pilot was wounded and the copilot killed? (45)
SSgt Archibald Mathies. (He was killed trying to land the plane rather than parachuting to safety and abandoning the injured pilot.)
chapter 2
Who earned the US Army Air Forces (USAAF) enlisted corps’ final Medal of Honor as a radio operator aboard a B-29 attacking Koriyama, Japan? (46)
SSgt Henry E. Erwin. (He cradled an ignited flare and hurled it through the copilot’s window, badly burning himself, to save the plane.)
chapter 2
What loadmaster earned the Medal of Honor when,after suffering 40 shrapnel wounds, he fell on an armed flare, dragged it to the cargo door and heaved it out after his plane was hit over Vietnam in 1969? (46)
A IC John Levi tow.
chapter 2
Name the pararescue crewmember who distinguished himself with extreme valor while responding to a call for evacuation of casualties in an ongoing firefight in Vietnam, posthumously earning an Air Force Cross that was upgraded to the Medal of Honor in 2001. (46)
AIC William Pitsenbarger.
chapter 2
Name the CMSgt whose fierce defense of a radar site in Laos in 1968 earned him a posthumous Medal of Honor (awarded in 2010). (47)
CMSgt Richard L. Etchberger.
chapter 2
Pararescue personnel were among the most decorated individuals in the Vietnam conflict. T/F (47)
True. (Of the 20 Air Force Cross recipients in the Vietnam War, 10 were pararescuemen.)
chapter 2
Name the sergeant who was credited with 51 combat rescues - the most in Air Force history. (47)
Sgt Steve Northern. (He earned two Silver Stars and a Purple Heart.)
chapter 2
In October 1993, a US UH-60 helicopter was downed in the streets of Mogadishu, Somalia. Name the TSgt who earned the Air Force Cross for treating and evacuating casualties. (48)
TSgt Timothy A. Wilkinson.
chapter 2
To date, how many enlisted members have beenawarded the Air Force Cross? (47)
26.
chapter 2
Who were the first two enlisted members to beawarded the Air Force Cross? (47-Fig)
William A. Robinson and Arthur N. Black in 1965.
chapter 2
What medic was awarded the Air Force Cross (presented posthumously) after he lost his life while saving 10 lives during a battle on Takur Ghar mountain in Afghanistan? (48)
SrA Jason D. Cunningham. (He made it possible for seven others who were killed to come home, despite being mortally wounded himself)
chapter 2
Why was TSgt John A. Chapman awarded the AirForce Cross (posthumously) for actions during a 17-hour battle atop Takur Ghar mountain in Afghanistan? (49)
For saving the lives of his entire rescue team by engaging and destroying the first enemy position and advancing to the second.
chapter 2
Who earned the Air Force Cross for extraordinaryheroism during an ambush in Afghanistan in 2008, protecting wounded soldiers while directing close air support strikes, despite his own wounds? (49)
SrA Zachary J. Rhyner.
chapter 2
Who is the most recent Air Force Cross recipient?(47-Fig, 50)
SSgt Robert Gutierrez, Jr.
chapter 2
Why did SSgt Robert Gutierrez, Jr. receive the AirForce Cross for extraordinary heroism during a firefight in Afghanistan on 5 October 2009? (50)
Despite being seriously wounded in the chest, he controlled precision A- I 0 strafing runs, which succeeded in decimating the enemy and allowed his team to escape without additional casualties.
chapter 2
Who was Corporal Vernon Burge? (50)
The first enlisted man in US aviation history to train as a pilot.
chapter 2
Most enlisted pilots received commissions after theUS formally declared war on the Central Powers. T/F (50)
True. (Including Sgt Vernon Burge.)
chapter 2
Name the sergeant known as the “Father of BlindFlight” who was commissioned as a pilot, commanded a flight school and selected the site that became Bolling Field, Washington, DC. (51)
Sgt William C. Ocker.
chapter 2
Some 3,000 enlisted personnel flew between the wars and into the early months of WWII without official flying status, until Congress enacted what law in 1941? (50)
Public Law 99. (It provided for training enlisted “aviation students” who were “awarded the rating of pilot and warranted as a staff sergeant.”)
chapter 2
Between the World Wars, most enlisted pilots wereNCOs holding commissions in the __ . (51)
Reserves. (Some couldn’t qualify for Regular Army commissions because they lacked the required education; others took enlisted status to fly because there were few officer slots in the peacetime air service.)
chapter 2
Why did Air Corps commanders halt enlisted pilottraining in 1933? (51)
They thought it was too expensive and blamed a shortage of funds during the Great Depression.
chapter 2
Name the aerobatics team that predated today’s AirForce Thunderbirds and consisted of sergeant pilots William C. McDonald and John H. Williamson, as well as Lt Haywood S. Hansell. (51)
“Three Men on a Flying Trapeze.” (Captain Claire Chennault chose the team.)
chapter 2
Why did the Army Air Forces revitalize the flyingsergeants and launch a massive program of enlisted pilot training? (51)
Because the threat of WWII made General HQ (GHQ) Air Force view enlisted pilots more positively.
chapter 2
Who was the last enlisted pilot to serve (retiring in1957)? (52)
MSgt George Holmes.
chapter 2
Late in 1942, the Flight Officer Act (Public Law 658)replaced Public Law 99. What did Public Law 658 do? (52)
It promoted staff sergeant pilots to flight officers (with rare exceptions).
chapter 3
Who makes national military policy decisions? (53)
Civilians assigned to the military and executive and legislative branches of government.
chapter 3
What establishes the basic principle of civilian control of the armed forces? (53)
The US Constitution.
chapter 3
As Commander in Chief (CINC), the President hasthe final command authority. How is this authority limited? (53)
As head of the executive branch, he or she is subject to the “checks and balances” of the legislative and judicial branches.
chapter 3
What did the National Security Act of 1947 establish? (53)
TheDoD.
chapter 3
What is the DoD’s function? (53)
To maintain and employ the armed forces.
chapter 3
What departments form the DoD? (53)
The 1) Office of The Secretary of Defense (OSD); 2) Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS); 3) Joint Staff (JS); 4) Departments of the Army, Navy (including the US Marine Corps) and Air Force; and 5) unified Combatant Commands (COCOM) and forces dedicated to combined commands, defense agencies and DoD field activities.
chapter 3
Who is the head of the DoD? (53)
The SecDe£
chapter 3
To whom does the SecDef provide written policyguidance? (53)
The DoD component chief; Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); secretaries of the military departments and commanders of the combatant commands.
chapter 3
Who formulates general defense policy (and policyrelated to all matters of direct and primary concern to the DoD) and executes approved policy as the principal defense policy advisor to the President? (53)
The SecDef. (Appointed by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate.)
chapter 3
The operational chain of command runs from thePresident to the SecDef to the ____ . (53)
Combatant Commanders (CCDR).
chapter 3
In what areas does the Armed Forces Policy Council assist the SecDef? (53)
Matters requiring a long-range view and formulating broad defense policy.
chapter 3
Name the five Under Secretaries of Defense. (53)
1) Policy; 2) Comptroller; 3) Personnel and Readiness; 4) Acquisition, Technology and Logistics; and 5) Intelligence.
chapter 3
Name three special agencies that provide staff assistance to the SecDef. (53)
1) Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DTRA); 2) Security Service; and 3) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
chapter 3
Who is the principal military advisor to the President, National Security Council (NSC) and the SecDef?(54)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS). (He or she may also be assigned oversight of the combatant commands.)
chapter 3
How is the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)selected? (54)
The President appoints the CJCS from the officers of the regular components of the armed forces (by and with the advice and consent of the Senate).
chapter 3
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) holdsthe grade of general (or admiral) and outranks all other officers of the armed forces while serving. T/F (54)
True.
chapter 3
Does the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)exercise military command over either the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) or any of the armed forces? (54)
No.
chapter 3
What allows the President to authorize communications through the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)? (54)
A provision of the Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986.
chapter 3
Who do the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) advise? (54)
The President, SecDef and National Security Council (NSC).
chapter 3
The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) provide strategic direction for the armed forces, review major materiel and personnel requirements and establish joint doctrine. What are their other responsibilities? (54)
Assigning logistic responsibilities to the military services, formulating joint training policies and coordinating military education.
chapter 3
Who are the members of the Joint Chiefs of Staff(JCS)? (54)
The 1) Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); 2) Vice Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (VCJCS); 3) Chief of Staff, US Army (CSA); 4) Chief of Naval Operations (CNO); 5) Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF); and 6) Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC).
chapter 3
Who serves as a member of, as well as presides over, the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)? (54)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS). (He or she also furnishes the recommendations and views of the JCS to the President, National Security Council (NSC) or the SecDef.)
chapter 3
Why do the service chiefs delegate many of theirJoint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) duties to their vice chiefs of staff while retaining overall responsibility? (54)
Because their JCS duties take precedence over all other duties.
chapter 3
Who assists members of the Joint Chiefs of Staff(JCS) with strategic direction, unified operation of combatant commands and integration of all land, naval and air forces? (54)
The Joint Staff (JS) (over 1,500 military and civilian personnel composed of approximately even numbers of officers drawn from the Army, Navy and Air Force).
chapter 3
Direction of the Joint Staff (JS) rests exclusively with__ .(54)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS).
chapter 3
Who establishes unified combatant commands? (54)
The President, assisted by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff(CJCS) through the SecDef.
chapter 3
Who deploys, directs, controls and coordinates theaction of the unified combatant command’s forces; conducts joint training exercises; and controls certain support functions? (54)
The Combatant Commanders (CCDR). (Responsible to both the SecDefand President.)
chapter 3
A unified Combatant Command (COCOM) has abroad, continuing mission with forces drawn from two or more military departments. How are they organized? (54)
On a geographical and functional basis.
chapter 3
Name the eight unified commands. (54)
1) US European Command (USEUCOM); 2) US Pacific Command (USPACOM); 3) US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM); 4) US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM); 5) US Central Command (USCENTCOM); 6) US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM); 7) US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM); and 8) US Strategic Command (USSTRA TCOM).
chapter 3
Once a force is assigned to a unified command, who has the authority to transfer it? (54)
The SecDef. (Or under special procedures of this office with the President’s approval.)
chapter 3
What type of command consists of forces from more than one allied nation? (54)
Combined commands.
chapter 3
Under what terms does a combined command normally operate? (54)
Terms of a treaty, alliance or bilateral agreement between or among the nations concerned.
chapter 3
Give three examples of multinational commands.(55)
1) The North American Aerospace Defense Command; 2) Combined Forces Command Korea; and 3) Allied Command Operations.
chapter 3
What are the three military departments? (55)
The Air Force, Army and Navy. (The Navy includes the Marine Corps and, in wartime, the Coast Guard.)
chapter 3
To whom do the service secretaries provide efficiently organized, trained and equipped ready forces? (55)
Combatant Commanders (CCDR).
chapter 3
Who helps the SecDef manage the administrative, training and logistic functions of the military departments? (SS)
The service secretaries.
chapter 3
The traditional roles and mission of each branch ofservice are called __ . (SS)
Functions.
chapter 3
What agreement between the SecDef and JointChiefs of Staff (JCS) established the functions for each branch of the armed forces? (SS)
The Key West Agreement of 1948. (Revised in 1953 and 1958.)
chapter 3
Identify the three general functions of the armedforces. (SS)
1) Support and defend the US Constitution; 2) ensure the security of the US, its possessions and areas vital to its interests; and 3) uphold and advance US national policies and interests.
chapter 3
Name several specific functions the military departments share. (SS)
1) Preparing forces and establishing reserves of personnel, equipment and supplies; 2) planning for expansion of peacetime components to meet wartime needs; 3) maintaining mobile reserve forces; 4) preparing and submitting budgets to the SecDef; 5) administering funds; and 6) helping each other accomplish their respective functions.
chapter 3
The Department of the Air Force consists of whatdivisions? (SS)
Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and its field units.
chapter 3
The Air Force prepares the air and space forces necessary for what actions? (55)
1) Effective prosecution of war; 2) military operations short of war; and 3) expanding peacetime components to meet the needs of war.
chapter 3
The Air Force organizes, trains, equips and providesforces for what six primary functions? (56-56)
1) Air and space combat operations; 2) strategic air and missile warfare; 3) joint amphibious, space and airborne operations; 4) close air support and air logistic support for the Army and other forces; 5) operating air and space lines of communications; and 6) supporting and conducting psychological operations.
chapter 3
The Air Force also has a primary function to provideequipment, forces, procedures, and doctrine necessary for effective __ warfare operations. (56)
Electronic.
chapter 3
How is the SECAF selected? (56)
A civilian is appointed by the President (by and with the advice and consent of the Senate).
chapter 3
As head of the Department of the Air Force, theSECAF recruits, organizes, supplies, equips, trains, services, mobilizes, demobilizes and administers personnel. Name several more responsibilities. (56)
He or she also 1) maintains, constructs, outfits, and repairs military equipment; 2) constructs, maintains and repairs buildings, structures and utilities; and 3) acquires real property and interests in real property.
chapter 3
Who has authority, control and direction over theSECAF?(56)
The SecDef.
chapter 3
How is the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) selected? (56)
The President appoints the CSAF from the general officers of the Air Force (by and with the advice and consent of the Senate).
chapter 3
The Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) serves fora(n) __ -year period. (56)
Four-year.
chapter 3
Who exercises authority, direction and control overthe Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF)? (56)
The SECAF and SecDef.
chapter 3
Name at least two of the Chief of Starrs, US AirForce (CSAF) responsibilities. (56)
Any two of the following: the CSAF 1) presides over the Air Staff; 2) carries out recommendations or plans approved by the SECAF; 3) exercises supervision of the Air Force, as determined by the SECAF; and 4) as a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) member, informs the SECAF on matters affecting the Department of the Air Force.
chapter 3
The ANG is a MAJCOM. T/F (56)
False. (It is a very important component of the total force in offensive, defensive and relief operations.)
chapter 3
Who administers the ANG? (56)
The National Guard Bureau (a joint bureau of the departments of the Army and Air Force) located in the Pentagon, Washington, DC.
chapter 3
What is the ANG’s federal mission? (56)
To maintain well-trained and well-equipped units for prompt mobilization during war and to assist during national emergencies.
chapter 3
What is the ANG’s federal mission during peacetime? (56)
Its combat-ready and support units are assigned to most Air Force MAJCOMs to carry out missions compatible with training, mobilization readiness, and humanitarian and contingency operations (such as Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan).
chapter 3
What is the ANG’s state mission (when not mobilized or under federal control)? (56)
The protection of life and property and the preservation of peace, order and public safety.
chapter 3
Who do ANG units report to when not mobilized orunder federal control? (56)
The governor of their respective state, territory or the commanding general of the District of Columbia National Guard.
chapter 3
How does the ANG accomplish its state mission toprotect life and property and preserve peace, order and public safety? (56)
Through 1) emergency relief support during natural disasters; 2) search and rescue operations; 3) supporting civil defense authorities; 4) maintaining vital public services; and 5) counterdrug operations.
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The ANG has more than officers and enlistedpersonnel who serve in 88 flying units and 579 independent support units. (57)
106,000.
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Who are the primary sources of full-time support forANG units? (57)
Dual-status military technicians and guardsmen on active duty. (They perform day-to-day management, administration and maintenance.)
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Dual-status military technicians are civil service employees of the federal government who must be military members of the unit that employs them. T/F (57)
True. (Technicians train with the unit and mobilize with it when activated.)
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What is the Air Staff’s function? (57)
To help the SECAF carry out his or her responsibilities.
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Name at least five of the Air Staff military advisorsto the SECAF. (57)
Any five of the following: 1) Chief of Staff; 2) Vice Chief of Staff; 3) Deputy Chiefs of Staff; 4) Assistant Chiefs of Staff; 5) Surgeon General of the Air Force; 6) Judge Advocate General of the Air Force; 7) Chief of the Air Force Reserve; 8) other members of the Air Force assigned or detailed to the Air Staff; and 9) civilian employees in the Department of the Air Force assigned or detailed to the Air Staff
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Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF) includeswhat two major entities? (57)
1) Secretariat (the SECAF and his or her principal staff); and 2) Air Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff
chapter 3
List the Department of the Air Force field units. (57)
MAJCOMs, Field Operating Agencies (FOA) and Direct Reporting Units (DRU).
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The Air Force is organized __ in the US and__ overseas. (57)
Functionally; Geographically.
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__ are major Air Force subdivisions, directlysubordinate to Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF). (57)
MAJCOMs. (They are interrelated and complementary, providing offensive, defensive and support elements. Each has a specific portion of the Air Force mission.)
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What kind of command consists (in whole or in part)of strategic, tactical, space or defense forces, or of flying forces that directly support such forces? (57)
Operational commands.
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What type of command may provide supplies, weapon systems, support systems, operational support equipment, combat materiel, maintenance, surface transportation, education and training, or special services and other supported organizations? (57)
Support commands.
chapter 3
Identify the ten Air Force MAJCOMs. (57-62)
1) Air Combat Command (ACC); 2) Air Mobility Command (AMC); 3) Air Force Space Command (AFSPC); 4) Pacific Air Forces (P ACAF); 5) US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE); 6) Air Education and Training Command (AETC); 7) Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC); 8) Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC); 9) Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC); and 10) AFR Command (AFRC).
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Which MAJCOM was created 1 June 1992 and isheadquartered at Langley AFB, VA. (57)
Air Combat Command (ACC).
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What is Air Combat Command’s (ACC) mission?
To prepare assigned forces for air combat in a theater of operations; to organize, train and equip forces for joint or combined operations in the roles of aerospace control and force application, enhancement and support.
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Name three of Air Combat Command’s (ACC) responsibilities. (57)
Any three of the following: 1) orgamzmg, tra1mng and equipping combat-ready forces; 2) providing air forces for US Strategic Command (USSTRA TCOM); 3) supporting the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) and US Customs Agency; 4) testing and acquiring new or improved combat systems and equipment through US Atlantic Command (USACOM); 5) providing combat-ready forces, support and equipment to unified commands (when directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)); 6) providing air defense forces to US Element North American Air Defense Command (USELNORAD); 7) providing C-130s and air mobility mission support to US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM); and 8) serving as Gaining MAJCOM (GMAJCOM) for assigned AFR and ANG forces (with the authority to mobilize or recall them to active duty).
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More than __ active duty members and 13,500civilians make up Air Combat Command’s (ACC) workforce. (57)
67,000. (When mobilized, more than 50,000 ANG and AFR members and 675 aircraft are also assigned to ACC.)
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Air Combat Command (ACC) and ACC-gainedunits fly more than __ aircraft. (57)
1,800.
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Which MAJCOM provides rapid, flexible and responsive air mobility to promote regional stability and provide America’s Global Reach? (58)
Air Mobility Command (AMC). (Created 1 June 1992, headquartered at Scott AFB, IL.)
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Which three wings are included in Air MobilityCommand’s (AMC) mission? (58)
1) Airlift; 2) air refueling; and 3) air mobility wings.
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Airlift wings transport and deliver forces and materiel through the air. Name their other functions. (58)
1) Perform passenger and cargo movement, combat employment and resupply, aeromedical evacuations and special operations support; 2) support validated customer requests for airlift; and 3) support expeditionary units with deployed forces.
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Air refueling wings refuel aircraft in flight. Whatdoes this accomplish? (58)
It extends presence, increases range and allows air forces to bypass potential problem areas.
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List the types of support provided by Air MobilityCommand’s (AMC) air refueling and air mobility wings. (58)
1) OPLAN 8044; 2) global attack; 3) air bridge; 4) deployment; and 5) theater support.
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Air refueling wings use a special operations system to achieve strategic-, operational- and __ -level objectives. (58)
Tactical-level.
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Air mobility wings perform a combination of missions from airlift and air refueling wings. T/F (58)
True.
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Wing leadership addresses all non-warfighting andappropriate support issues directly with Air MobilityCommand (AMC) staff for resolution. Who is tasked to keep the 18th Air Force leadership informed of those issues? (58)
Wing commanders and/or staff directors.
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Air Mobility Command (AMC) encompasses morethan __ active duty, ANG, AFR and DoD civilian personnel. (58)
134,000
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Which MAJCOM provides military-focused space and cyberspace capabilities with a global perspective to the joint warfighting team? (58)
Air Force Space Command (AFSPC). (Created 1 September 1982; headquartered at Peterson AFB, CO.)
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What is Air Force Space Command’s (AFSPC) mission? (58)
To provide resilient and cost-effective space and cyberspace capabilities for the Joint Force and the nation.
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What are Air Force Space Command’s (AFSPC)responsibilities? (58)
1) Organizing, training and equipping Air Force space forces; 2) providing these forces to US Space Command (USSPACECOM); 3) supporting acquisition and performing operational tests; 4) managing the payloads of designated military satellites; 5) communicating its mission and providing support to all military services and Combatant Commands (COCOM); and 6) serving as Gaining MAJCOM (GMAJCOM) for assigned AFR and ANG forces (assisting to mobilize or recall them to active duty as authorized by Headquarters Air Force (HAF)).
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How many personnel comprise Air Force SpaceCommand (AFSPC)? (58)
Approximately 41,000. (Including active duty military and civilians, and contractor employees.)
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Name two of the systems Air Force Space Command ~ (AFSPC) acquires, operates and supports. (58)
Any two of the following: 1) Global Positioning System; 2) Defense Satellite Communications Systems; 3) Defense Meteorological Satellite Program; 4) Defense Support Program; 5) Wideband Global Satellite Communications (SATCOM) Satellite systems; 6) MILSTAR and Advanced Extremely High Frequency (EHF); 7) Global Broadcast Service; 8) the Space-Based Infrared System Program; and 9) Space Based Space Surveillance Satellite.
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Which two launch vehicles, currently operated byAir Force Space Command (AFSPC), comprise theEvolved Expendable Launch Vehicle Program? (58)
Delta IV and Atlas V.
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What is the Air Force Satellite Control Network?(58)
A worldwide network of satellite tracking stations that provide satellite communications links.
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Name the four ground-based radars primarily usedfor ballistic missile warnings. (59)
1) The Ballistic Missile Early Warning System; 2) Upgraded Early Warning Radar System; 3) Precision Avionics Vectoring Equipment (PAVE) Phased Array Warning System; and 4) Perimeter Acquisition Radar Attack Characterization System.
chapter 3
What four systems provide primary space surveillance coverage? (59)
1) The Maui Optical Tracking Identification Facility; 2)Ground-based Electro-Optical Deep Space Surveillance System; 3) Passive Space Surveillance System; and 4) phasedarray and mechanical radars.
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How does the Rapid Attack Identification, Detectionand Reporting System provide Space Situational Awareness and threat assessment? (59)
By detecting, characterizing, reporting and geolocating electromagnetic interference on satellite communications.
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Pacific Air Forces (P ACAF) is headquartered atJoint Base Pearl Harbor-Hickam, HI. What is its mission? (59)
To 1) deliver rapid and precise air, space and cyberspace capabilities to protect and defend the US, its territories, interests and allies; 2) provide integrated air and missile warning and defense; 3) promote interoperability throughout the Area of Responsibility (AOR); 4) maintain strategic access and freedom of movement across all domains; and 5) be postured to respond in order to restore Asia-Pacific security.
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Pacific Air Forces (P ACAF) was renamed four yearsafter the Korean War armistice. What had it previously been known as? (59)
Far East Air Forces. (It included the 5th Air Force, 13th Air Force, 20th Air Force and the Far East Materiel Command.)
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Pacific Air Forces’ (PACAF) Area of Responsibility(AOR) covers more than __ square miles. (59)
100 million. (The area is home to nearly 50 percent of the world’s population spanning 36 nations.)
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Name two of Pacific Air Forces’ (PACAF) responsibilities. (59)
Any two of the following: l) planning, coordinating, supporting and conducting air and space operations for US Pacific Command (USPACOM) tasks and objectives; 2) providing assigned forces to other Combatant Commands (COCOM) on order; 3) overseeing training and readiness of Pacific Air Forces (PACAF)-gained AFR and ANG forces; and 4) establishing, sustaining, improving, maintaining and operating its bases and facilities throughout the US Pacific Command’s (USP ACOM) Area of Responsibility (AOR).
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Where do Pacific Air Forces’ (PACAF) approximately45,000 military and civilian personnel primarily serve? (59)
Hawaii, Alaska, Japan, Guam and the Republic of Korea.
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What type of aircraft are assigned to Pacific AirForces (P ACAF)? (59)
Approximately 400 fighter, attack and support aircraft.
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Pacific Air Force (P ACAF) is home to the onlyfighter squadrons and C-17 units based OCONUS. (59)
F-22.
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The 8th Air Force was established in 1942 and wasrenamed __ in 1945. (59)
US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE). (Headquartered at Ramstein AB, GE.)
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As a MAJCOM of the USAF and the Air Force component of US European Command (USEUCOM), what is US Air Forces in Europe’s (USAFE) mission? (59)
To 1) organize, train and equip its forces for independent, joint or combined military operations; 2) provide rapidly deployable, capabilities-focused expeditionary air and space forces to Combatant Commanders (CCDR); 3) enhance trans-Atlantic security; 4) promote regional stability; and 5) advance US interests in Europe, the Mediterranean, the Russian Federation, the Caspian Sea, the Middle East and assigned nations in Africa.
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US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE) plans, coordinates, supports and conducts employment of air and space operations to achieve __ and __ objectives.(59)
US European Command (USEUCOM); NATO. (Based on USEUCOM tasking.)
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More than __ active duty, AFR, ANG and civilian employees are assigned to US Air Forces in Europe(USAFE). (59)
39,000.
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What resources are under US Air Forces in Europe(USAFE) control? (59)
About 225 fighter, attack, rotary wing, tanker and transport aircraft and a full complement of conventional weapons.
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The realignment of Air Training Command and AirUniversity led to the establishment of which MAJCOM on 1July1993? (60)
Air Education and Training Command (AETC). (Headquartered at Randolph AFB, TX.)
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How does Air Education and Training Command(AETC) accomplish its mission to recruit, train and educate professional Airmen to sustain the combat capability of America’s Air Force? (60)
It 1) recruits and prepares officers, Airmen and civilian employees for Air Force duties; 2) provides training and education as directed by the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF); and 3) provides international and interservice training and education.
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Name five responsibilities of Air Education andTraining Command (AETC). (60)
Any five of the following: 1) accessing and classifying officer and enlisted personnel; 2) providing initial military training through BMT, Officer Training School {OTS) and/or ROTC; 3) developing, conducting and evaluating initial skills, advanced technical training and graduate academic education programs; 4) developing and conducting undergraduate and graduate flying training (assigned by the Chief of Staff (CS)); 5) conducting joint, medical service and readiness training; 6) conducting Air Force security assistance training; 7) providing and administering PME programs; 8) administering Air Force ROTC and Junior ROTC programs and the CCAF; 9) recalling Individual Ready Reservists (IRR); 10) providing mobility and contingency tasking support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR); 11) providing oversight, integration and management of the Air Force Advanced Distributed Leaming Program (AF ADLP); and 12) providing management and oversight for the Air Force’s auxiliary Civil Air Patrol.
chapter 3
More than __ active duty members, 14,000 civilianpersonnel, 4,000 ANG and AFR personnel, and11,700 contractors make up Air Education and Training Command (AETC). (60)
56,000.
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Air Education and Training Command (AETC) isresponsible for approximately __ aircraft. ( 60)
1,500.
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Which MAJCOM was formed through the reorganization of Air Force Logistics Command and Air Force
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). (Created I July V 1992, headquartered at Wright-Patterson AFB, OH.)
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What is Air Force Materiel Command’s (AFMC)mission? (60)
To manage the integrated research, development, testing, acquisition and sustainment of weapon systems while supporting system acquisition activities.
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Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) produces andacquires advanced systems while operating research laboratories and product, logistic and test centers. What two schools does it also operate? (60)
The USAF School of Aerospace Medicine and the USAF Test Pilot School.
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Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) organizes,trains and equips in-place and deployable forces to support peacetime operations and worldwide contingencies. Name its other responsibilities. (60)
To 1) research, develop, test, evaluate and acquire new technologies and systems; 2) provide centralized management for development and deployment of Air Force systems; 3) sustain systems and commodities; and 4) provide centralized business and financial management of the Air Force depot maintenance, supply management and information systems business areas of the defense business operations fund.
chapter 3
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) has a workforce of about __ military and civilian personnel. (60)
80,000.
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When was Air Force Special Operations Command(AFSOC) established and where is it headquartered? (61)
Established 22 May 1990; headquartered at Hurlburt Field, FL.
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What is Air Force Special Operations Command’s(AFSOC) mission? (61)
To prepare assigned or attached forces to 1) apply specialized airpower under combatant commanders; 2) conduct independent, joint or combined operations in support of aviation foreign internal defense, force application, joint air/Special Operations Force (SOF) battlefield interface, mobility of forces in denied territory and psychological operations mission areas.
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For what collateral activities does Air Force SpecialOperations Command’s (AFSOC) mission training prepare their forces? (61)
Humanitarian assistance, counter-narcotics and personnel recovery operations.
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Name Air Force Special Operations Command’s(AFSOC) responsibilities. (61)
To 1) provide air component commanders and Air Force Special Operations Forces (AFSOF) in support of US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM); 2) ensure AFR and ANG SOFs are interoperable and operationally ready; 3) develop and test special operations concepts, doctrine, plans and tactics; 4) plan, conduct, control and coordinate air operations for the Commander in Chief, Special Operations Command (CINCSOC) as directed; 5) standardize procedures, equipment, organization and training for all Combat Control Forces (except those assigned in Air Education and Training Command (AETC)); and 6) ensure a combat-ready force to support worldwide joint operations and Air Force airlift.
chapter 3
Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC)has approximately __ active duty, AFR, ANG andcivilian personnel. (61)
18,000
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What type of aircraft do Air Force Special OperationsCommand’s (AFSOC) active duty and AFR flyingunits operate? (61)
Fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft. (Including the CV-22, AC-130, C-130, C-145A, C-146A, EC-130, MC-130, U-28A and PC-12.)
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Where is Air Force Global Strike Command(AFGSC) headquartered and when was it activated? (61)
Headquartered at Barksdale AFB, LA; activated 7 August 2009.
chapter 3
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) is responsible for the nation’s three ICBM wings, two B-52 wings and the only B-2 wing. What is its mission? (61)
To develop and provide combat-ready forces to conduct deterrence and global strike operations to support the President and Combatant Commanders (CCDR).
chapter 3
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) is theAir Force component MAJCOM for which unified Combatant Command (COCOM)? (61)
US Strategic Command (USSTRA TCOM).
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Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) organizes,trains, and equips combat-ready forces. What are its other responsibilities? (61)
To 1) provide forces for supported Combatant Commanders (CCDR); 2) ensure safe, secure and effective nuclear and conventional forces; 3) develop and support cooperative measures with other MAJCOMs and agencies to facilitate Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) direct support to US Strategic Command (USSTRA TCOM); 4) advocate for, perform, coordinate, sustain and support acquisitions for operational tests of weapon systems and equipment; 5) serve as a partner or lead MAJCOM for assigned AFR and ANG forces (assisting to mobilize or recall them to active duty as ordered by the SECAF); 6) provide a response task force for radiological incidents or accidents; 7) serve as the MAJCOM for the Airborne Emergency Action Officer Program for US Air Force members, B-2 and B-52 aircraft, air-launched cruise missiles, nuclear gravity munitions, UH- 1 N helicopters, Minuteman III ICBMs, and Nuclear Command, Control and Communications (C3) system; and 8) collaborate with Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center for ICBM and aircraft nuclear warhead matters.
chapter 3
How many Air Force Global Strike Command(AFGSC) professionals are assigned to six wings, two geographically-separated squadrons, one detachment in the CONUS and deployed locations around the globe? (61)
Approximately 23,000.
chapter 3
Major Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)units and bases include 20th Air Force, F.E. WarrenAFB, WY and its three __ wings, as well as the 8thAir Force at Barksdale AFB, LA and its threewings. (61)
ICBM wings; Bomber wings.
chapter 3
Identify the Air Force Global Strike Command’s(AFGSC) three 20th Air Force ICBM wings. (61)
1) 90th Missile Wing (MW) at F.E. Warren AFB; 2) 34lst MW at Malmstrom AFB, MT; and 3) 9lst MW at Minot AFB, ND.
chapter 3
Identify the Air Force Global Strike Command’s(AFGSC) three 8th Air Force bomber wings. (61)
1) 509th Bomb Wing at Whiteman AFB; 2) 2nd Bomb Wing at Barksdale AFB; and 3) 5th Bomb Wing at Minot AFB.
chapter 3
How many squadrons fall under Air Force GlobalStrike Command (AFGSC)? (61)
Two. (The 576th Flight Test Squadron at Vandenberg AFB, CA and the 625th Strategic Operations Squadron at Offutt AFB, NE.)
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Name the group that belongs to the Air Force GlobalStrike Command (AFGSC). (61)
Air Operations Group at Otis ANGB, MA. (And a detachment at Langley AFB, VA.)
chapter 3
Previously a Field Operating Agency (FOA), the AirForce Reserve Command (AFRC) became a MAJCOM on 17February1997. Where is it headquartered? (62)
Robins AFB, GA.
chapter 3
What is Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) mission? (62)
To provide Citizen Airmen to defend the US and to protect its interest through air and space power.
chapter 3
Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) organizes,trains and equips combat-ready forces that can operate as seamless members of the expeditionary air and space force. What else is it tasked to accomplish? (62)
To 1) provide these forces to Gaining MAJCOMs(GMAJCOM); 2) coordinate and maintain liaison with HQ USAF and GMAJCOMs to ensure reserve training standards and qualification levels meet mobilization requirements; 3) establish necessary priorities to ensure accelerated training programs and quotas for reserve individuals (especially in areas of skill shortages).
chapter 3
Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) more than__ officers and enlisted personnel serve 35 flyingwings equipped with their own aircraft and 9 associate units that share aircraft with active duty units. (62)
74,000.
chapter 3
The Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) has morethan __ mission-support units that provide a widerange of services, including medical and aeromedical evacuation, aerial port, civil engineer, security force, intelligence, communications, mobility support, logistics and transportation operations, among others. (62)
620.
chapter 3
__ are subdivisions of the Air Force directly subordinate to a Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional manager. (62)
Field Operating Agencies (FOA).
chapter 3
Why are Field Operating Agencies (FOA) subordinate to a Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional manager? (62)
Because FOAs perform field activities beyond the scope of the MAJCOMs.
chapter 3
Field Operating Agency (FOA) activities are specialized or associated with an Air Force-wide mission. Whendo they include functions performed in management headquarters (such as Air Mobility Command (AMC))? (62)
Only when specifically directed by a DoD authority.
chapter 3
Name two examples of Field Operating Agencies(FOA). (62)
1) The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) under the Deputy Chief of Staff for Manpower, Personnel and Services; 2) the Air Force OSI under The Inspector General (TIG).
chapter 3
What are Direct Reporting Units (DRU)? (62)
Air Force subdivisions directly subordinate to the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF). They perform missions that don’t fit into any of the MAJCOMs and have many of the same administrative and organizational responsibilities as a MAJ COM.
chapter 3
Give two examples of Direct Reporting Units (DRU).(62)
The Air Force District of Washington and the USAF Academy(USAF A).
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In descending order, list the levels of command below the MAJCOMs. (62)
Air Force Component Commands and Numbered Air Forces (NAF), then wings, groups, squadrons and flights.
chapter 3
To whom does a wing, group, squadron or flight report? (62)
To an Air Force Component Command or a Numbered Air Force (NAF), whichever is appropriate.
chapter 3
Why did the Air Force establish 13 new Air ForceComponent Numbered Air Forces (CNAF)? (62)
To support to the unified/subunified combatant command and Joint Task Force (JTF) commanders.
chapter 3
The Air Force Component Numbered Air Forces(CNAF) are the primary operational-level warfightingand Air Force component commands. T/F (62)
True. (Their HQ includes Air Force Forces (AFFOR) staff and Air and Space Operations Center (AOC).)
chapter 3
How does the warfighting HQ commander supportthe unified combatant commander across the full range of military operations? (62)
He or she assumes responsibilities as the Joint Forces Air Component Commander (JF ACC) for joint military operations in their respective area of operations, and commands a Joint Task Force (JTF) as required.
chapter 3
The Numbered Air Force (NAF) is a(n) levelof command directly under a MAJCOM, providing intermediate level operational leadership and supervision. (62)
Administrative.
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Numbered Air Forces (NAF) should not exceed__ manpower authorizations without an approvedwaiver from Headquarters, US Air Force Directorate of Manpower and Organization (HQ USAF/AIM). (62)
99 manpower authorizations.
chapter 3
A(n) has a distinct mission with significantscope, maintains the installation and may have several squadrons in more than one dependent group. (63)
Wing.
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Name the three types of wings. (63)
1) Operational; 2) air base;3) specialized mission.
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Wings have a minimum adjusted population of atleast __ , including manpower authorizations, students and a percentage of contractor workforces. (63)
1,000.
chapter 3
What is an operational wing? (63)
A wing with an operations group and related operational mission activity assigned to it. (If it performs the primary mission of the base, it usually maintains and operates the base.)
chapter 3
Is an operational wing capable of self-support infunctional areas like maintenance and munitions? (63)
Yes.
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Which type of wing performs a support functionrather than an operational mission and maintains and operates a base? (63)
An air base wing. (Often provides functional support to a MAJCOM headquarters.)
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Which type of wing may be either a host or tenantwing and usually does not have aircraft or missiles assigned to it? (63)
A specialized mission wing (i.e., intelligence wings, training wings, etc.).
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A(n) __ is a level of command below the wing andusually has two or more subordinate units. (63)
Group.
chapter 3
Explain the difference between a dependent groupand an independent group. (63)
A dependent group is a mission, logistics, support, medical or large functional unit (such as a civil engineering group). It may have small supporting staff elements organized as sections, such as standardization and evaluation or quality control. An independent group has the same functions and responsibilities as a like-type wing, but not wing-level scopeand size.
chapter 3
Groups have a minimum adjusted population of atleast __ , including manpower authorizations, students and a percentage of contractor workforces. (63)
400.
chapter 3
What is the basic unit in the Air Force? (64)
The squadron. (May be either a mission or functional unit.)
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Squadrons have a minimum adjusted population ofat least __ , including manpower authorizations, students and a percentage of contractor workforces. (64)
35.
chapter 3
List the three types of flights. (64)
1) Numbered/named; 2) alpha; and 3) functional.
chapter 3
Which flight is the lowest level unit in the Air Force,incorporating smaller elements into an organized unit? (64)
Numbered/named flight.
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Which flights are usually part of a mission squadroncomposed of several elements that perform identical missions? (64)
Alpha flights.
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Are alpha and functional flights subject to unit reporting? (64)
No.
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__ flights are usually part of a squadron composedof elements that perform specific missions. (64)
Functional.
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What two elements comprise the Air Reserve Component (ARC)? (64)
The ANG and AFR. (Forces are drawn from the ARC when the active force must rapidly expand.)
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What document directs the full integration of theANG, AFR and active Air Force into a single TotalForce? (64)
Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 10-3, Air Reserve Component Forces.
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Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces must meet the same training standards and readiness levels as active component forces. T/F (64)
True. (They are also supplied with the same equipment on an equal priority.)
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U oder what policy are both regular and reserve assets considered parts of a single US military resource?(64)
The Total Force policy established by the DoD in 1973.
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When determining an appropriate regular and reserve force mix, what considerations are unique to ANG units? (64)
Their dual state and federal missions.
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ANG and AFR unit organization parallels activeforce unit organization, with what exception? (64)
Air Reserve Component (ARC) units are sometimes separated from major multisquadron bases to take advantage of state or regional demographics.
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Who has command jurisdiction for nonmobilizedANG units? (64)
The governor of the state, commonwealth or possession (or the President in the District of Columbia).
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Who has command jurisdiction for nonmobilizedAFR units? (64)
The Commander, AFR, who is responsible to the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF).
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Who commands nonmobilized AFR individual mobilization augmentees? (64)
The unit of assignment.
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Whenever the President authorizes involuntary activation, who delegates authority to the gaining MAJCOM commanders to order ANG and AFR forces to active duty? (64)
The SECAF.
chapter 3
When activated, who does operational command ofAir Reserve Component (ARC) forces transfer to? (64)
The gaining MAJCOM commander, who is also responsible for establishing training resources for all assigned ARC forces.
chapter 4
The nature of war has changed and Airmen embrace change and innovation. How has the Air Force changed? (67)
It’s become a smaller, leaner and more capable force.
chapter 4
In the past, Airmen may have not understood or consistently applied __ . (67)
Doctrine.
chapter 4
Why must planning and employment of Air Forcedoctrine be understood and repeatable today? (67)
Because of the complex integration of our fighting elements, the meshing of joint and combined doctrine, and the uncertainty inherent in rapidly developing contingency operations.
chapter 4
Which publication is the premier statement of AirForce beliefs, the cornerstone of identity and the source of doctrine? (67)
AFDD 1, Air Force Basic Doctrine, Organization and Command. (It expresses our service’s identity.)
chapter 4
How does the Air Force present forces to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? (67)
As Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF).
chapter 4
List the three main principles that determine an Airand Space Expeditionary Force’s (AEF) structure and execution. (67)
1) Transparency; 2) predictability; and 3) equitability.
chapter 4
__ means every Airman should see and understandthe when, why and how about Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF). (67)
Transparency. (Including their original structure, how AEFs deploy today and our future goals.)
chapter 4
Aligning Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)__ determines who goes first, defines battle rhythmand organizes structure during surges to support combatant commanders. (67)
AEF pairs/blocks.
chapter 4
__ operations are now routine, demanding cooperation, coordination and integration of all US military services. (67)
Joint operations. (Joint warfare is team warfare.)
chapter 4
Define Air Force doctrine. (67)
A statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles and terminology that describes and guides the proper military use of air, space and cyberspace power.
chapter 4
Doctrine provides a common frame of reference regarding the best way to do what? (67)
Prepare and employ Air Force forces.
chapter 4
Doctrine shapes how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips and sustains its forces. T/F (67)
True. (It prepares us for future uncertainties.)
chapter 4
Which statement is false - doctrine provides common understandings on which to base decisions; doctrine guides military forces’ actions in support of national objectives through fundamental principles; or doctrine provides unique terminology for air and space forces? (67)
It’s false that doctrine provides unique terminology for air and space forces. (It provides common terminology.)
chapter 4
Should you apply doctrine judiciously or follow it tothe letter? ( 67)
Use it judiciously. (Don’t dismiss it out of hand, but don’t follow it blindly.)
chapter 4
Doctrine gives Airmen an informed starting point for making decisions during continuous deployments. It solves up to __ % of basic issues. (67-68, 68-Note)
90%. (These issues include “What is my mission?”, “What should my organization look like?” and “What are the lines of authority?”)
chapter 4
Many things remain constant between operations;the remainder are usually tailored to a specific operation. T/F (68, 68-Note)
True.
chapter 4
Explain the differences between good and bad doctrine. (68)
Good doctrine informs, provides a sound departure point, allows flexibility and must be intelligently applied. Bad doctrine overly restricts creativity, can be corrupted by parochialism and other biases within or between services and can result in inefficiency and ineffectiveness.
chapter 4
Is doctrine about warfighting or about the physics ofthe domain within which a system operates? (68)
Warfighting.
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Doctrine ties specific weapon systems to specifictasks or effects. T IF ( 68)
False. (It focuses on the desired outcome, not the platform.)
chapter 4
Doctrine focuses on the best means to obtainwarfighting effects, regardless of the domain by integrating air, space and __ domains. (68)
Cyberspace.
chapter 4
Does doctrine carve up the operational environment into service ownership or functional ownership? (68)
Neither. (It focuses on using domains properly, not who owns the domains.)
chapter 4
How does doctrine help organize a total, tailored,decisive Joint Force? (68)
Doctrine explains preferred organizational structures and effective command structures.
chapter 4
Describe how a Joint Force must be organized toachieve unity of effort and unity of command. (68)
It must have a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command and commanders with requisite authorities at appropriate levels.
chapter 4
Organizing according to doctrine helps the rapid__ of joint and service organizations during rapidlyevolving situations. (68)
Standup.
chapter 4
From a command and control viewpoint, segregation is the simplest, most efficient way to manage elements of a diverse Joint Force. T/F (68-69)
False. (Synergy and integration of effort are required.)
chapter 4
To achieve the Joint Force Commander’s (JFC) objectives, should Airmen have access to the entire theater of operations or should they be restricted from areas for fire support coordination measures? (68-69)
Airmen should have access to the entire theater of operations.
chapter 4
Segregating the operational environment into smaller areas of operation may create competition and reduce combat effectiveness for what type of capabilities? (69)
For scarce, high-demand, low-density capabilities.
chapter 4
Airmen should __ , not just synchronize, jointoperational planning. (69)
Integrate.
chapter 4
___ arranges military actions to produce maximumrelative combat power at a decisive place and time.(69)
Synchronization. (It deconflicts time and space between different units and helps prevent fratricide.)
chapter 4
__ arranges military forces and their actions sothey operate by engaging as a whole. (69)
Integration. (It considers priority and effect to efficiently and effectively use scarce resources.)
chapter 4
Does integration of forces work from the top downor from the bottom up? (69)
It starts at the top with a single cohesive plan and works downward. (Synchronization is bottom-up.)
chapter 4
Is synchronization or integration a “sum of theparts” model? (69)
Synchronization. (Integration may produce geometric results.)
chapter 4
Good doctrine doesn’t focus on the relative value of one service over another. What does it focus on instead? (69)
The right capability to best accomplish the mission. (It’s about what’s important, not who’s important.)
chapter 4
What should the proper mix of service componentswithin a Joint Force be tailored to? (69)
To the task. (Operations can be land-centric, air-centric or maritime-centric.)
chapter 4
What are the three levels of airpower doctrine? (69)
1) Basic; 2) operational; and 3) tactical.
chapter 4
Which publication is the Airman’s basic doctrine?(69)
AFDD I.
chapter 4
Which level of doctrine states the fundamental,broad and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use, presentation and organization of Air Force capabilities? (69)
Basic doctrine. (It is the foundation for all Air Force doctrine and sets the tone and vision for future doctrine.)
chapter 4
Basic doctrine describes and guides the “____properties” of airpower from the Airman’s perspective. (69)
Elemental properties.
chapter 4
Which level of doctrine describes the organization of Air Force forces in more detail and applies basic doctrine’s principles to military actions? (69)
Operational doctrine.
chapter 4
Which publications contain operational doctrine?(69)
AFDD X-0 series publications - AFDD 2-0, 3-0, 4-0 and 6-0.
chapter 4
Operational doctrine guides the organization andemployment of forces within what four contexts? (69)
Within 1) distinct objectives; 2) force capabilities; 3) broad functional areas; and 4) operational environments.
chapter 4
Operational doctrine develops missions and tasksthat must be executed through __ doctrine. (69)
Tactical doctrine.
chapter 4
How do the Air Force Tactics, Techniques and Procedures 3-series manuals codify tactical doctrine? (69)
As TIP.
chapter 4
Tactical doctrine describes the proper employmentof specific Air Force assets to accomplish detailed objectives. Does it deal with employing assets individually or in concert with other assets? (69)
Both individually and in concert. (It is closely associated with employment of technology and emerging tactics.)
chapter 4
__ considers particular objectives and conditions,and describes how Air Force assets accomplish the tactical objectives. (69)
Tactical doctrine.
chapter 4
Which level of doctrine changes relatively slowly?Which may change rapidly? (69)
Basic doctrine changes slowly. Tactical doctrine may change rapidly.
chapter 4
What are the four key doctrine concepts? (70-75)
1) The Airman’s perspective; 2) Principles of war; 3) Tenets of airpower; and 4) Air Force functions.
chapter 4
What term did General Henry H. “Hap” Arnoldcoin for the unique Airman’s perspective? (70)
Airmindedness.
chapter 4
What unique aspects of airpower does the Airman’s perspective reflect? (70)
The range, speed and capabilities of airpower, as well as its unique threats and survival imperatives.
chapter 4
Control of the vertical dimension is generally a neeessary precondition for control of the surface. T IF (70)
True.
chapter 4
Describe the first mission of an air force. (70)
To defeat or neutralize enemy air forces so friendly land, sea, air and space operations can proceed unhindered - and to protect its own military forces and critical vulnerabilities from air attack.
chapter 4
Airpower is an inherently __ force, for both warand non-lethal activities. (70)
Strategic. (War and peace are decided, organized, planned, supplied and commanded at the strategic level.)
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Airpower can simultaneously exploit the principlesof __ and __J quickly concentrating power at anypoint. (70)
Mass and maneuver.
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Airpower dominates the fourth dimension, time. Bycompressing events, how does it affect the adversary? (70)
It produces physical and psychological shock.
chapter 4
Airpower applies force against which facets of anenemy’s power - diplomatic, informational, military,economic or social? (70)
Against any or all, simultaneously or separately. (Airpower can act independently or integrated with surface power.)
chapter 4
How does airpower create a smaller cultural footprint than surface forces when deployed? (70)
It can operate from bases over the horizon or from a few in country bases.
chapter 4
Speed, range and flexibility make airpower the most versatile component of military power. What is this versatility derived from? (70)
The inherent characteristics of air forces and how they are organized and controlled.
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All six aspects of airpower are essential, interdependent and rely on the performance of Airmen. List these aspects. (70)
1) Capabilities; 2) people; 3) weapons; 4) bases; 5) logistics; and 6) all supporting infrastructure.
chapter 4
Weapon choice is key. How should weapons be selected? (70)
Based on their ability to influence an adversary’s capability and will.
chapter 4
Airpower mobility eliminates the need to considerthe availability and operability of suitable bases during employment planning and execution. T/F (70)
False. (Supporting bases are essential to launch, recover and sustain airpower and can dominate planning and execution.)
chapter 4
Airpower’s unique characteristics require it to be__ controlled by Airmen. (70)
Centrally
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With regard to airpower, why must Airmen take abroader view of war? (70)
Because the weapons they command have effects at broader levels of war. (It can quickly intervene anywhere for strategic or tactical purposes.)
chapter 4
Which key doctrine concept encompasses “thoseaspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant,” providing general guidance on achieving military victory? (71)
Principles of war.
chapter 4
Unity of command is one of the nine principles ofwar. List the other eight. (71-73)
2) Objective; 3) offensive; 4) mass; 5) maneuver; 6) economy of force; 7) security; 8) surprise; and 9) simplicity.
chapter 4
Unity of command (a principle of war) concentrateseffort for all objectives under how many commanders? (71)
One.
chapter 4
Which principle of war shapes priorities and avoidsfragmenting force elements? (71)
Objective. (It directs operations toward a defined and attainable goal that contributes to strategic, operational and tactical aims.)
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In application, objective (as a principle of war) refers to __ of effort. (71)
Unity of effort. (Political and military goals should be complementary and clear.)
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Name the principle of war that seizes, retains andexploits the initiative. (71)
Offensive.
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The offensive principle of war holds that the _must be seized quickly, retained and fully exploited, so joint forces can dictate operations. (71)
Initiative.
chapter 4
Airpower is best used defensively. T/F (71)
False. (Success in war is generally only attained while on the offensive.)
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What aspects of attacking airpower forces give them a significant offensive advantage over surface forces and defending air forces? (71)
Speed and range.
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Which principle of war concentrates combat powerat the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results? (71)
Mass.
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Airpower achieves mass faster than surface forces.What do air and space forces rely on instead of overwhelming forces and materiel? (72)
Effectiveness of attack. (Using speed, range, flexibility, accuracy and lethality of precision weapons, and information technologies.)
chapter 4
In the past, mass was achieved when hundreds ofairplanes attacked one or two major targets daily, gradually attaining cumulative effects. How does that differ from today’s concept of mass using precision weapons? (72)
Today the platform-to-target ratio is inverted since modem precision weapons are far more destructive and permit a single aircraft to strike several targets.
chapter 4
Which principle of war places the enemy at a disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space? (72)
Maneuver.
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How does airpower use maneuver (as a principle of war) to force the enemy to react? (72)
Airpower allows engagement anywhere, from any direction, at any time. (Simultaneously applying mass and maneuver is critical.)
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The principle of war “ __ of force” judiciouslyemploys and distributes forces, allocating minimum essential resources to secondary efforts. (72)
“Economy of force.”
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Guard against __ , using excessive force that canprevent gaining or maintaining an operation’s legitimacy and support. (72)
Overkill.
chapter 4
What is the greatest vulnerability of airpower employment? (72)
Its misuse or misdirection, which can reduce its effectiveness more than enemy action.
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Which principle of war’s goal is to never let the enemy acquire an unexpected advantage? (72)
Security. (Gaining and maintaining appropriate control over air, space and cyberspace domains.)
chapter 4
Where is airpower most vulnerable to attack? (72)
On the ground. (Fixed bases are especially vulnerable.)
chapter 4
Describe four conditions that increase the need forsecurity when forces operate during peace support or crisis situations. (72)
1) Austere and unimproved locations; 2) small units; 3) crowded urban setting; or 4) threats from individuals, groups, military or paramilitary units.
chapter 4
Security may be obtained by staying beyond the enemy’s reach. T/F (72)
True. (Airpower is uniquely capable of this.)
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Security must embrace both physical security andsecurity of the __ environment. (73)
Information environment. (With advanced communications and computer technologies, this is even more crucial.)
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Attacking the enemy at a time, place or in a mannerfor which they are not prepared demonstrates which principle of war? (73)
Surprise. (Air forces achieve surprise more readily than surface forces.)
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Which principle of war avoids unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning and conducting operations? (73)
Simplicity.
chapter 4
List two ways to overcome complexity in keepingwith simplicity as a principle of war. (73)
Any two of the following: 1) simple and direct guidance, plans and orders; 2) common equipment; 3) common understanding of service and joint doctrine; 4) joint exercises and training that make procedures familiar; and 5) unambiguous organizational and command relationships.
chapter 4
The __ of airpower are fundamental guidingtruths specific to airpower. (73)
Tenets.
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Persistence is one of the seven tenets of airpower.List the other six. (73-75)
2) Centralized control and decentralized execution; 3) flexibility and versatility; 4) synergistic effects; 5) concentration; 6) priority; and 7) balance.
chapter 4
The tenets of airpower are interconnected, overlapping and often interlocking. Which tenet is the keystone of success? (73)
Centralized control and decentralized execution.
chapter 4
As with the principles of war, why is an Airman’sexpertise required to apply the tenets of airpower? (73)
Because it requires informed judgment, skillful blending to tailor tenets to the ever-changing operational environment, and balancing the competing demands of principles and tenets.
chapter 4
Which tenet is the fundamental organizing principleof airpower? (73)
Centralized control and decentralized execution.
chapter 4
Who should control airpower to maintain a broad,strategic perspective? (73)
A single Airman.
chapter 4
Who does decentralized execution delegate authority to? (73)
To designated lower-level commanders and other tactical level decision makers.
chapter 4
List several benefits of decentralized execution. (73)
It 1) achieves effective span of control; 2) fosters disciplined initiative, situational responsiveness and tactical flexibility; and 3) allows subordinates to exploit opportunities in fluid situations.
chapter 4
Under decentralized execution, subordinates should be allowed to take the initiative, with what caveat? (74)
Their decisions should support the commander’s intent and meet campaign objectives.
chapter 4
The centralized control and execution tenet ofairpower provides a critical broad global or theater-wide focus while allowing operational flexibility to meet military objectives. (73)
Decentralized. (The most effective employment of air and space power.)
chapter 4
Give an example of a front-line decisionmaker whoshould make on-scene decisions during complex, rapidly unfolding operations under decentralized execution. (73)
Strike package leaders, air battle managers or forward air controllers.
chapter 4
Centralized execution will not stand up in a fullystressed, dynamic combat environment, despite modern data exploitation and automated decision aids. T/F (73)
True. (No one person can achieve and maintain detailed situational awareness with many simultaneous engagements throughout a large area.)
chapter 4
Should centralized execution become the norm forall air operations? (73-74)
No.
chapter 4
Which aspect of the tenet of flexibility and versatility exploits mass and maneuver simultaneously? (74)
Flexibility.
chapter 4
Explain the difference between flexibility and versatility as they relate to the tenets of air and space power. (74)
Flexibility allows a quick and decisive shift from one campaign objective to another. Versatility is the ability to effectively employ airpower at strategic, operational and tactical levels.
chapter 4
Which tenet of airpower properly applies coordinated force to produce effects that exceed those of individually employed forces? (74)
Synergistic effects.
chapter 4
Destroying a large number of targets through attrition warfare is rarely the key objective in modern war. What is? (74)
The precise, coordinated application of various elements of airpower and surface power to bring disproportionate pressure on enemy leaders to comply with our national will.
chapter 4
Air, space and cyberspace operations may be conducted continuously against a broad spectrum of targets. Airpower forces can visit and revisit wide ranges of targets nearly at will. These are examples of which tenet of airpower? (74)
Persistence.
chapter 4
Space systems offer potential persistent overheadaccess. What may do the same within the atmosphere? (74)
Unmanned aircraft systems.
chapter 4
What is the goal of the persistence tenet of airpower? (74)
To pressure enemies and deny them time to circumvent our strategic efforts.
chapter 4
Give an example of a persistent operation. (74)
Examples include I) maintaining a continuous flow of materiel to peacetime distressed areas; 2) constantly monitoring adversaries to ensure they cannot conduct actions counter to those agreed upon; 3) assuring targets are kept continually out of commission; or 4) ensuring resources and facilities are denied to an enemy or provided to an ally during a specified time.
chapter 4
Why is the tenet concentration crucial for Airmen?(74)
Because concentrating power at the decisive time and place is crucial and Airmen must guard against inadvertently diluting and fragmenting airpower due to high demand.
chapter 4
Why must airpower be prioritized? (74)
So demands for forces don’t overwhelm air commanders.
chapter 4
Prioritizing applies the Airman’s strategic perspective along with which other tenet and which three principles? (74-75)
The tenet of concentration and the principles of mass, offensive and economy of force.
chapter 4
List the five considerations an air component commander should balance against the risk to friendly airpower forces. (75)
1) Combat opportunity; 2) necessity; 3) effectiveness; 4) efficiency; and 5) accomplishing assigned objectives.
chapter 4
Who is uniquely and best suited to determine theproper theater-wide balance between offensive and defensive operations and among strategic, operational and tactical applications? (75)
An Airman.
chapter 4
To describe what airpower brings to the nation,Airmen should first understand the __ among roles,missions and functions. (75)
Distinctions. (Although the terms are interchangeable, each has a specific meaning.)
chapter 4
Roles are broad and enduring purposes for whichthe Services were established by law. What is the role of the Air Force? (75)
To organize, train and equip aviat10n forces primarily for prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations.
chapter 4
Missions are the tasks assigned by the President orSecDef to the Combatant Commanders (CCDR). What do the CCDRs do with them? (75)
They I) develop mission statements, operational objectives and concepts of operations; and 2) assign specific tasks to subordinate commanders, who develop component mission statements, objectives and concepts of operations at their level.
chapter 4
Functions are the specific responsibilities that enable the Services to fulfill their legally established roles. What are Air Force functions based on? (75)
The statutory responsibilities outlined in I 0 US Code (U.S.C.) and DoDD 5100.01, Functions of the Department of Defense and its Major Components. (They are known as “organize, train and equip” activities.)
chapter 4
What do the “organize, train and equip” statutoryresponsibilities specifically include? (75)
1) Recruiting; 2) organizing; 3) supplying; 4) equipping; 5) training; 6) servicing; 7) mobilizing; 8) demobilizing; 9) administering; 10) maintaining; 11) construction, outfitting and repair of military equipment; 12) construction, maintenance and repair of buildings, structures and utilities; 13) acquisition, management and disposal; and 14) management of real property or natural resources.
chapter 4
The Air Force recently streamlined its six distinctivecapabilities and 17 operational functions into __ core functions that outline how the Air Force contributes to national security. (75)
- (Not 13.)
chapter 4
What are the 12 Air Force core functions? (75-81)
1) Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO); 2) Air Superiority; 3) Space Superiority; 4) Cyberspace Superiority; 5) Command and Control (C2); 6) Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (JSR); 7) Global Precision Attack; 8) Special Operations; 9) Rapid Global Mobility; 10) Personnel Recovery (PR); 11) Agile Combat Support (ACS); and 12) Building Partnerships.
chapter 4
The 12 Air Force core functions, by themselves, arenot doctrinal constructs. T/F (75)
True
chapter 4
The purpose of the Nuclear Deterrence Operations(NDO) core function is to operate, maintain and minimize use of secure nuclear forces. T/F (75)
False. (The purpose is to operate, maintain and secure nuclear forces to deter adversaries from acting against vital US interests. Failing that, it is to respond with appropriate nuclear options.)
chapter 4
What are the three subelements of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO)? (75-76)
1) Assure/Dissuade/Deter; 2) Nuclear Strike; and 3) Nuclear Surety.
chapter 4
Describe the Assure/Dissuade/Deter subelement ofNuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO). (75-76)
It maintains and presents deterrent capabilities through visible demonstrations and exercises, which 1) assure allies; 2) dissuade others from acquiring, proliferating or delivering WMDs; and 3) deter adversaries.
chapter 4
The Nuclear Strike subelement of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) is the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately devastate what kind of targets? (76)
Targets the enemy holds dear.
chapter 4
The Nuclear Surety subelement of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) ensures the accuracy of nuclear operations. T/F (76)
False. (It assures their safety, security and effectiveness.)
chapter 4
What is the core function Air Superiority? (76)
The degree of dominance in air battle that permits land, sea, air and special operations without prohibitive interference by the opposing force.
chapter 4
Name the three subelements of Air Superiority. (76)
I) Offensive Counterair (OCA); 2) Defensive Counterair (DCA); and 3) Airspace Control.
chapter 4
Define the Offensive Counterair (OCA) subelement of Air Superiority. (76)
Offensive operations to destroy, disrupt or neutralize enemy aircraft, missiles, launch platforms and supporting structures and systems, before and after launch, as close to the source as possible.
chapter 4
The Defensive Counterair (DCA) subelement of AirSuperiority is all the defensive measures designed to detect, identify, intercept, destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through enemy airspace. T/F (76)
False. (Enemy forces must be attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace.)
chapter 4
The Airspace Control subelement of Air Superiorityis a process used to increase __ by promoting safe, efficient and flexible use of airspace. (76)
Operational effectiveness.
chapter 4
The __ core function is the degree of dominancein space that permits land, sea, air, space and special operations without prohibitive interference. (76-77)
Space Superiority.
chapter 4
The Space Superiority core function consists of thesubelements: Space Force Enhancement, Space Force Application and Space Control. T/F (77)
True.
chapter 4
The Space Force Enhancement subelement of Space Superiority is the combat support operations and force multiplying capabilities from space systems. What do they improve? (77)
The effectiveness of military forces. (They also support other intelligence, civil and commercial users.)
chapter 4
The Space Force Application subelement of SpaceSuperiority is combat operations in, through and from space to influence the __ and __ of the conflict.(77)
Course and outcome.
chapter 4
The Space Control subelement of Space Superiority consists of combat support operations and force multiplying capabilities from space systems. T/F (77)
False. (It consists of operations to ensure freedom of action in space and, when directed, deny access to adversaries.)
chapter 4
The Cyberspace Superiority core function is the operational advantage in, through and from cyberspace to do what? (77)
Conduct operations at a given time and domain without prohibitive interference.
chapter 4
Name the three subelements of the Cyberspace Superiority core function. (77)
1) Cyberspace Force Application; 2) Cyberspace Defense; and 3) Cyberspace Support.
chapter 4
The Cyberspace Force Application subelement ofCyberspace Superiority is combat operations in, through and from cyberspace to achieve military objectives and influence __ . (77)
The conflict’s course and outcome by taking decisive action against approved targets.
chapter 4
The Cyberspace Defense subelement of Cyberspace Superiority passively, actively and dynamically employs capabilities to respond to imminent or ongoing actions against which organizations? (77)
The Air Force and its protected networks, portion of the Global Information Grid or expeditionary communications.
chapter 4
The Cyberspace Support subelement of Cyberspace Superiority ensures information integrity and availability in, through and from Air Force-controlled __ and its interconnected analog and digital portion of battle space. (77)
Infrastructure,
chapter 4
Inherent in the mission of the Cyberspace Supportsubelement of Cyberspace Superiority is the ability to do what? (77)
Establish, extend, secure, protect and defend in order to sustain assigned networks and missions, including protection measures against supply chain components; critical Command and Control (C2) networks and communication links; and nuclear C2 networks.
chapter 4
The core function, Command and Control (C2), isthe exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces to accomplish the mission. T/F (77)
True.
chapter 4
List and briefly describe the three subelements ofCommand and Control (C2). (77-78)
1) Strategic Level C2 determines national or multinational security objectives and guidance, and develops resources to accomplish them; 2) Operational Level C2 plans, conducts, sustains and assesses campaigns and major operations to accomplish strategic goals; and 3) Tactical Level C2 is where individual battles and engagements are fought
chapter 4
What is the core function, Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR)? (78)
The synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of sensors, assets and processing, exploitation, dissemination systems across the globe to conduct current and future operations,
chapter 4
Name the five subelements of the Global IntegratedIntelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR) core function. (78)
1) Planning and Directing; 2) Collection; 3) Processing and Exploitation; 4) Analysis and Production; and 5) Dissemination and Integration.
chapter 4
The Planning and Directing subelement of GlobalIntegrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) determines intelligence requirements, develops intelligence architecture and prepares a collection plan. What other activity does it perform? (78)
It issues orders and requests to information collection agencies.
chapter 4
The Collection subelement of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) acquires information. To whom is it provided? (78)
Processing elements,
chapter 4
Describe the Processing and Exploitation subelement of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR). (78)
The conversion of collected information into suitable forms to produce intelligence.
chapter 4
The Analysis and Production subelement of GlobalIntegrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) only involves interpreting data and preparing intelligence products in support of user requirements. T/F (78)
False. (It also involves integrating, evaluating and analyzing source data,)
chapter 4
Delivering and applying intelligence to missions,tasks and functions describes which of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance’s (ISR) subelements? (78)
Dissemination and Integration,
chapter 4
The Global Precision Attack core function is the ability to hold at risk or strike any target rapidly and persistently, creating swift, decisive and precise effects across a single targeted domain. T/F (78)
False. (The effects are created across multiple domains.)
chapter 4
Name the three subelements of the Global Precision Attack core function. (78)
1) Strategic Attack; 2) Air Interdiction; and 3) Close Air Support.
chapter 4
The Strategic Attack subelement of Global Precision Attack is offensive action selected to achieve strategic objectives. (78)
National.
chapter 4
The Air Interdiction subelement of Global PrecisionAttack consists of air operations to divert, disrupt, delay or destroy the enemy’s military potential or to achieve Joint Force Commander (JFC) objectives. When must this be done? (78)
Before enemy forces can be effective.
chapter 4
Air action by fixed- and rotary-winged aircraftagainst targets in close proximity to friendly forces makes up the __ subelement of Global Precision Attack. (78)
Close Air Support.
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Which subelement of Global Precision Attack doesnot necessitate that friendly forces integrate their fire and movement with air missions? Which subelement does? (78)
Air Interdiction; Close Air Support.
chapter 4
Describe the Special Operations core function. (78)
Operations conducted in hostile, denied or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational and economic objectives by employing military capabilities without conventional force requirements.
chapter 4
How do special operations differ from conventionaloperations? (79)
They differ in degree of physical and political risk, operational techniques, mode of employment, independence from friendly support and dependence on detailed operational intelligence and indigenous assets.
chapter 4
List the ten subelements of the Special Operationscore function. (79)
1) Agile Combat Support; 2) Aviation Foreign Internal Defense; 3) Battlefield Air Operations; 4) Command and Control (C2); 5) Information Operations; 6) Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (lSR); 7) Military Information Support Operations; 8) Precision Strike; 9) Specialized Air Mobility; and 10) Specialized Refueling.
chapter 4
What does the Special Operations subelement, Agile Combat Support, create, prepare, deploy, employ, sustain and protect? (79)
Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) Airmen, assets and capabilities.
chapter 4
The Aviation Foreign Internal Defense subelement of Special Operations directly executes US security and foreign policy as lead airpower elements that shape the battlefield. What operations do they conduct? (79)
Stability operations that enable global reach and strike.
chapter 4
The Battlefield Air Operations subelement of Special Operations includes unique __ provided by Special Operations Forces (SOF) Battlefield Airmen. (79)
Combat-proven abilities.
chapter 4
In the Battlefield Air Operations subelement of Special Operations, Special Operations Forces (SOF) Battlefield Airmen integrate, synchronize and control manned and unmanned capabilities to achieve difficult objectives. T/F (79)
False. (They achieve tactical, operational and strategic objectives.)
chapter 4
The Command and Control (C2) subelement of Special Operations includes a commander’s authority and direction over assigned and attached forces by trained, organized and __ C2 elements. (79)
Equipped.
chapter 4
Describe the Information Operations subelement ofSpecial Operations. (79)
Integrated employment of influence, electronic warfare and network warfare operations to influence, disrupt, corrupt or usurp adversarial decisionmaking while protecting one’s own.
chapter 4
The Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance(ISR) subelement of Special Operations is the synchronization and integration of various processes to provide actionable intelligence, weather, environmental awareness and prediction. T/F (79)
True.
chapter 4
What five processes does the Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) subelement of Special Operations synchronize and integrate with platforms and sensors? (79)
l) Planning and direction; 2) collection; 3) processing and exploitation; 4) analysis; and 5) production and dissemination.
chapter 4
The Military Information Support Operationssubelement of Special Operations includes planned operations to convey selected information and indictors to influence foreign __ and __ . (79)
Attitudes and behavior.
chapter 4
The Precision Strike subelement of Special Operations is the integrated capability to find, fix, track, target, engage and assess targets. What does it use to do so? (79)
A weapons system or combination of systems.
chapter 4
Define the Specialized Air Mobility subelement ofSpecial Operations. (79)
Rapid global infiltration, exfiltration and resupply of personnel,equipment and materiel using specialized systems andtactics.
chapter 4
The Specialized Refueling subelement of Special Operationsinvolves rapid, __ refueling using specializedsystems and tactics. (79)
Global.
chapter 4
What is the core function Rapid Global Mobility?
The timely deployment, employment, sustainment, augmentation and redeployment of military forces and capabilities across the Range of Military Operations (ROMO).
chapter 4
Name the three subelements of the core functionRapid Global Mobility. (79-80)
1) Airlift; 2) Air Refueling; and 3) Aeromedical Evacuation.
chapter 4
The Airlift subelement of Rapid Global Mobilityinvolves transporting and delivering forces and materiel through the air to support strategic, operational or __ objectives. (79)
Tactical.
chapter 4
Define the Air Refueling subelement of Rapid Global Mobility. (80)
Refueling by another aircraft inflight.
chapter 4
In the Aeromedical Evacuation subelement of Rapid Global Mobility, patients are transported by air to and between Medical Treatment Facilities (MTF). T/F (80)
True
chapter 4
The core function, Personnel Recovery (PR), is thesum of military, diplomatic and civil efforts to recover and reintegrate __ personnel. (80)
Isolated.
chapter 4
Name the five subelements of the core function, PersonnelRecovery (PR). (80)
1) Combat Search and Rescue; 2) Civil Search and Rescue; 3) Disaster Response; 4) Humanitarian Assistance Operations; and 5) Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuation.
chapter 4
What is the purpose of the Tactics, Techniques andProcedures (TTP) in the Combat Search and Rescue subelement of Personnel Recovery (PR)? (80)
Recovering isolated personnel during combat.
chapter 4
Which subelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) is the Air Force’s primary method of recovering isolated personnel during combat? (80)
Combat Search and Rescue.
chapter 4
The Personnel Recovery (PR) subelement, CivilSearch and Rescue, uses resources to search for and rescue distressed persons on land or at sea in what type of environment? (80)
A permissive one.
chapter 4
The Personnel Recovery (PR) subelement, DisasterResponse, consists of flexible, rapidly deployable ground rescue forces who assist US government agencies and embassies during disasters. T/F (80)
False. (It include air and ground forces.)
chapter 4
The Humanitarian Assistance Operations Vsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) includes programs to relieve or reduce results of disasters or human pain, disease, __ or privation. (80)
Hunger.
chapter 4
Humanitarian assistance provided by US forces islimited in __ and __ . (80)
Scope and duration.
chapter 4
The Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuationsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) details the use of predesignated, temporarily equipped and staffed evacuation crafts. What kind of medical care do they provide?(80)
En route medical care.
chapter 4
The Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuationsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) involves the __ movement of casualties aboard ships, land vehicles or aircraft. (80)
Unregulated.
chapter 4
The Agile Combat Support (ACS) core functionfields, protects and sustains Air Force forces across the Range of Military Operations (ROMO) to achieve individual effects. T IF (80)
False. (It achieves joint effects.)
chapter 4
What are the seven subelements of the Agile Combat Support (ACS) core function? (80-81)
I) Ready the Total Force; 2) Prepare the Battlespace; 3) Position the Total Force; 4) Protect the Total Force; 5) Employ Combat Support Forces; 6) Sustain the Total Force; and 7) Recover the Total Force.
chapter 4
List the three mission elements of the Agile CombatSupport (ACS) subelement, Ready the Total Force. (80)
1) Organizing, training and equipping forces; 2) establishing quality of life and maintaining core security; and 3) fielding and planning for use of operational and support forces to meet global mission requirements.
chapter 4
What are the three mission elements of the AgileCombat Support (ACS) subelement, Prepare theBattlespace? (80)
I) Assessing, planning and posturing for rapid employment; 2) prepositioning resources and conditioning locations to meet closure timing; and 3) establishing sustainment levels for potential operations.
chapter 4
The Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Position the Total Force, includes the mission elements: 1) preparing to deploy, deploying, receiving and bedding down tailored and prioritized forces; 2) establishing initial operations and support cadres in a joint operations area; and 3) distributing prepositioned resources. Name the other three. (80)
4) Establishing initial reachback connectivity; 5) securing operation locations; and 6) preparing for mission operations.
chapter 4
What are the key focus areas of the Agile CombatSupport (ACS) subelement, Protect the Total Force? (81)
Personnel, critical assets and information.
chapter 4
The Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Employ Combat Support Forces, includes the mission elements: 1) engaging support forces in support of mission operations; 2) initializing, launching, recovering and regenerating operational elements; 3) executing support through __ relationships; and 4) commencing reachback operations to strategic levels of support. (81)
Supporting-supported
chapter 4
Name the two mission elements of the Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Sustain the Total Force. (81)
1) Producing assured capacities and levels of support; and 2) accomplishing long-term mastery of an operational environment, peacetime and wartime.
chapter 4
How does the Agile Combat Support (ACS)subelement, Sustain the Total Force, accomplish longterm mastery of an operational environment? (81)
With persistent and effective materiel and personnel support through local and reachback processes.
chapter 4
What are the four mission elements of the AgileCombat Support (ACS) subelement, Recover the Total Force? (81)
1) preparing forces to remain in place, redeploy, relocate and be reconstituted to prescribed levels ofreadiness; 2) restoring operating locations and environments to planned conditions; 3) protecting the dynamic levels of force structure; and 4) ensuring mission elements can be effectively applied at the direction of national leadership.
chapter 4
The core function involves interacting withinternational Airmen and other relevant actors to develop, guide and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security. (81)
Building Partnerships.
chapter 4
Through words and deeds, most interaction in theBuilding Partnerships core function creates trust-based relationships for mutual benefit. T/F (81)
True
chapter 4
What are the two subelements of the core function,Building Partnerships? (81)
1) Communicate; and 2) Shape.
chapter 4
The Communicate subelement of Building Partnerships develops and presents information to domestic audiences to improve understanding. For what reason does it develop and present information to foreign adversary audiences? (81)
To affect perceptions, will, behavior and capabilities, thereby furthering US or global security.
chapter 4
Define the Shape subelement of Building Partnerships. (81)
Conducting actlv1t1es to affect perceptions, will, behavior and capabilities of partners, military forces and relevant populations to further US and global security.
chapter 4
Define Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)doctrine. (81)
Those beliefs, distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of Airmen to the next, that guide what we do; codified practices on how best to employ air and space power.
chapter 4
What is the mechanism for managing and scheduling forces for expeditionary use? (81)
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).
chapter 4
The Air Force organizes, deploys and employs using organizational principles based on __ . (81)
Doctrine.
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is a means to provide forces and support on a rotational and more predictable basis. T/F (81)
True
chapter 4
What kind of period do units undergo before entering another deployment/mobilization vulnerability period? (81)
A period of dwell.
chapter 4
What are the four major elements of the Air andSpace Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure? (81-82)
1) A readily available force; 2) an enabler force; 3) in-place support; and 4) an institutional force.
chapter 4
What major element of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure provides the Air Force’s sustainment capability to comply with federal law (10 US Code (U.S.C.))? (82)
An institutional force.
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is aforce management tool that establishes a predictable, standardized battle __ . (82)
Rhythm.
chapter 4
What does a standardized battle rhythm ensure forrotational forces? (81)
That they are properly organized, trained, equipped and ready to sustain capabilities while responding to emerging crises.
chapter 4
The Air Force supports global Combatant Commander (CCDR) requirements through a combination of what forces that may be forward deployed, transient or operating from home station? (81)
1) Assigned; 2) attached (rotational); and 3) mobility forces.
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operates on a __ -month life cycle. (81)
24-month.
chapter 4
What does an Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) life cycle include? (81)
Periods of 1) normal training; 2) preparation; and 3) deployment vulnerability. (Each tempo band operates under a different battle rhythm.)
chapter 4
How long is the baseline Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability period? (82)
Six months. (This facilitates readiness to respond to rotational and Operations Plan (OPLAN) requirements.)
chapter 4
When are Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)forces on-call? (82)
At any time during their postured vulnerability period.
chapter 4
Are Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forcesvulnerable for Operations Plan (OPLAN) requirements immediately following redeployment? (82)
Yes.
chapter 4
0rganizing, equipping, resourcing and training are__ to generate ready forces for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operations. (82)
Synchronized.
chapter 4
How long are the blocks for tempo bands “B”through “E”? (82)
Six months.
chapter 4
What are the deploy-to-dwell ratios for tempo bands “B” through “E”? (82)
I :4, I :3, I :2 and 1: 1, respectively.
chapter 4
Tempo bands and enabler forces contain both active component and Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces. TIF (82)
True
chapter 4
Blocks are 6-month vulnerability periods within theAir and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo bands when forces possess necessary capabilities to meet __ requirements. (82)
Combatant Commander (CCDR).
chapter 4
What does the Air Force identify as key components of the readily available force when fulfilling the SecDers requirements? (82)
Enabler and institutional forces.
chapter 4
A(n) force includes common user assets thatprovide support to authorized organizations within and outside the DoD. (82)
Enabler force.
chapter 4
List two common user assets included in an enabler force.(82)
Any two of the following forces: 1) global mobility; 2) Special Operation Forces (SOF); 3) personnel recovery; 4) space; and 5) other uniquely categorized.
chapter 4
Most High Demand/Low Supply (HD/LS) assets arepostured as enabler forces and rotate as operational requirements dictate. What two other systems are included in this posturing? (82)
The National Air Mobility System and Theater Air Control System {TACS).
chapter 4
Enabler forces can easily align in one of the tempobands. T/F (82)
False. (However, every effort must be made to develop a sustainable plan.)
chapter 4
A(n) __ force consists of those forces assigned toorganizations responsible to carry out the SECAF 10 US Code (U.S.C.) functions at the Air Force level. (82)
Institutional force.
chapter 4
Who must grant a waiver for institutional forces toposture Unit Type Codes (UTC) in the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) capability library? (82)
Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
chapter 4
Even though institutional force organizations do notrepresent a __ capability, the individuals assigned to them are inherently __ . (82)
Warfighting; deployable.
chapter 4
What aligns how forces are apportioned, assignedand allocated to support the National Defense Strategy (NDS) and Joint Force availability requirements and assessments? (82)
Global Force Management (GFM).
chapter 4
Global Force Management (GFM) presents comprehensive insight into the global availability of US military forces and capabilities. What proposed changes does it help senior decisionmakers quickly and accurately assess? (82)
The impact and risk of proposed changes to allocation, assignment and apportionment.
chapter 4
What are the two supporting processes for the Global Force Management (GFM) allocation process? (82)
1) Rotational force allocation in support of Combatant Commander (CCDR) annual force needs; and 2) Emergent force allocation in support of CCDR emerging or crisis based requests for capabilities and forces.
chapter 4
The Air Force supports Global Force Management(GFM) through the __ construct. (82)
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).
chapter 4
Tempo bands synchronize with two -monthGlobal Force Management (GFM) cycles and manages forces through GFM assignment, allocation and apportionment. (82)
12-month.
chapter 4
Define Unit Type Code (UTC). (82)
A potential capability focused on accomplishing a specific mission that the Air Force or other military service provides.
chapter 4
A(n) __ capability is aligned into a tempo bandbased on requirements relative to its assigned rotational capability for each vulnerability period. (82)
Unit Type Code (UTC).
chapter 4
Who approves tempo band placement recommendations? (82)
The applicable Headquarters Air Force (HAF), Deputy Chief ofStaff(DCS) and equivalents.
chapter 4
The Air Force presents required capabilities to theJoint Force Commander (JFC) as __ . (83)
Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) is in response to what kind of tasking? (83)
Operational.
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) provides task-organized, integrated package with the appropriate balance of what four things? (83)
I) Force; 2) sustainment; 3) control; and 4) force protection.
chapter 4
Name the three components of an Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF). (83)
1) A single, clearly designated commander; 2) appropriate Command and Control (C2) mechanisms; and 3) tailored and fully supported forces.
chapter 4
In what four ways can the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) be task organized? (83)
As a(n) 1) Numbered Expeditionary Air Force (NEAF); 2) Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW); 3) Air Expeditionary Group (AEG); or 4) Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES).
chapter 4
Does an Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW) or an AirExpeditionary Group (AEG) normally establish and operate an air base? (83)
An AEW. (It also exercises Command and Control (C2) of subordinate units at geographically separated locations.)
chapter 4
How is an Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW) structured?(83)
According to the Air Force combat wing structure.
chapter 4
How many Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW) arenormally at a single location? (83)
One.
chapter 4
The __ is normally the smallest and independentlydeployable Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF). (83)
Air Expeditionary Group (AEG).
chapter 4
Normally deployed as a tenant unit, what is an AirExpeditionary Group (AEG) not normally capable ofdoing? (83)
Establishing and operating a base.
chapter 4
If deployed as an independent group, as part of alarger Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) with other Air Expeditionary Groups (AEG) and/or Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW), the AEG commander normally reports to whom? (83)
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).
chapter 4
What is the basic warfighting organization of the AirForce and the building block of the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)? (83)
The Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES).
chapter 4
How many life cycles does the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule encompass? (83)
Two 12-month life cycles that align with the Global Force Management (GFM) cycle and coincide with FYs.
chapter 4
What do functional areas revalidate prior to the beginning of every Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) cycle? (83)
Their tempo band alignment. (Realigning forces if necessary.)
chapter 4
How often is a new 24-month Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule established? (83)
Every 12 months.
chapter 4
Designated warfighting capabilities are grouped into force packages identified by __ . (83)
Unit Type Codes (UTC).
chapter 4
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces canbe postured as ready to deploy to support Combatant Commander’s (CCDR) worldwide requirements, home station requirements or __ support for CCDRs. (83)
Reach back.
chapter 4
How do force providers of designated warfightingorganizations posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations? (83)How do force providers of designated war fighting organizations posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations? (83)
As standard deployable Unit Type Codes (UTC).
chapter 4
Unit Type Codes (UTC) in bands “B” through “E”and enablers have different battle rhythms that may fall outside the base’s two Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods. T/F (83)
True.
chapter 4
Personnel who are not assigned to war fighting organizations have an Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) association in the __ equivalent to a 6-month availability window. (83)
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
chapter 4
At any given time, how many Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) blocks from each tempo band are in the AEF vulnerability period? (83)
One. (They will meet known rotational expeditionary and emerging operational requirements.)
chapter 4
If not deployed, forces aligned to the Air and SpaceExpeditionary Forces (AEF) in the vulnerability period remain in ___ status for the duration of their AEF vulnerability period. (84)
On-call status.
chapter 4
If tasked, can deployment extend outside of a force’s vulnerability period? (84)
Yes. (In such cases, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center Directorate of Casualty Matters (HQ AFPC/DPW) coordinates with supported component HQ to synchronize deployments with Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods.)
chapter 4
Regardless of Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) vulnerability period, which AEF forces are vulnerable for Operations Plan (OPLAN) tasking at all times - including the period immediately following redeployment? (84)
All AEF forces. (If the SecDef determines the need to reach forward.)
chapter 4
All Airmen have an Air and Space ExpeditionaryForce (AEF) __ corresponding to an AEF vulnerability period and they deploy during that vulnerability period, unless reaching forward. (84)
Air and Space Expeditionary Force Indicator (AEFI). (Determined by their commander.)
chapter 4
Under what conditions can the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surge? (84)
When requirements exceed available forces within the vulnerability period.
chapter 4
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surgemethods include reaching forward. Name three other surge methods. (84)
2) Reaching deeper; 3) rebanding capability; and 4) mobilizing Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces.
chapter 4
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surgesrequire forces to deploy/employ during what periods? (84)
During normal training and/or predeployment training periods.
chapter 4
Reaching forward should be used for an ___ _in requirements. (84-Tbl)
Initial increase.
chapter 4
If an “initial increase” will endure, what should thatcapability area do? (84-Tbl)
Reband during the next Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule.
chapter 4
Surge operations can make all Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) blocks and enablers available. How can this severely curtail Air Force capabilities? (84)
It requires a sustained period to reconstitute forces after the surge.
chapter 4
What surge operations can only be used if directedby Headquarters Air Force Operations, Plans and Requirements Directorate (HAF/A3/5 )? (84)
Those used to support exercises or rotations.
chapter 4
Describe the maximum sustainable utilization ratethat maintains total Air Force unit readiness category levels 1 and 2. (84)
One deployment period followed by a dwell period that is twice as long (I :2).
chapter 4
A unit that has the resources and is trained for full wartime missions is at readiness category level __ . (84-85)
Level 1.
chapter 4
Describe a unit classified at readiness category level 2. (85)
It has the resources and is trained for most of the wartime missions.
chapter 4
Functional areas aligned in which tempo bandshould consider involuntary recall of Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces when demand exceeds postured capabilities within the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability window? (85)
Band “D.”
chapter 4
Functional areas that entered surge operations must be __ .(85)
Reconstituted. (This is the restoration of combat capability following operations.)
chapter 4
Who develops and executes a reconstitution plan?(85)
The 1) Headquarters Air Force (HAF) Functional Area Manager (FAM); 2) MAJCOM; 3) Air Reserve Component (ARC); and 4) Air Force Personnel Center Directorate of Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) and Personnel Operations (AFPC/DPW).
chapter 4
When will the Air Force War and Mobilization Division (AF/A5XW) work with the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) to provide an overall assessment and Course of Action (COA)? (85)
Where reconstitution is necessary for multiple functional areas across the AEF construct. (It is provided to the Air Force Crisis Action Team (AFCAT) or Air Force Operations Group (AFOG) for Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) approval.)
chapter 4
Response to crises and expeditious reconstitution to a rotational posture is not critical to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept. T/F (85)
False. (It is critical and should have the least possible impact on the AEF schedule.)
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) provides Airmen a degree of predictability in each Global Force Management (GFM) cycle. Does this guarantee Airmen the same predictability from one period to the next? (85)
No.
chapter 4
How many Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) vulnerability periods are Airmen assigned to in a tempo band? (85)
Only one. (This mirrors the AEF block their unit’s Unit Type Codes {UTC) are aligned with.)
chapter 4
Under what condition will inbound Airmen (PCS orPermanent Change of Assignment (PCA)) have to deploy again with less than the dwell for their capability tempo band? (85)
Only if the wing commander or equivalent approves an exception.
chapter 4
How soon may Airmen, who are temporarily disqualified during their Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods, be used when they return? (85)
Immediately when they return to deployable status, to fill out-of-cycle requirements or short-notice individual augmentation requests. (Unit commanders may also realign them with an upcoming vulnerability period, with wing commander approval.)
chapter 4
____ may seek Airmen to voluntarily deploy outsidethe Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability period to fill temporarily nondeployable positions. (85)
Unit commanders.
chapter 4
What are the four requirements for two individualsto switch Air and Space Expeditionary Force Indicators (AEFI)? (85)
l) They must be from the same unit; 2) they must have they same qualifications; 3) the unit’s needs are still met; and 4) the wing commander approves it.
chapter 4
How many approved requests for an Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Indicator (AEFI) swap should be allowed? (85)
One approved request per individual, per Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule. (Wings must report these changes to the MAJ COM Vice Commander (CV).)
chapter 4
What should the US Air Force assignment processcoincide with, as much as possible? (85)
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) battle rhythm.
chapter 4
Commanders try to schedule what three things during the three-month period immediately following an Airman’s deployment eligibility period or return from deployment? (85)
1) PCS and Permanent Change of Assignment (PCA) departure dates; 2) terminal leave dates for retirement; and 3) separation dates.
chapter 4
On what records will the US Air Force assignmentprocess formally track Air and Space ExpeditionaryForce (AEF) deployments? (85)
On individual personnel records.
chapter 4
The US Air Force assignment process will providevisibility of individuals to whom? (85)
To all commanders.
chapter 4
Commanders must try to __ PME and Developmental Education (DE) timing with Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods. (85)
De-conflict.
chapter 4
A scheduled Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) deployment is justification for operational deferment from PME/Developmental Education (DE). T/F (85-86)
False.
chapter 4
When should Airmen not be relieved from deployedduty for PME or Developmental Education (DE)? (86)
When alternate school start dates would allow deployment.
chapter 4
List several topics you must understand to operatesuccessfully as members of a joint team. (86)
The 1) foundations of joint doctrine; 2) doctrine that governs unified direction of armed forces; 3) functions of the DoD and its major components; 4) principles for joint command and control; 5) joint command doctrine; 6) methods of joint planning; 7) guidance for multinational operations; and 8) interagency, intergovernmental and nongovernmental organizations you coordinate with.
chapter 4
The armed forces fulfill their roles, m1ss10ns andfunctions within the American system of __ -militaryrelations. (86)
Civil-military.
chapter 4
The armed forces serve under the civilian control ofwhom? (86)
The President of the United States, as Commander in Chief (CINC)
chapter 4
The armed forces must be a fully integrated jointteam across the range of military operations. With whom must we work together? (86)
1) Military forces of allies and coalition partners; 2) US and foreign government agencies; 3) state and local government agencies; and 4) intergovernmental and nongovernmental organizations.
chapter 4
Joint warfare is team warfare and requires effectiveintegration. Will all forces be equally represented? (86)
No. Joint Force Commanders (JFC) choose the capabilities needed.
chapter 4
Joint doctrine represents what works best. Whatcommonalities does it promote? (86)
Common values and a common perspective on planning, training and conducting military operations.
chapter 4
Integrity is one of the five values that impact jointoperations and are proven vital for operational success. Name the other four. (86)
2) Competency; 3) physical courage; 4) moral courage; and 5) teamwork.
chapter 4
Joint warfighters must be skilled in thinking strategically, optimizing __ capabilities, applying strategic and operational warfare, and having a __ perspective. (86)
Joint capabilities; joint perspective.
chapter 4
National ______ direction leads to unified action ofarmed forces. (86)
Strategic.
chapter 4
What four factors govern national strategic direction? (86)
1) The Constitution; 2) federal law; 3) US Government (USG) policy on internationally-recognized law; and 4) national interests.
chapter 4
Effective unified action of armed forces results inunity of __ . (86)
Unity of effort.
chapter 4
At the strategic level, unity of effort requires coordination among and between what entities? (86)
1) Government departments and executive agencies; 2) executive and legislative branches; 3) Nongovernmental Organizations (NGO); 4) Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO) ; 5) the private sector; and 6) allied or coalition nations.
chapter 4
What term broadly refers to synchronizing, coordinating and/or integrating the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort? (86)
Unified action.
chapter 4
The President and SecDef exercise authority andcontrol of the armed forces through what two distinct branches of the chain of command? (86, 87-Fig)
1) The operational branch; and 2) administrative branch.
chapter 4
Describe the operational chain of command. (86)
It runs from the President through the SecDefto the Combatant Commanders (CCDR) for missions and forces assigned to them.
chapter 4
The administrative chain of command runs from the President through the SecDefto whom? (86)
To the Secretaries of the military departments.
chapter 4
The administrative chain of command is used forwhat purposes? (86)
For purposes other than operational direction of forces assigned to the Combatant Commands (COCOM).
chapter 4
The Secretaries of the military departments exercise authority through their own service __ over service forces not assigned to the Combatant Commander (CCDR) (i.e., forces in the training pipeline). (86-87)
Chiefs. (Service chiefs are directly responsible to the service Secretaries.)
chapter 4
lnteroperability helps the forces, units and __ ofall the services operate together effectively. (87)
Systems.
chapter 4
lnteroperability includes conducting joint trainingand exercises, as well as developing and using what three things? (87)
1) Joint doctrine; 2) joint Operations Plans (OPLAN); and 3) joint and/or interoperable communications and information systems.
chapter 4
The DoD is composed of what nine components? (87)
The 1) Office of SecDef (OSD); 2) military departments; 3) Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS); 4) Joint Staff; 5) Combatant Commands (COCOM); 6) IG of the DoD; 7) DoD agencies; 8) DoD field activities; and 9) other offices, agencies, activities and commands established by law, the President or the SecDef.
chapter 4
The DoD maintains and employs armed forces tofulfill what three aims? (87)
To 1) support and defend the Constitution against all enemies, foreign and domestic; 2) ensure, by timely and effective military action, the security of the US, its possessions and areas vital to its interest; and 3) uphold and advance US national policies and interests.
chapter 4
List the seven components of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS). (87)
The 1) Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); 2) Vice Chairman of the JCS; 3) Chief of Staff, US Army (CSA); 4) Chief of Naval Operations (CNO); 5) Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF); 6) Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC); and 7) Joint Staff.
chapter 4
Who may invite the Commandant of the CoastGuard to join Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) meetings or discussions? (87)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS) or service chiefs.
chapter 4
The commanders of the geographic commands areeach assigned a geographic __ . (87)
Area of Responsibility (AOR).
chapter 4
Name the six geographic commands. (87)
1) US Central Command (USCENTCOM); 2) US European Command (USEUCOM); 3) US Pacific Command (USP ACOM); 4) US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM); 5) US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM ); and 6) US Africa Command (USAFRICOM
chapter 4
The President or the SecDef may direct forces fromany geographic area. T/F (87)
True.
chapter 4
Commanders of the functional commands directlysupport the President or the SecDef. Who do they normally coordinate with? (87)
With the Geographic Combatant Command (GCC) of the Area of Responsibility (AOR) where an operation is conducted.
chapter 4
List the functional commands. (87)
1) US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM); 2) US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM); and 3) US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).
chapter 4
Commanders of the functional commands supportGeographic Combatant Commanders (GCC). Who can designate them as the supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) for an operation? (87)
The SecDef.
chapter 4
Unity of __ means all forces operate under a singlecommander with authority to direct them toward acommon purpose. (87)
Unity of command.
chapter 4
Unity of __ requires coordination and cooperationamong all forces toward a common objective. (87-88)
Unity of effort.
chapter 4
Unity of effort does not necessarily require forces to be part of the same command structure. T IF (88)
True.
chapter 4
What four types of authorities are exercised through the operational chain of command? (88, 89-Fig)
1) Combatant Command (COCOM); 2) Operational Control (OPCON); 3) Tactical Control (TACON); and 4) support command.
chapter 4
Combatant Command (COCOM) is a CombatantCommander’s (CCDR) authority. To whom can it bedelegated or transferred? (88)
It cannot be delegated or transferred.
chapter 4
A Combatant Commander (CCDR) exercises Combatant Command (COCOM) over forces that accomplish what four functions? (88)
1) Organize and employ commands and forces; 2) assign tasks; 3) designate objectives; and 4) direct all aspects of military operations, joint training and logistics.
chapter 4
Operational Control (OPCON) provides authority toorganize and employ commands and forces to accomplish assigned missions. Who can exercise OPCON or delegate it within the command? (88)
Commanders at or below the Combatant Command (COCOM) level.
chapter 4
Which other command authority is inherent inCombatant Command (COCOM)? (88)
Operational Control (OPCON). (It includes authority over all aspects of military operations and joint training to accomplish assigned missions.)
chapter 4
Tactical Control (TACON) is inherent in which othercommand authority? (88)
Operational Control (OPCON).
chapter 4
Tactical Control (T ACON) may be delegated to orexercised by commanders at what echelons? (88)
Commanders at or below the level of Combatant Command (COCOM).
chapter 4
Tactical Control (T ACON) is command over whatforces? (88)
Assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capabilities or forces available for tasking.
chapter 4
Tactical Control (T ACON) is limited to detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area. T/F (88)
True.
chapter 4
When one organization should aid, protect, complement or sustain another force, a superior commander establishes a relationship between subordinate commanders. (88)
Support. (The support relationship is vague, flexible and conveys priorities to commanders and staff.)
chapter 4
Commanders at what levels may exercise supportauthority? (88)
Commanders at or below the Combatant Command (COCOM) level.
chapter 4
Who establishes support command relationships? (88)
The common superior commander. (He or she ensures both the supported commander and supporting commanders understand the degree of authority the supported commander is granted.)
chapter 4
Who designates support relationships between Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? (88)
The SecDef. (Also support relationships within a Combatant Command (COCOM).)
chapter 4
What authority does the administrative chain ofcommand exercise? (88, 89-Fig)
Administrative Control (ADCON).
chapter 4
Administrative Control (ADCON) is direction orauthority over __ or other organizations for administration and support. (88)
Subordinate.
chapter 4
List five “organize, train and equip” functions underAdministrative Control (ADCON) authority. (88)
Any five of the following: 1) organization of service forces; 2) control of resources and equipment; 3) personnel management; 4) unit logistics; 5) individual and unit training; 6) readiness; 7) mobilization; 8) demobilization; 9) discipline; and 10) other matters not included in operational missions.
chapter 4
Does Administrative Control (ADCON) flow throughservice channels or through joint channels? (88)
Through service channels. (It is a service command authority.)
chapter 4
Who assigns all National Guard and Reserve forcesto the Combatant Commands (COCOM), unless specifically exempted? (88)
The SecDef.
chapter 4
National Guard and Reserve forces are only available for operational missions under what two conditions? (88)
When 1) mobilized for specific periods according to law; or 2) ordered to active duty (after their parent service validates them for employment).
chapter 4
Joint Forces are established on a geographic area or functional basis. They can be established at what three levels? (88)
1) Unified commands; 2) subordinate unified commands; or 3) Joint Task Forces (JTF).
chapter 4
Joint Forces are commanded by a __ . (88)
Joint Force Commander (JFC).
chapter 4
The Joint Force Commander (JFC) can be one ofwhat three types of commanders? (88)
A 1) Combatant Commander (CCDR); 2) subunified commander; or 3) Joint Task Force (JTF) commander.
chapter 4
Joint Force Commanders (JFC) exercise commandauthority or operational control over a Joint Force. T/F (88)
True.
chapter 4
Who establishes unified commands and specifiedcommands with broad continuing missions? (88-89)
The President. (Through the SecDef with advice and assistance of the Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS).)
chapter 4
A __ command has a single commander and iscomposed of forces from two or more military departments. (88)
Unified command.
chapter 4
How many specified commands currently are designated? (89)
None.
chapter 4
Commanders of unified commands may establishsubordinate unified commands (subunified commands) with whose authorization? (89)
The SecDef, through the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).
chapter 4
Who may constitute and designate a Joint Force as a Joint Task Force (JTF)? (89)
The SecDef, Combatant Commander (CCDR), subordinate unified commander or existing JTF commander.
chapter 4
The operational branch of Joint Force organizationruns from the President or SecDef through the unified Combatant Commander (CCDR) to what two levels? (89- Fig)
Through the subunified commander to the Joint Task Force (JTF) commander.
chapter 4
Is a Joint Task Force (JTF) established on a geographical basis or a functional basis? (89)
Either a geographical or functional basis.
chapter 4
Joint Task Force (JTF) missions have a broad objective and require overall centralized logistical control. T/F (89)
False. (They have a specific limited objective and no need for overall centralized logistical control.)
chapter 4
What does a service component command consist of? (89)
The service component commander and service forces assigned to that Combatant Commander (CCDR).
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Who commands a US Air Force service componentat any joint level, providing unity of command? (89)
A Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).
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The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)commands forces through which chain of responsibility - operational or administrative? (89)
Both operational and administrative.
chapter 4
Who normally delegates Operational Control(OPCON) of Air Force component forces to the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)? (89)
The Joint Force Commander (JFC).
chapter 4
The administrative chain only runs through servicechannels. Describe it. (89)
It runs from the unit, through the MAJCOM, to the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) and SECAF.
chapter 4
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)has complete Administrative Control (ADCON) of which forces? (89)
All assigned Air Force component forces.
chapter 4
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)has some Administrative Control (ADCON) responsibilitiesfor Air Force elements and personnel assigned toother joint force components. T/F (89)
True. (Such as liaisons.)
chapter 4
Who commands an Air and Space ExpeditionaryTask Force (AETF)? (90)
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).
chapter 4
The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) is a scalable organization containing what three elements? (90)
1) The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) (a single commander); 2) command and control mechanisms; and 3) tailored and fully supported forces.
chapter 4
Should the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) first draw from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) currently on rotation or from in-theater resources? (90)
Draw first from in-theater resources, then as needed from the AEF currently on rotation.
chapter 4
Which elements should fully support Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF) forces, whether in theater or deployed from out of theater? (90)
Maintenance, logistical support, health services and administrative elements.
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How do forces form up within the Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF)? (90)
As expeditionary wings, groups, squadrons, flights, detachments or elements.
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A(n) __ may be regional or functional and alignswith the purpose of the unified command it supports. (90)
Air and Space Air Operations Center (AOC).
chapter 4
Which of these does the Commander, Air ForceForces (COMAFFOR) exercise - Operational Control (OPCON), Tactical Control (TACON), Administrative Control (ADCON) or an Air Operations Center (AOC)? (90)
The COMAFFOR exercises all of these.
chapter 4
The character of the Air and Space ExpeditionaryTask Force (AETF) operations center varies, depending on the nature of the forces. Which may not be an AETF operations center –a large, fixed Falconer Air Operations Center (AOC); the Tanker Airlift Control Center at Scott AFB; or the Air Force Space AOC at Vandenberg AFB? (90)
They may all be an AETF operations center, depending on the operation.
chapter 4
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)uses staff for “beds, beans and bullets” sustainment and long-range planning. (90)
Air Force Forces (AFFOR) staff (Also used for theater engagement operations outside the Air Operations Center’s (AOC) current operational focus and service responsibilities.)
chapter 4
Air Operations Center (AOC) and Air Force Forces(AFFOR) staff size and function should be tailored according to the theater and operation. How can the forward footprint be reduced? (90-91)
By maximizing reachback and operating some elements “over the horizon.”
chapter 4
Some humanitarian operations can make do with asmall control center that largely does scheduling and reporting. T/F (90)
True.
chapter 4
Who can establish functional component commands? (91)
Combatant Commanders (CCDR), commanders of subordinate unified commands and Joint Force Commanders (JFC).
chapter 4
List the four functional component commanders in a Joint Task Force (JTF) organization. (91-Fig)
1) Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC) - land; 2) Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) - naval; 3) Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) - air and space; and 4) Joint Force Special Operations Component Commander (JFSOCC) - special ops.
chapter 4
List the five possible commanders of the servicecomponents in a Joint Task Force (JTF) organization. (91-Fig)
1) Commander, Army Forces (COMARFOR); 2) Commander, Navy Forces (COMNA VFOR); 3) Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR); 4) Commander, Marine Corps Forces (COMMARFOR); and 5) Commander, Coast Guard Forces (COMCGFOR).
chapter 4
How is a commander designated if air and spaceassets from more than one service are present within a Joint Force? (91)
The Joint Force Commander (JFC) normally designates a Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC).
chapter 4
Which service component commander should bedesignated the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)? (91)
The one with the preponderance of air and space capabilities and the ability to plan, task and control joint air and space operations.
chapter 4
In a coalition or alliance operation, the Joint ForceAir and Space Component Commander (JFACC) may be designated the __ . (91)
The Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFACC).
chapter 4
One person will normally be dual-hatted as Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander(JF ACC)/Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFACC). T/F (91)
True.
chapter 4
Because the Joint Force Air and Space ComponentCommander (JF ACC) and the Joint Force Commander (JFC) typically maintain the same joint operating area/ theater-wide perspective, the JFACC should be dual hatted as the JFC. T/F (92)
False. (They do share the same perspective, but should not be dual-hatted.)
chapter 4
A Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)exercises Operational Control (OPCON) of Air ForceForces (AFFOR) and (as Joint Force Air and SpaceComponent Commander (JFACC)) exercises __ ofavailable Navy, Army, Marine and coalition air andspace assets. (92)
Tactical Control (TACON).
chapter 4
Functional component commanders normally exercise of forces the Joint Force Commander (JFC) assigns to them. (92)
Tactical Control (TACON).
chapter 4
Joint operation planning is conducted within thechain of command running from the President through the SecDef to the Combatant Commanders (CCDR) and their subordinate Joint Force Commanders (JFC). Who develops the plans? (92)
The CCDRs.
chapter 4
Joint operations planning is a continuous processthat produces Operations Plans (OPLAN) that progress from very detailed to less detailed. Describe these plans. (92)
1) OPLANs - complete, detailed joint operations plans; 2) concept plans - abbreviated joint operation plans; and 3) base plans or commander’s estimates - less detailed operation plans. (Joint planning activities support these.)
chapter 4
List the six activities that joint operation planningencompasses. (92)
Planning for 1) mobilization; 2) deployment; 3) employment; 4) sustainment; 5) redeployment; and 6) demobilization.
chapter 4
Who primarily conducts joint operation mobilizationplanning, readying forces for war or other nationalemergency? (92)
Military departments and services. (Cooperating closely with supported commanders and their service component commanders.)
chapter 4
Joint operation mobilization should not activate theReserve Component. T/F (92)
False. (It may activate all or part of the Reserve Component.)
chapter 4
Who is responsible for joint operation deploymentplanning? (92)
The Combatant Commander (CCDR) and US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
chapter 4
Which type of joint operations planning applies force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area? (92)
Employment planning.
chapter 4
Who has primary responsibility for joint operationemployment planning? (92)
The supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) and subordinateand supporting commanders.
chapter 4
Joint operation employment planning provides thefoundation for, determines the scope of, and is limited by what three other planning activities? (92)
Mobilization, deployment and sustainment planning.
chapter 4
Joint operation __ planning provides logistics and personnel services to maintain and prolong operations until the mission is successfully completed. (92)
Sustainment planning.
chapter 4
Who are primarily responsible for joint operationsustainment? (92)
The supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) and their service component commanders. (Cooperating closely with the services, combat support agencies and supporting commands.)
chapter 4
During joint operations planning, where does redeployment planning transfer units, individuals or supplies?(92)
From one area to another, to another location within the area for further employment, or to their original location and status.
chapter 4
Joint operation redeployment planning is primarilythe responsibility of the supported commanders and their service component commanders. Who do they cooperate closely with? (92)
The supporting Combatant Commander (CCDR) and US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
chapter 4
Which type of joint operations planning includesreturning Reserve Component units, individuals andmateriels to their former status? (92)
Demobilization planning.
chapter 4
Who is primarily responsible for joint operationsdemobilization? (92)
Military departments and services. (Cooperating closely with supported commanders and their service component commanders.)
chapter 4
The Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is the single joint and service planning system for preparing operation plans and associated planning documents. T /F (92)
False. (There are a multitude of systems.)
chapter 4
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System(JOPES) is a system of joint policies, procedures and reportingstructures. What two types of systems support it?(92)
1) Communications systems; and 2) computer systems.
chapter 4
Do joint planners use Joint Operation Planning andExecution System (JOPES) to monitor, plan and execute planning activities during peace or during crisis? (92)
During both peace and crisis.
chapter 4
What two tasks is Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) designed to facilitate? (92)
1) Rapid building and timely maintenance of plans; and 2) rapid development of effective options during crisis by adapting approved operation plans.
chapter 4
Does Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) allow for effective management of operations during execution across the spectrum, includingmobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization? (92)
Yes.
chapter 4
All joint, conventional time-phased force deployment databases are developed by and reside in __ . (92)
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
chapter 4
Name the Air Force war-planning system that provides an Air Force feed to Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). (93)
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
chapter 4
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) enables __ -unique operation planning and execution processes, including associated joint policy and procedures. (93)
Air Force-unique.
chapter 4
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) provides standard data files, formats, application programs and management procedures. What are these primarily used for? (93)
Force planning, sourcing equipment and personnel requirements, transportation feasibility estimates, civil engineering and medical planning.
chapter 4
What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)system provide for the Air Staff, Air Force planners and Air Force commanders? (93)
The current policies, apportioned forces and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations. (It is the Air Force’s supporting document for several joint documents.)
chapter 4
How many volumes are in the War and MobilizationPlan (WMP)? (93)
Five. (And associated databases.)
chapter 4
The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volumesprovide a consolidated Air Force planning reference for general policies and guidance. List the other four features the WMP provides. (93)
1) A listing of apportioned combat and support forces; 2) a set of planning factors (e.g., sortie rate) by aircraft type and theater; 3) a listing of all active plans with Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD); and 4) the expected aircraft activity at each base in the MAJCOM’s Area of Responsibility (AOR).
chapter 4
Unified action effectively integrates allied capabilities into a(n) __ plan. (93)
Campaign plan.
chapter 4
Partnerships ensure far greater security than the US could achieve independently and must be nurtured and developed. T IF (93)
True. (They require shared principles, a common view of threats and a commitment to cooperation.)
chapter 4
How are multinational operations usually structured? (93)
As a coalition or alliance. (They may also be supervised by an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) such as the UN.)
chapter 4
List several terms commonly used for multinationaloperations. (93)
Allied, bilateral, combined, coalition and multilateral.
chapter 4
A(n) __ results from a formal agreement (e.g.,treaty) between two or more nations with broad, longterm, common objectives. (93)
Alliance.
chapter 4
What are operations with units from two or moreallied nations called? (93)
Combined operations.
chapter 4
A(n) __ is an ad hoc arrangement between two ormore nations for common action. (93)
Coalition.
chapter 4
Coalitions are always formed for a single occasion.T/F (93)
False. (But if long-term, they are for a narrow common interest.)
chapter 4
What are operations with units from two or morecoalition members called? (93)
Coalition operations.
chapter 4
In addition to transnational dangers, what factorsimpact multinational operations? (93)
Cultural, psychological, religious, economic, technological, informational and political factors.
chapter 4
Much of the information and guidance for unifiedaction and joint operations applies to multinational operations. T IF (93)
True. (However, also consider differences in laws, doctrine, organization, weapons, equipment, terminology, culture, politics, religion and language within alliances and coalitions.)
chapter 4
Each alliance or coalition normally develops its own__ to guide multinational action. (93)
Operations Plan (OPLAN).
chapter 4
____ considerations heavily influence the coalitionor alliance command structure. (93)
Political considerations.
chapter 4
In multinational operations, all national forces mustshare a common understanding of what? (93)
The overall aim of the Multinational Force (MNF) and the plan to achieve it, including clearly defined missions, tasks, responsibilities and authorities.
chapter 4
A coordinated policy is essential for unity of effortduring multinational operations. Give an example when coordination is particularly important. (93)
Any one of the following: 1) alliance or coalition commanders authority over national logistics and infrastructure; 2) Rules of Engagement (ROE); 3) fratricide prevention; and 4) intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance.
chapter 4
List the five tenets of multinational operations thathelp ensure unity of effort. (93)
1) Respect; 2) rapport; 3) knowledge of partners; 4) patience; and 5) coordination.
chapter 4
Describe the three basic structures for multinationaloperations. (93-94)
1) Integrated - representative members in command HQ; 2) lead nation - one nation controls forces; and 3) parallel command - no single force commander is designated.
chapter 4
In a multinational operation, each nation normallyestablishes a national command element to effectively administer its forces. What five responsibilities does this accomplish? (94)
1) Administrating and supporting its national forces; 2) coordinating communication to the parent nation; 3) tendering national military views and recommendations directly to the multinational commander; 4) facilitating assignment and reassignment of national forces to subordinate operational multinational organizations; and 5) maintaining personnel accountability.
chapter 4
Even in multinational operations, nations rarely, ifever, relinquish national command of their forces. What results from this? (94)
Forces have at least two distinct chains of command: a national and a multinational.
chapter 4
Command authority for a Multinational Force(MNF) commander must be consistent from nation to nation. T IF (94)
False. (It can vary from nation to nation and is normally negotiated between participating nations.)
chapter 4
When the US participates in multinational operations, who retains and cannot relinquish national command authority over US forces? (94)
The President.
chapter 4
When can the President terminate US participationin multinational operations? (94)
At anytime.
chapter 4
Whose activities include considering the potentialrequirements for interagency, Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) and Nongovernmental Organization (NGO) coordination across the range of military operations within and outside their operational areas? (94)
Combatant Commanders (CCDR) and other subordinate Joint Force Commanders (JFC).
chapter 4
Military operations must be coordinated, integratedand/or deconflicted with the activities of what six entities? (94)
The activities of 1) other US Government (USG) agencies; 2) Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO); 3) Nongovernmental Organizations (NGO); 4) regional organization; 5) foreign forces operations; and 6) host nation agencies within, and en route to and from, the operational area.
chapter 4
How does the interagency coordination process differ from military operations? (94)
The interagency process is more art than science, while military operations depend more on structure and doctrine.
chapter 4
Who advises and assists the President in integrating all aspects of national security policy - domestic, foreign, military, intelligence and economic? (94)
The National Security Council (NSC).
chapter 4
Who advises and assists the President on economic national security policy in conjunction with the National Security Council (NSC)? (94)
The National Economic Council.
chapter 4
Who coordinates, develops and implements national security policy? (94)
The National Security Council (NSC) and subordinate committees.
chapter 4
Name the four statutory members of the NationalSecurity Council (NSC). (94)
The 1) President; 2) Vice President; 3) Secretary of State;and 4) SecDef.
chapter 4
The __ is the National Security Council’s (NSC)statutory military advisor. (94)
Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS).
chapter 4
Who is the National Security Council’s (NSC) statutoryintelligence advisor? (94)
The Director ofNational Intelligence.
chapter 4
Who represents the SecDef in National SecurityCouncil (NSC) interagency groups? (94)
Officials from the Office of the SecDef(OSD).
chapter 4
Who represents the Combatant Commanders(CCDR) for interagency matters in the National Security Council (NSC) system? (94)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), assisted by the Joint Staff
chapter 4
Who advises and assists the President on all aspects of Homeland Security (HS), especially regarding terrorism within the US? (94)
The Homeland Security Council (HSC).
chapter 4
Who coordinates military participation in domesticinteragency operations that counter domestic terrorismand other civil support tasks? (94)
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
chapter 4
The coordinates interagency homeland defense. (94)
DoD.
chapter 4
Who primarily coordinates Executive Branch effortsto detect, prepare for, prevent, protect against, respond to and recover from terrorist attacks within the US? (94)
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
chapter 4
In domestic situations, what three factors limit thescope and nature of military actions? (95)
1) The Constitution; 2) law; and 3) other governmental directives.
chapter 4
The National Guard has unique roles in domesticoperations. Under the control of respective states, whichunits provide a wide variety of civil support? (95)
National Guard units in 32 US Code (U.S.C.) and state activeduty status.
chapter 4
The ____ _____ Act and DoD policy both prohibitusing IO US Code (U.S.C.) DoD forces to enforce the law, except in cases of necessity. (95)
The Posse Comitatus Act.
chapter 4
Army, Air Force, Marine Corps and Navy forces areprohibited from directly participating in civilian law enforcement within the US, unless authorized by whom? (95)
The President, Congress or the Constitution.
chapter 4
A service under Department of Homeland Security(DHS), where does the US Coast Guard have maritime law enforcement jurisdiction? (95)
In US waters and on the high seas.
chapter 4
Which group helps the Combatant Commander(CCDR) collaborate with other US Government (USG)civilian agencies and departments? (95)
A Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG).
chapter 4
The Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)is an element of a(n) __ ‘s staff. (95)
Geographic Combatant Commander’s (GCC) staff.
chapter 4
Why would the Joint Interagency CoordinationGroup (JIACG) be augmented with other partners, suchas Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO), NongovernmentalOrganizations (NGO) and/or multinational representatives?(95)
To enhance Combatant Commander (CCDR) collaborationand coordination with the private sector and/or regional organizations.
chapter 4
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)members participate in what three types of cooperation planning? (95)
I) Contingency; 2) crisis action; and 3) security cooperation planning.
chapter 4
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)members provide a conduit back to whom to synchronize joint operations with other government agencies? (95)
Their parent organizations.
chapter 4
The Air Force must be __ while ensuring all capabilities are __ . (95)
Interdependent; interoperable.
chapter 4
What founding initiative addresses joint interdependence and interoperability? (95)
The Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986. (It is the statutory basis for military command structure change and operational authority consolidation.)
chapter 4
Who sponsored the Goldwater-Nichols Act? (95)
Senator Barry Goldwater and Representative Bill Nichols.
chapter 4
Why was the Goldwater-Nichols Act passed? (95)
To improve 1) how the US Armed Forces conduct joint and coalition operations; and 2) the DoD budget process.
chapter 4
Name four purposes of the Goldwater-Nichols Act.(95-96)
Any four of the following: to 1) address weaknesses noted by interservice rivalries emerging from the Vietnam War (primary); 2) reorganize the DoD and strengthen civilian authority; 3) improve the military advice to the President, National Security Council (NSC), SecDef and unified and specified Combatant Commanders (CCDR) to accomplish missions assigned to those commands; 4) ensure unified and specific CCDR authority is fully commensurate with the responsibility of those commanders to accomplish assigned missions; 5) increase attention to strategy formulation and contingency planning; 6) provide for a more efficient use of defense resources; 7) improve joint officer management policies; and 8) enhance the effectiveness of military operations and improve DoD management and administration.
chapter 4
How were peacetime activities tailored to each service during the Vietnam War? (95)
In isolation. (Wartime activities were planned, executed and evaluated independently.)
chapter 4
What did the Goldwater-Nichols Act ensure? (96)
Less 1) interservice fighting; 2) deadly bureaucracy; and 3) needless casualties. (It allowed for more military cohesion.)
chapter 4
What is the future and key to our success? (96)
The smart integration of joint and coalition coordination.
chapter 4
What operation(s) experienced one of the first successful combinations of joint and coalition integrations? (96)
Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm.
chapter 4
What was exploited during various phases of Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm? (96)
The unique capabilities of each US military service and our allies.
chapter 4
The combined force provided a __ combat capability during Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm. (96)
Synergistic. (It brought the greatest possible military power to bear against the opponent.)
chapter 4
Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm reaffirmed the importance of joint and combined training, the value of forward presence and the validity of joint force sequencing for power-projection. T/F (96)
True.
chapter 4
After the Gulf War, there was a near unanimousagreement that __ -based systems greatly increased the overall effectiveness of coalition forces. (96)
Space-based.
chapter 4
What increases and/or balances the successful outcome of a military objective? (96)
The strengths, resources and training of one service or nation.
chapter 4
The Air Force’s unity of __ provides unique capabilities that bridge a comprehensive joint and coalition approach. (96)
Unity of effort. (It involves coordination and cooperation of common objectives, even if participants are not part of the same command or organization, but the product of a successful unified action (Joint Publication (JP) 1-02).
chapter 4
What does the Air Force use to select the right resources and capabilities from their joint and coalition partners? (96)
Interdependence.
chapter 4
What is included in a clear command relationshipbetween joint and coalition force components? (96)
A supported and supporting command.
chapter 4
What is the primary responsibility of a supportedcommand? (96)
All aspects of a task. (It also receives assistance from another command force or capabilities.)
chapter 4
A command provides augmentation forces (orother support) or develops a supporting plan. (96)
Supporting command. (It also provides assistance required by the supported command.)
chapter 4
Shifting balance from one service or nation to thenext to support the best options describes what Air Force tenet? (96)
Centralized control and decentralized execution.
chapter 4
What Air Force tenet is never prosecuted alone? (97)
Airpower.
chapter 4
Operation __ proved to be one of the greatestuses of joint and coalition capabilities in recent history. (97)
Operation Odyssey Dawn.
chapter 4
What unified Combatant Command (COCOM) ledthe Joint Task Force (JTF) ODYSSEY DAWN? (97)
US Africa Command (USAFRICOM). (Commanded by General Carter Ham.)
chapter 4
Admiral Sam Locklear executed tactical commandfor Operation Odyssey Dawn from what location? (97)
The USS Mount Whitney in the Mediterranean Sea.
chapter 4
Name the supporting commanders included in Joint Task Force (JTF) ODYSSEY DAWN. (97)
1) Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (Vice Admiral Harry B. Harris); and 2) Joint Force Air Component Commander (Major General Margaret Woodward).
chapter 4
What Libyan regime began using military forceagainst its citizens in an effort to repress their uprising? (97)
The Muammar al-Qadhafi regime.
chapter 4
The Arab League met in Cairo to ask the UN Security Council to impose a __ over Libya to protect civilians from air attack. (97)
No-Fly Zone (NFZ).
chapter 4
The UN Security Council passed Resolution _____ ,authorizing all necessary measures to protect civilians in Libya. (97)
Resolution 1973.
chapter 4
Who took measures to enforce UN Security CouncilResolution 1973? (97)
The International Coalition.
chapter 4
Joint and coalition capabilities during OperationOdyssey Dawn illustrated effective __ and __ . (97)
Interdependence; interoperability.
chapter 4
Military contingencies and operations can’t optimize V objectives without what? (98)
Space or cyberspace.
chapter 4
What does airpower offer while demonstrating itssuccess to meet homeland and international security challenges? (98)
1) Speed; 2) agility; 3) flexibility; 4) range; and 5) responsiveness to virtually every need.
chapter 4
What guarantees the Air Force the capability to operate in any contested cyber domain? (98)
Cyber operations.
chapter 4
In interdependent domains, what unique capabilities does the Air Force possess? (98)
I) Ensuring global mobility; 2) long range strike; and 3) Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR).
chapter 4
What domains, combined with joint and coalitionalcapabilities, prove to be the most valuable means of supporting the National Security Strategy of the US and its allies? (98)
Air, space and cyberspace.
chapter 5
Air Force members must understand how the AirForce Emergency Management (AFEM) Program dealswith what four events? (103)
I) Major accidents; 2) terrorist use of Chemical, Biological,Radiological, Nuclear, and High-Yield Explosive (CBRNE)material; 3) CBRNE enemy attack; and 4) natural disasters.
chapter 5
The Air Force Emergency Management (AFEM)Program describes the Air Force’s approach to planning,organizing, training and equipping personnel, and protectingmission-critical infrastructures. How does it helpcommanders? (103)
It I) provides guidance to help develop an all-hazards approachto physical threats; and 2) captures the complete incidentresponse cycle from planning to response and recovery.
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) uses the installation Disaster Response Force(DRF) structure for all emergency responses. What doesit consist of? (103)
The crisis action team, Command Post (CP), EmergencyCommunications Center (ECC), Emergency Operations Center(EOC), Incident Commander (IC), first responders, emergencyresponders, Unit Control Centers (UCC), and specializedteams.
chapter 5
How does the Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) planning process help commanders? (103)
It enables them to achieve unity of effort, effectively useresources and identify shortfalls.
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) aligns Emergency Management (EM) planningand response with Homeland Security Presidential Directive5 (HSPD-5), Management of Domestic Incidents;the National Incident Management system (NIMS); andthe __ . (103)
National Response Framework (NRF).
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS) provides fixed response options to organizefield-level operations for a broad spectrum of emergencies.T/F (103)
False. (Response options are scalable and flexible.)
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) provides a single, comprehensive approach tomanaging domestic incidents. It incorporates nationallevel and __ guidance while preserving the uniquemilitary requirements of the expeditionary Air Force.(103)
Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD).
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) includes a set of concepts and principles. Whatsix areas does it cover? (103)
1) The Incident Command System; 2) Disaster ResponseForce (DRF); 3) common terminology; 4) common technologies;5) training; and 6) resource management.
chapter 5
What are the five phases of incident management?(103)
I) Prevention; 2) preparedness; 3) response; 4) recovery; and5) mitigation.
chapter 5
What is provided by the Air Force Incident ManagementSystem’s (AFIMS) phases of incident management?(103)
The framework for the installation Disaster Response Force(DRF) to respond to Emergency Management (EM) incidentsand events.
chapter 5
The Air Force Incident Management System(AFIMS) conducts intelligence collection and analysis,active defense and safety mishap investigations in the__ phase of incident management. (104)
Prevention. (Other activities include proliferation, fire, diseaseand contamination prevention.)
chapter 5
What actions are included in the preparedness phaseof incident management? (104)
1) Planning; 2) training, exercises and evaluations; 3) identifyingaugmented manpower needs; and 4) reviewing ExpeditionarySupport Plans (ESP).
chapter 5
The __ phase of incident management includesdeploying the Disaster Response Force (DRF), executingthe Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP)10-2, and activating the installation notification andwarning system. (104)
Response.
chapter 5
The recovery phase of incident management includes,as a minimum, casualty treatment, UnexplodedOrdnance (UXO) sating, personnel decontamination,airfield damage repair and facility restoration. When dothese actions begin? (104)
As soon as possible (to sustain crucial missions and restorenormal operations).
chapter 5
The mitigation phase of incident management occursonly after all other phases are implemented. T/F (104)
False. (It is an ongoing process to reduce or eliminate risk orlessen the effects of an incident and is part of every phase.)
chapter 5
What incidents are categorized as major accidents?(104)
Incidents involving hazardous material, aircraft, ammunition,explosives, transportation, facility emergencies and industrialaccidents.
chapter 5
AFI __ defines a major accident as one involvingDoD materiel or DoD activities, and warranting responseby the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF). (104)
AFI 10-2501, Air Force Emergency Management (EM) ProgramPlanning and Operations.
chapter 5
A major accident involves one or more of what sixfactors? (104)
I) Hazardous substances such as radioactive materials, ToxicIndustrial Chemicals and Materials (TIC/TIM) and Chemical,Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and High-Yield Explosive(CBRNE) weapons; 2) explosives; 3) Class A mishaps;4) extensive property damage; 5) grave risk of injury ordeath to installation personnel or the public; and/or 6) adversepublic reaction.
chapter 5
Which military operation will respond to a majoraccident, unless otherwise directed by the MAJCOM orthe Air Force Operations Center? (104)
The military installation nearest to the scene (regardless ofsize), known as the initial-response base.
chapter 5
After alerting others in the immediate area and reportinga major accident, what should witnesses to anaccident do? (104)
I) Stay uphill and upwind; 2) avoid inhaling fumes, smokeor vapors; 3) attempt to rescue and care for casualties; 4)avoid handling any material or component involved in the accident; and 5) evacuate the area ifrescue or containment isimpractical, or if directed to evacuate.
chapter 5
What must installations be prepared to do duringnatural disasters or severe weather? (105)
Adequately warn and notify personnel, as well as implementprotective measures and recovery operations.
chapter 5
In what ways do emergency conditions created bynatural disasters and severe weather vary widely? (105)
In scope, urgency and extent of damage.
chapter 5
The installation commander will provide emergencyresponse and recovery operations during natural disasters.Give some examples of natural disasters. (105)
Severe weather events (tornadoes, floods, storms, etc.), tsunamis,earthquakes, fires, volcanoes and disease outbreaks.
chapter 5
What actions should you take when a natural disasteror an incident affecting the base is imminent or inprogress? (105)
Listen for a 3- to 5-minute steady or wavering siren, keep theradio or television on and listen for instructions from localauthorities and weather updates, and use the telephone onlyfor emergencies.
chapter 5
What does a 3- to 5-minute steady tone on the sirenor a voice announcement indicate? What actions are requiredupon hearing it? (105-Fig-105-Note)
A disaster/incident affecting the base is imminent or in progress.Be aware, ensure all personnel are warned and followinstructions to take cover and evacuate or take shelter. Thesenior ranking person must conduct personnel accountability.
chapter 5
What does a 3- to 5-minute wavering tone on thesiren or a voice announcement indicate? What actionsare required upon hearing it? (105-Fig-105-Note)
An attack/hostile act is imminent or in progress. Be alert,ensure all personnel are warned, implement appropriate securitymeasures and follow instructions to take cover, evacuateor take shelter. The senior ranking person must conduct personnelaccountability.
chapter 5
How is the alarm signal “all clear” signaled? Whatdoes it mean? (105-Fig)
A voice announcement. The immediate disaster threat hasended or the attack is over.
chapter 5
What should personnel do once the alarm signal “allclear” has been signaled? (105-Fig)
Remain alert for secondary hazards, account for all personneland report fires, injuries, hazards and damage.
chapter 5
During wartime or combat operations, passive defenseare initiated according AFMAN 10-2503, Operationsin a Chemical, Biological, Radiological and HighYieldExplosive (CBRNE) Environment as the installationcommander directs. T/F (105-Note)
True.
chapter 5
Each installation must develop plans and policies forresponding to natural and technological disasters. T/F(106)
True.
chapter 5
What is the vehicle for installation preparation andresponse to natural and technological disasters? (106)
The Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2.
chapter 5
All installations should address shelter planning incase a natural disaster occurs. T/F (106)
True.
chapter 5
When it comes to sheltering personnel in the event ofa natural disaster, when may shelter-in-place proceduresbe required? (106)
In the event of a natural disaster, when the type or extent ofthe hazard is unknown or when evacuation would be dangerous.
chapter 5
Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP)staff will direct personnel to an installation shelter followinga natural disaster. T/F (106)
False. (Personnel need to know their shelter location andprocedures.)
chapter 5
What are three steps you can take to prepare for,and cope with, natural disasters? (106)
1) Take time to think, then act according to the situation; 2)prepare ahead; and 3) develop emergency plans to reduceinjury, loss oflife and property damage.
chapter 5
Who should you contact for guidance on preparingfor a natural disaster? (106)
The installation readiness and emergency management flight,or v1s1t the Air Force “Be Ready” website(http://www.beready.a£mil/), as well as the Air Force Portal.
chapter 5
- What are four outcomes of chemical attack? (106)
It 1) achieves surprise; 2) can cause mass casualties that hinder the momentum of operations; 3) disrupts command, controland communications; and 4) degrades warfighting potential.
chapter 5
What Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) threats can cause lethal, disabling, contagiousor noncontagious casualties? (106)
Biological threats.
chapter 5
Nuclear threats within any theater of war only involvethe exchange of strategic nuclear weapons. T/F(106)
False. (They can exist without it.)
chapter 5
Widely available Toxic Industrial Materials (TIM)and Toxic Industrial Chemicals (TIC) are potential toolsfor____ attacks against air bases. (106)
Asymmetric.
chapter 5
Conventional attack threats only exist where threatsof Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) attack exist. T/F (106)
False. (They may be present where CBRN threats do notexist.)
chapter 5
Give examples of conventional weapons. (106)
Rockets, mortars, missiles and bombs.
chapter 5
The first few moments of a conventional attack oftendetermine your survival. What are the most effectiveIndividual Protection Equipment (IPE) for a conventionalattack? (106)
The helmet and personal body armor.
chapter 5
What are the three phases of attack? (106-108)
1) Attack preparation (from now until hostilities begin); 2)attack response (attack is imminent or in progress); and 3)attack recovery (after or between attacks when the installationassesses damage and repairs mission-critical facilities).
chapter 5
What is the focus of each of the three phases of attack?(106)
Attack preparation begins before a potential attack. Attackresponse actions focus primarily on individual and weaponssystem survival. Attack recovery actions save lives, detectand mitigate hazards, and restore and sustain the mission.
chapter 5
What does the installation’s Command and Control(C2) do during an attack? (106)
It implements operational plans and priorities, controls andmonitors mission-generation capabilities, and ensures installationsurvivability in conjunction with the Emergency OperationsCenter (EOC) and Unit Control Centers (UCC).
chapter 5
At what point do attack preparation actions begin? (106)
Upon receiving the warning order or when in-place forcesare directed to transition to wartime operations.
chapter 5
How do commanders recall people to their duty locationduring the attack preparation phase? (107)
With a recall roster (pyramid alerting system).
chapter 5
What must personnel know to take protective actionsin response to the base warning signals in all phases ofattack? (107)
The alarm color codes, audible signals and/or supplementalinformation.
chapter 5
At what levels and during what attack conditions arecontamination avoidance measures employed? (107)
At all levels and during all attack conditions.
chapter 5
Commanders implement threat-specific __ in theattack preparation phase. (107)
Mission-Oriented Protective Postures (MOPP).
chapter 5
Installations establish a network of Chemical, Biological,Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) rapid agentdetectors in the attack preparation phase. Where arethey placed? (107)
A variety of detection equipment is strategically placedthroughout the installation.
chapter 5
Why are air base sectors and zones determined forpassive defense? (107)
For rapid reconnaissance.
chapter 5
When do attack response actions occur? (107)
Immediately before and during an enemy attack.
chapter 5
Why do commanders declare alarm conditions duringattacks? (107)
To initiate passive defense actions.
chapter 5
Alarm condition green exists if you hear “alarmgreen” or see a green flag/transition sign, but don’t heara siren. What does it indicate and what general actionsshould be taken? (107-Fig)
Attack is not probable. General actions include MissionOrientedProtective Posture (MOPP) 0 or as directed, normalwartime conditions, resuming operations, and continuingrecovery actions.
chapter 5
Alarm condition yellow exists if you hear “alarmyellow” or see a yellow flag/transition sign, but don’t heara siren. What does it indicate and what general actionsshould be taken? (107-Fig)
Attack is probable in fewer than 30 minutes. General actionsinclude Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) 2 or as directed, protecting and covering assets, and going to protectiveshelter or seeking overhead cover.
chapter 5
Alarm condition red exists if you hear “alarm red,”hear a wavering tone on the siren or see a redflag/transition sign. What does it indicate and what generalactions should be taken? (107-Fig)
Attack by indirect fire, air or missile is imminent or in progress.General actions include seeking immediate protectionwith overhead cover, Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) 4 or as directed, and reporting observed attacks.
chapter 5
Alarm condition red exists if you hear “ground attack,”hear the call-to-arms on the bugle or see a redflag/transition sign. What does it indicate and what generalactions should be taken? (107-Fig)
Attack by ground forces is imminent or in progress. Generalactions include taking immediate cover, Mission-OrientedProtective Posture (MOPP) 4 or as directed, defending selfand position, and reporting activity.
chapter 5
Alarm condition black exists if you hear “alarmblack,” hear a steady tone on the siren or see a blackflag/transition sign. What does it indicate and what generalactions should be taken? (107-Fig)
Attack is over and Chemical, Biological, Radiological, andNuclear (CBRN) contamination and/or Unexploded Ordnance(UXO) hazards are suspected or present. General actionsinclude Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) 4or as directed, performing self-aid or buddy care, and remainingunder overhead cover or within shelter until directedotherwise.
chapter 5
In what ways may a base be attacked? (107)
By missiles, artillery, unmanned aircraft systems, aircraft andterrorist or ground forces.
chapter 5
Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) levelsmay or may not be used in conjunction with alarm conditionsto quickly increase or decrease individual protectionagainst Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) threats. T/F (108)
False. (They are always used in conjunction.)
chapter 5
What is the difference between alarm conditions andMission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) levels?(108)
Alarm conditions initiate or limit individual and air basewidemovement and action. MOPP levels Jet individualsknow what to wear for minimum protection.
chapter 5
As Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP)levels increase, an individual’s efficiency decreases. Whattool must be used to maintain consistent work levels andprevent heat-related casualties? (108)
Work-rest cycles.
chapter 5
Following an attack, you must leave cover to begin the recovery process immediately. T/F (108)
False. (Remain under cover until directed otherwise.)
chapter 5
What must you remember regarding Chemical, Biological,Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosive(CBRNE) reconnaissance? Why? (108)
“Every Airman is a detector.” Because dedicated CBRNEpersonnel will not be able to accomplish all CBRNE reconnaissance.
chapter 5
The ___ will disseminate assessments of contaminatedhazard areas, Unexploded Ordnances (UXO) andcasualties and damage to installation forces and reportthe status of resources to higher headquarters after anattack. (108)
Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
chapter 5
Exposure to chemical-biological warfare agents onlyoccurs during an attack. T/F (108)
False. (It may also occur after an attack.)
chapter 5
What should you do during or after an attack to limitthe spread of chemical-biological contamination ifmovement is required? (108)
Use appropriate contamination control procedures as directedby the Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
chapter 5
How are critical resources such as aircraft, vehiclesand equipment protected from contamination during aChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)attack? (108)
Place them under cover in hangars, sheds or other structures,or cover them with plastic sheets or waterproof tarpaulinsbefore the attack. Windows, doors, etc., must be closed whennotified of a pending attack and kept closed until notifiedthat hazards no longer exist.
chapter 5
You should avoid kneeling, sitting or walking in contaminatedareas after a Chemical, Biological, Nuclearand High-Yield Explosive (CBRNE) attack, if possible.T/F (108)
True. (Don’t touch anything unless absolutely necessary.)
chapter 5
What is the most effective method of chemical agentdecontamination from the skin? (108)
The Reactive Skin Decontamination Lotion (RSDL) andM295 individual decontamination kits.
chapter 5
In the absence of Reactive Skin DecontaminationLotion (RSDL) or M295 decontamination kits, whatshould you use to remove chemical agent contamination?(108)
5% chlorine bleach solution to remove it from equipment;0.5% solution to remove it from the skin. Irrigate the eyeswith water ifthe agent enters them.
chapter 5
Use Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP)__ during periods of increased alert when potentialChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)capability exists but there is no indication of CBRN use inthe immediate future. (109-Fig)
MOPPReady
chapter 5
Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) 0 is thenormal wartime Individual Protection Equipment (IPE)level when the enemy has Chemical, Biological, Radiological,and Nuclear (CBRN) capability. Which IPE is carriedand/or available for immediate donning? (109-Fig)
Keep IPE and personal body armor available for immediatedonning. Carry a protective mask with C2 canister or filterelement and wear field gear as directed.
chapter 5
During Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) 1, wear the overgarment, field gear and personalbody armor; carry the overboots, protective mask andgloves. When is this MOPP level used? (109-Fig)
During periods of increased alert when a Chemical, Biological,Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) attack could occurwith little or no warning or when CBRN contamination issuspected or present and higher levels of protection are notrequired.
chapter 5
During Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) 2, wear all protective equipment except themask and gloves, which are carried. When is this MOPPlevel used? (109-Fig)
During attack preparation or recovery; periods of increasedalert when Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) attack could occur with little or no warning; whenthe commander determines a higher level of protection isneeded; and when personnel are crossing or operating inpreviously contaminated areas and respiratory protection isnot required.
chapter 5
During Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) 3, wear all equipment except the gloves, whichare carried. When is this MOPP level used? (109-Fig)
During attack preparation or recovery; during periods ofincreased alert when Chemical, Biological, Radiological, andNuclear (CBRN) attack could occur with little or no warning;when the commander determines a higher level of protectionis needed; and when contamination is present and thehazard is a negligible contact or percutaneous vapor hazard.
chapter 5
During Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) 4, wear all equipment. When is this MOPP levelused? (109-Fig)
During attack recovery; when a Chemical, Biological, Radiological,and Nuclear (CBRN) attack is imminent or in progress;when CBRN contamination is present or suspected;and when the maximum individual protection to personnel isneeded.
chapter 5
What information does AFI 10-2501 contain? AFMAN 10-2503? (109-Fig)
AFI 10-2501, Air Force Emergency Management (EM) ProgramPlanning and Operations, details the components andbasis of issue for Individual Protective Equipment (IPE).AFMAN 10-2503, Operations in a Chemical, Biological,Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosives (CBRNE)Environment, includes Mission-Oriented Protective Posture(MOPP) level options and standard operating procedures tooptimize their use.
chapter 5
When wearing a chemical protective overgarment,how should you wear specialized clothing such as wet andcold weather gear? (109-Fig)
Wear the specialized clothing over it.
chapter 5
What actions do you take if exposure to nerve agentsis possible? (110)
Nerve agent antidotes and pretreatments are issued duringincreased readiness, as well as Pyridostigmine Bromide Tablets(P-Tab) to be taken, if necessary, when directed by thecommander.
chapter 5
What are the benefits of collective protection in attacksituations? (110)
It provides rest and relief (breaks and sleeping), work relief(Command and Control (C2)), maintenance, supply, medicaltreatment) and protection of logistics storage areas (war andtheater reserve materiel storage sites).
chapter 5
What kind of approach is required for successfulbase recovery efforts after an attack? (108)
A coordinated and integrated approach.
chapter 5
Give three examples of Chemical, Biological, Radiological,and Nuclear (CBRN) passive defense actions.(110)
Any three of the following: 1) detecting and identifyingCBRN agents; 2) individual and collective protection equipment;3) medical response; 4) vaccines for chemical andbiological agents; and 5) CBRN decontamination capability.
chapter 5
What kind of forces are required to defend againstChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)attack and sustain operations in a CBRN environment?(110)
Knowledgeable and properly trained and equipped forcesthroughout the theater of operations.
chapter 5
What are the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, andNuclear (CBRN) passive defense elements? (110)
1) Contamination avoidance; 2) control; and 3) protection.
chapter 5
What is the purpose of contamination avoidance in aChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)environment? (110)
Prevent contamination to mission-essential resources and personnel.
chapter 5
List common Chemical, Biological, Radiological, andNuclear (CBRN) contamination avoidance measures.(110)
Covering and limiting entry to facilities; detecting, identifyingand predicting.
chapter 5
When Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) contamination cannot be avoided, __ providesforces with survival measures necessary for operation.(110)
Protection.
chapter 5
How is protection provided in a Chemical, Biological,Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) environment?(110)
Through individual protection, collective protection andhardening.
chapter 5
Collective protection and hardening provide protectionagainst multiple Chemical, Biological, Radiological,and Nuclear (CBRN) threats. T/F (110)
False. (They are threat specific.)
chapter 5
What measures comprise individual protection in aChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)environment? (110)
Use of Individual Protection Equipment (IPE), vaccinationsand prophylaxis, protective shelters, evacuation, relocation,exposure control, contamination control, and warning andnotification systems.
chapter 5
What determines which protection measures aretaken in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) environment? (110)
The urgency and nature of the threat.
chapter 5
What directs the proper individual protective posturesin a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear(CBRN) environment? (110)
Command and theater-specific instructions.
chapter 5
What is the best immediate protective equipmentagainst chemical agents - regardless of the type of agent,concentration or method of attack? (110)
The Ground Crew Ensemble (GCE).
chapter 5
What is the Ground Crew Ensemble (GCE)? (110)
A whole-body system that defends the wearer against chemical-biological warfare agents, toxins and radiological particulates.
chapter 5
What are the Ground Crew Ensemble (GCE) components?(110)
A protective mask with filters, overgarments, protective gloves and footwear covers or overboots. It also includes MSand M9 detector paper, and Reactive Skin DecontaminationLotion (RSDL) and M295 decontamination kits.
chapter 5
Who issues nerve agent antidotes, pretreatment andPyridostigmine Bromide Tablets (P-tab) during increasedreadiness? (110)
Medical representatives.
chapter 5
What is the purpose of collective protection and conventionalhardening measures in a Chemical, Biological,Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) environment? (110)
To further enhance survival, limit attack damage and contamination,and support mission sustainment.
chapter 5
List three ways to expediently protect facilities in aChemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN)environment. (110)
Sandbags, salvaged culverts and steel drums filled withearth.
chapter 5
What passive defense attack actions do personnel notaffected by an attack take? (110)
Continue mission operations and remain vigilant within theirsector.
chapter 5
Base personnel use the most expedient means possibleand any means available (telephone, radios or runners)to report enemy ground attack information up thechain of command to the Unit Control Center (UCC) orEmergency Operations Center (EOC). What report formatwill they use? (110)
The S-A-L-U-T-E report.
chapter 5
What information is contained in the S-A-L-U-T-Ereport? (111-Tbl)
S(ize) - the number of persons and vehicles seen or the sizeof an object; A(ctivity) - description of enemy activity (assaulting,fleeing, observing, etc.); L(ocation) - where theenemy was sighted; U(nit) - distinctive signs, symbols oridentification on people, vehicles, aircraft or weapons;T(ime) - time the activity was observed; E(quipment) - allequipment and vehicles associated with the activity.
chapter 5
Air Force installations must prepare for a full rangeof terrorist threats, including use of Chemical, Biological,Radiological, Nuclear, and High-Yield Explosive(CBRNE) weapons. T/F (111)
True
chapter 5
____ is the calculated use or threat of unlawful violenceto instill fear, in order to coerce or intimidate governmentsor societies in pursuit of generally political,religious or ideological goals. (111)
Terrorism.
chapter 5
What two factors greatly limit terrorist attack options,compelling more terrorist groups to use asymmetricmeasures to accomplish their goals? (111)
l) The absence of other dominating global powers; and 2)the overwhelming capability of the US armed forces.
chapter 5
Why is Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear,and High-Yield Explosive (CBRNE) terrorist threatplanning and response a high priority? (111)
Because Air Force personnel, equipment and facilities arehighly visible targets for terrorist attacks at home and abroad.
chapter 5
Who is responsible for the protection of installationpersonnel, facilities and resources? (111)
The installation commander.
chapter 5
Protective measures are taken in stages equal to theurgency and nature of the threat. These measures includeevacuation and exposure control. Name several otherprotective measures. (111)
Relocation, contamination control, warning and notification,and sheltering in place.
chapter 5
When it comes to Emergency Management (EM), theAir Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), incidentmanagement, major accidents, natural disasters,Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and HighYieldExplosive (CBRNE) attacks or terrorist threats,wartime airbase threats or passive defense attack actions,readiness is whose responsibility? (111)
Everyone’s.
chapter 7
The __ system gives commanders a credible, independentassessment of the capabilities of assigned forces.(131)
Inspection
chapter 7
What may Airmen at all levels visit the IG to report?(131)
Suspected systematic, programmatic or procedural weaknessesor Fraud, Waste, and Abuse (FWA) cases.
chapter 7
What is the overall purpose of the Air Force InspectionSystem (AFIS)? (131)
To 1) Enable and strengthen commanders’ effectiveness andefficiency; 2) motivate and promote military discipline; 3)improve unit performance and management excellence; and4) identify issues interfering with effectiveness, efficiency,compliance, discipline, readiness, performance, surety andmanagement excellence.
chapter 7
Who reports on Air Force organizations’ readiness,economy, efficiency and state of discipline to the SECAFand the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF)? (131)
The Inspector General (TIG).
chapter 7
Inspection is an inherent function of command exercisedat every level. What does it evaluate? (131)
1) Readiness; 2) economy; 3) efficiency; and 4) state of discipline.
chapter 7
The intent of the IG is to continuously improve theAir Force Inspection System (AFIS) by shrinking thedifference between readiness and readiness.(131)
Mission; inspection.
chapter 7
Each __ commander and Wing commander appointsan IG to set up an inspection program, consistentwith mission requirements, that assesses unit effectiveness,surety and other elements. (131)
MAJCOM. (MAJCOM IGs develop applicable guidelines,procedures and criteria for conducting inspections.)
chapter 7
List the three inspection types. (131-132)
1) Commander’s inspection program; 2) Unit EffectivenessInspection (UEI); and 3) Nuclear Surety Inspection (NSI).
chapter 7
Which inspection program facilitates requests forassistance from the MAJCOM/CC and staff and gives theWing Commander, subordinate commanders and wingAirmen information to assess risk, identify areas of improvement,determine root cause and focus resources?(131)
The commander’s inspection program.
chapter 7
Name the two outputs of the commander’s inspectionprogram. (131)
1) Wing Commander’s Inspection Report; and 2) managementinternal control toolset data.
chapter 7
The Wing Commander’s Inspection Report and themanagement internal control toolset provide data aboutwhat six things to Headquarters Air Force (HAF) andMAJCOM staffs? (131)
Adequacy of policy, training, manpower, funds, equipmentand facilities.
chapter 7
What are the four Major Graded Areas examined ina Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)? (131)
1) Managing Resources; 2) Leading People; 3) Improvingthe Unit; and 4) Executing the Mission.
chapter 7
The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) is a monthslong,continual inspection of a unit’s effectiveness. T/F(131-132)
False. (It is years-long.)
chapter 7
Describe the cyclical sequence of events in a UnitEffectiveness Inspection (UEI). (132-Fig)
1) Continuous evaluation; 2) completion of a confidentialUEI survey; 3) an on-site IG visit, including Ainnen-to-IGSessions (A TIS), task evaluation, auditing and observation;4) completion of a UEI report, which is submitted to unit andMAJCOM commanders.
chapter 7
What necessary step occurs 90-120 days before theIG visits a site under the Unit Effectiveness Inspection(UEI)? (132-Fig)
A UEI survey is completed.
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Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI) evaluate a unit’smanagement of nuclear resources against which approvedstandards? (132)
Safety, security and reliability standards.
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Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI) use war reserve(WR) weapons when possible. What is used when WRassets are not available? (132)
Training weapons or weapon system simulations.
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In Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI), units are ratedSatisfactory, Satisfactory (Support Unsatisfactory) orUnsatisfactory. What happens if a unit receives an overallUnsatisfactory rating? (132)
The unit is reinspected within 90 days and must achieve aSatisfactory or the MAJCOM commander must approve itscontinued nuclear weapons-related mission.
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What are the four inspection elements? (132-133)
1) Self-assessment program; 2) management internal controltoolset; 3) IG’s evaluation management system; and 4) gradingsystem.
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What do Airmen report through the self-assessmentprogram? (132)
Compliance and non-compliance.
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How do commanders and functionals throughout thechain of command use the management internal controltoolset? (132)
To monitor programs for real-time compliance and trends.
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Who creates self-assessment checklists? (132)
Functional experts.
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Why do functional experts create self-assessmentchecklists? (132)
To help Airmen understand what’s most important and tocommunicate compliance up the chain of command and appropriatestaffs.
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What is the management internal control toolset?(132-133)
A web-based program that allows 1) Airmen to accomplishprogram management self-assessments and compliance withHigher HQ (HHQ) directives; 2) supervisors and commandchain to view compliance reports and program status; and 3)Functional Area Managers (FAM) to monitor unit performance..
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The IG’s evaluation management system is the database for the IG Complaints Program. T/F (133)
False. (It is the database for the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS), used by IGs and MAJCOMs to record the unit’s overall rating, identify deficiencies, track corrective action plans and post the final inspection report.)
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__ uses a five-tier rating scale for the inspectionsit conducts. (133)
The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS). (The scale includes ratings of Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal and Unsatisfactory.)
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List four inputs the IG Team Chief uses to determine a rating on the five-tier scale. (133)
1) Observations; 2) interviews; 3) audits; and 4) task evaluations.
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What role do gatekeepers at all levels play in theinspection system? (133)
They l) ensure the inspection system is able to inspect units on behalf of the command chain; 2) see that a commander’s priorities take precedence over nonmission-essential activities; and 3) have the authority to approve or disapprove, schedule, deconflict and eliminate duplications on behalf of the commander.
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Name four inspections or inspection-type activitiesthat gatekeepers lack the authority to approve. (133)
1) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) Article 6 inspections; 2) The Adjutant General (TAG)-directed audits; 3) The IG (TIG)-directed Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA) Secretary of the Air Force, IG (SAF/IG) inspections; and 4) inspection- type activities conducted by properly authorized DoD or other US Government (USG) agencies.
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Who publishes TIG Brief, Air Force Recurring Publication (AFRP) 90-1? (133)
Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA).
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What is contained in TIG Brief, Air Force RecurringPublication (AFRP) 90-1? (133)
Authoritative guidance and information for commanders, IGs, inspectors and Air Force supervisors and leaders at all levels of command.
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Who may submit articles for publication in TIGBrief, Air Force Recurring Publication (AFRP) 90-1?(133)
Anyone. (Articles should relate to anticipated or actual problems; recommendations to improve management; safety,security, inspection or operational techniques; exchange of lessons learned; best practices; or contemporary Air Force issues.)
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The Air Force IG Complaints Program is a leadership tool that indicates where command needs to correct systematic, programmatic or procedural weaknesses and ensures resources are used effectively and efficiently. Name three other results. (133)
It 1) promptly and objectively resolves problems affecting the Air Force mission; 2) creates trust that issues can be objectively and fully resolved without retaliation or fear of reprisal; and 3) helps commanders instill confidence in leadership.
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What is the primary charge of the IG? (133)
To sustain a credible Air Force IG system by ensuring responsive complaint investigations and the objectivity, integrity and impartiality of Fraud, Waste, and Abuse (FWA) programs.
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Who investigates allegations of reprisal under theMilitary Whistleblower’s Protection Act? (133)
Only the IG.
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Why were separate full-time installation IGs implemented? (133)
To remove any perceived conflict of interest, lack of independence or apprehension by personnel resulting from previously assigning chain of command and IG roles to the same official.
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Installation IGs are the “eyes and ears” of the commander and report directly to the installation commander.Name five other IG roles. (133-134)
They 1) execute the commander’s inspection program, validating and verifying unit self-assessments and assessing unit effectiveness; 2) inform the commander of trends in potential areas of concern; 3) are the fact-finders and honest brokers in resolving complaints; 4) educate and train commanders and base population on their rights and responsibilities in the Air Force IG system; and 5) help commanders prevent, detect and correct Fraud, Waste, and Abuse (FW A) and mismanagement.
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Why is it important to resolve the underlying causeof an IG complaint? (134)
It may prevent more severe symptoms or costly consequences, such as reduced performance, accidents, poor quality work, poor morale or loss of resources…
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List several administrative inquiries or investigationsthat are not covered under the IG complaint resolutionvprogram because they are governed by other policy directivesvand instructions. (134)
Commander-directed inquiries and investigations; Air Force OSI or security forces investigations; investigations of civilian employees who have specific appeal rights under the law or labor union agreements; investigations under the authority of the UCMJ or the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM); line of duty or report of survey investigations; quality assurance in the Air Force Medical Service Boards; Air Force mishap or safety investigations; Military Equal Opportunity (MEO) Treatment program; civilian Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) programs; medical incident investigations; and matters normally addressed through other grievance or appeal channels, unless there is evidence that those channels mishandledthe matter or process.
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Is dissatisfaction or disagreement with the outcomeor findings of an alternative grievance or appeal process sufficient basis to warrant IG investigation? (134)
No. (There must be evidence the process was mishandled or handled prejudicially.)
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What form lists matters that should not be referredto the IG complaint resolution program? (134-Note)
AFI 90-301, Inspector General Complaints Resolution, Table3.6.
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Name five things Air Force military members andcivilian employees must promptly report to an appropriate supervisor, commander, IG or other appropriate inspector, or through an established grievance channel.(134)
1) Fraud, Waste, and Abuse (FWA) or gross mismanagement; 2) violations oflaw, policy, procedures or regulations; 3) injustices; 4) abuse of authority, inappropriate conduct or misconduct; and 5) deficiencies or like conditions.
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Complainants should try to resolve issues at the lowest possible level before sending them to the higher level or the IG. When should you use the IG system? (134)
When referral to the chain-of-command is futile and there is fear of reprisal.
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What form do complainants complete to file a complaint or issue with the IG office? (134)
AF IMT 102, Inspector General Personal and Fraud, Wastevand Abuse Complaint Registration.
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What document outlines the procedures for filing acomplaint or issue with the IG? (134-Note, 134)
AFI 90-301, Inspector General Complaints Resolution.
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How may complainants to an IG file anonymously?(134)
Through an Air Force Fraud, Waste, and Abuse (FWA) hotline, the Defense hotline or directly with an IG.
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Briefly list allegations when completing an IG complaint form - save supporting narrative detail and documents until you’re interviewed. T/F (135-Tbl)
True.
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When completing an IG complaint form, write alleged violations as bullets that list what four things? (135-Tbl)
1) What violation was committed; 2) what law, regulation, procedure or policy was violated; 3) when the violation occurred; and 4) who committed the violation.
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If more than 60 days pass between the alleged misconduct and the filing of an IG complaint form, what information must also be included in the report? (135-Tbl)
1) The date the complainant became aware of the conduct; 2) how the complainant became aware of the conduct; and 3) why the complainant delayed in filing the report.
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After submitting the completed AF IMT 102 whilefiling an IG complaint, what must you do? (135-Tbl)
Set up a follow-on meeting to discuss the complaint.
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Complainants have the right to file a complaint withan IG at any level without notifying or following thechain of command. Name six other rights. (135)
They may 1) file a complaint without fear of reprisal; 2) request withdrawal of their complaint in writing; 3) request the next higher IG review their case within 90 days of receiving a final IG response; 4) submit complaints anonymously; 5) submit complaints even if they are not the wronged party; and 6) request whistleblower protection.
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A __ occurs when a responsible managementofficial threatens or takes unfavorable personnel action - or threatens to or withholds favorable action - in retaliation against a military member who makes or is prepared to make a protected communication. (135)
Reprisal.
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Any lawful communication to an IG or Congress,regardless of subject, is a __ communication. (135)
Protected
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A military member sends a lawful communication toan authorized recipient, disclosing evidence reasonably believed to indicate violation of a law or regulation. It is only a protected communication if he or she is the victim. T/F (135)
False. (It is protected regardless of whether he or she is the victim.)
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May military members be restricted or prohibitedfrom making a lawful communication to the IG or Congress? (135)
No. (According to 10 US Code (U.S.C.) Section 1034.)
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A first sergeant directs a member to stay within hischain of command instead of complaining to his Congressman about an upcoming deployment. Did he restrict the Airman? (135)
Probably. (Both public and private statements that may reasonably discourage Airmen can result in restriction.)
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According to AFI 44-109, Mental Health, Confidentiality, and Military Law, supervisors may encourage Airmen to voluntarily seek mental health care, but only commanders may coerce them to do so. T/F (135)
False. (Neither commanders nor supervisors may ever coerce.)
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Who reports allegations of improper Mental HealthEvaluations (MHE), reprisal and restriction to Congress each quarter? (136)
TheDoD IG.
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Are allegations of improper Mental Health Evaluation(MHE) a Federal violation if substantiated? (136)
No. (Only reprisal and restriction are Federal violations ifsubstantiated.)
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In the Air Force, who are most of the allegations ofimproper Mental Health Evaluations (MHE), reprisaland restriction against? (136)
First sergeants and senior enlisted personnel.
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Complainants to an IG must file within __ daysof learning of the alleged wrong. (136)
60 days. (Wrongs not reported within that timeframe mayseriously impede collection of evidence and testimony.)
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What happens to IG complainants who knowinglymake false statements or submit other unlawful communications?(136)
They are subject to punitive action.
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When does the IG release the identity of complainantsto anyone outside IG channels? (137)
Only on an official need-to-know basis. (The IG protects theidentity of complainants.)
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__ actions are steps a commander may take tocorrect behavior without resorting to punishment underthe UCMJ. (136)
Administrative. (After leadership by example, one-on-onecounseling and performance feedback fail to convince anindividual to conform to standards.)
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The is an official record of unfavorable informationabout an individual’s performance, responsibilityand behavior. (136)
Unfavorable Information File (UIF).
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Which documents must be filed in an UnfavorableInformation File (UIF)? (136, 136-Note)
Records of any I) suspended or unsuspended Article I 5 punishmentsof more than one month (31 days or more); 2)court-martial convictions; 3) civilian convictions where thepenalty is confinement for one year or more; 4) placement onthe control roster; and 5) other documented unfavorable informationat the commander’s discretion.
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Who has authority to establish, remove or destroy anUnfavorable Information File (UIF)? (136)
Commanders at all levels; vice commanders; staff directors;directors at MAJCOMs, Field Operating Agencies (FOA)and Direct Reporting Units (DRU); and the senior Air Forceofficer assigned to a joint command.
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Before establishing an Unfavorable Information File(UIF), what document(s) do(es) the commander show themember? (136)
AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, andoptional documents, such as Letters of Admonishment(LOA), Letters of Counseling (LOC) and Letters of Reprimand(LOR).
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After the commander notifies a member that an UnfavorableInformation File (UIF) will be established, themember has __ duty days to acknowledge the plannedactions and provide pertinent information. (136-Note)
Three duty days.
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Which person(s) cannot access Unfavorable InformationFiles (UIF) as needed in the course of their AirForce duties - the person on whom the file is kept, thefirst sergeant, an EPR rater, chaplain or security forcespersonnel? (137)
Chaplain. (The commander, Military Personnel Flight MPFpersonnel, IG, inspection team, judge advocate, paralegal,Military Equal Opportunity (MEO) personnel, Alcohol DrugAbuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program personneland Air Force OSI are also authorized access.)
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Which Air Force publication contains guidance ondisposition dates for Unfavorable Information Files(UIF)? (137)
AFI 36-2907, UJF Program. (Commanders keep the UIF andits documents for the disposition period, unless early removalis clearly warranted.)
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The control roster is a rehabilitative tool that establishesa(n) __ -month observation period for memberswith substandard duty performance or who fail to meetor maintain Air Force standards of conduct, bearing andintegrity, on- or off-duty. (137)
6-month
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Should a brief incident of substandard performance or an isolated breach of standards (not likely to be repeated)result in placement on the control roster? (137)
Usually not.
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When may commanders direct an EPR - before enteringor before removing an individual from the controlroster? (137)
Either before entering or removing, or both.
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An individual is shielded from other actions while onthe control roster. T/F (137)
False.
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What happens if a member is not rehabilitated withinsix months of placement on the control roster? (137)
The commander initiates more severe action.
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Which form does the commander use to initiate controlroster action? (137)
AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Jriformation File Action.
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Placement on the control roster is a mandatory UnfavorableInformation File (UIF) entry. T/F (137)
True
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An individual placed on the control roster hasduty days to submit a statement on his or her behalf beforethe AF IMT 1058 is finalized. (137)
Three duty days.
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When does the 6-month time period for a controlroster begin and end? (137)
It begins the day the AF IMT 1058 is finalized and ends at2400 hours six months later.
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The control roster 6-month time period stops andstarts for periods of TDY, ordinary leave or change inimmediate supervisor. T/F (137)
False.
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What are the intentions of commanders, supervisorsand others in authority when they issue administrativecounseling, admonitions and reprimands? (137)
To improve, correct or instruct subordinates.
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Administrative counseling, admonitions and reprimandsonly apply to subordinates who depart fromstandards of performance, conduct, bearing and integritywhile on-duty and whose actions degrade the individualand unit’s mission. T/F (137)
False. (They also apply to such actions while off-duty.)
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What outlines the rules of access, protection anddisclosure for written administrative counseling, admonitionsand reprimands? (137)
The Privacy Act of 1974. (The same rules apply to any copies.)
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AF IMT 174, Record of Individual Counseling, is onemethod of recording an administrative counseling session.What is another method? (137)
Documenting Letter of Counseling (LOC) on bond paper orletterhead.
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Which is more serious, a Letter of Admonishment(LOA), a Letter of Counseling (LOC) or a Record of IndividualCounseling (RIC)? (138)
An LOA. (It should not be used when a Letter of Reprimand(LOR) is more appropriate.)
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Which may be filed in an Unfavorable InformationFile (UIF) - a negative Record of Individual Counseling(RIC) or a Letter of Reprimand (LOR)? (137-138)
Both may be filed.
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Counseling, reprimands and admonitions can beverbal or written. T/F (137-138)
True.
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What five facts must a written Record of IndividualCounseling (RIC), Letter of Counseling (LOC), Letter ofAdmonishment (LOA) or Letter of Reprimand (LOR)state? (138)
1) What the member specifically did or failed to do; 2) whatimprovement is expected; 3) that further deviation may resultin more severe action; 4) that the member has three duty daysto submit rebuttal documents; and 5) that all supporting documentsreceived from the individual become part of the record.
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Who may demote MSgts and below? (138)
The group or equivalent-level commander.
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Who may demote SMSgts and CMSgts? (138)
MAJCOM, Field Operating Agency (FOA) and Direct ReportingUnit (DRU) commanders.
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Name two of the four common reasons for administrativedemotion. (138)
Any two of the following: failure to 1) complete officer transitionaltraining because of academic deficiency, selfeliminationor misconduct; 2) maintain grade and skill relationshipand skill level; 3) fulfill NCO responsibilities; and4) attain or maintain fitness program standards.
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For an administrative demotion, what must the commander inform the Airman of in writing? (138)
The intention to recommend demotion, citing the specificreason, demotion authority, recommended grade for demotionand providing a summary of facts. (The commandermust advise the Airman that he or she may seek legal counsel(give the name and number of the local Area DefenseCounsel (ADC)), that he or she has the right to apply forretirement (if eligible) in lieu of demotion and must ensurethe Airman endorses the demotion when he or she receivesit.)
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Who is the appellate authority for demotions ofAmn-MSgt? (138)
The next level commander above the group commander.
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Who is the appellate authority for demotion ofSMSgts and CMSgts? (138)
The Air Force Vice Chief of Staff (Unless the MAJCOM,Field Operating Agency (FOA) or Direct Reporting Unit(DRU) commander delegated demotion authority to a subordinatelevel, who then becomes the appellate authority.)
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What is the usual Military Service Obligation (MSO)for first-term Airmen? (138)
Eight years.
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What can happen if you separate from active servicebefore fulfilling your Military Service Obligation (MSO)?(138)
You can be released (not discharged) and transferred to theAFR to complete the balance of your MSO.
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Administrative discharges under AFI 36-3208, AdministrativeSeparation of Airmen, can characterize servicein what three ways? (138)
1) Honorable; 2) under honorable conditions (general); or 3)under other than honorable conditions.
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Separation at Expiration of Term of Service (ETS) isautomatic. T/F (139)
False. (A separation action is required.)
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Airmen are entitled to separate at Expiration ofTerm of Service (ETS) unless one of what two conditionsapply? (139)
I) There is specific authority for retention; or 2) they consentto retention.
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Many reasons for administrative separation exist.List the four main reasons. (139)
1) Required; 2) voluntary; 3) involuntary; and 4) dischargeinstead of trial by court-martial.
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List three examples of situations that require separation. (139)
I) Airmen who will continue to serve in another militarystatus (i.e., ANG or AFR); 2) to accept appointment as acommissioned officer of the Air Force or as a warrant orcommissioned officer of another branch of service; and 3)Airmen with insufficient retainability for PCS.
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What type of separation may be allowed for enteringan officer training program, pregnancy, conscientiousobjection, hardship or early release for school? (139)
Voluntary separation.
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What factors may result in involuntary separation asdischarge for cause? (139)
Unsatisfactory performance, substance abuse, misconduct orin the interest of national security.
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Physical conditions that interfere with duty performanceor assignment availability, inability to cope withparental responsibilities or military duty, or insufficientretainability for required retraining are reasons for involuntarydischarge for the of the government.(139)
Convenience.
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When charged with offenses punishable by punitivedischarge, what may Airmen request in lieu of courtmartial?(139)
An administrative discharge. (There is no guarantee that therequest will be granted.)
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Military law provides commanders with the tools,including __ and Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP), todeal with criminal conduct. (139)
Court-martial.
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One purpose of military law is to promote justice.Name the other three purposes. (139)
To 2) help maintain good order and discipline in the armedforces; 3) promote efficiency and effectiveness in the militaryestablishment; and 4) strengthen national security.
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Name the four pillars of military law. (139-Fig)
The 1) US Constitution; 2) UCMJ; 3) Manual for CourtsMartial(MCM); and 4) precedents.
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What is the primary source of military law? (139)
The US Constitution.
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The US Constitution gives distinct powers to Congressand to the President. This is called ___ of ___(139)
Separation of power.)
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Congress enacted the UCMJ and President Truman ~signed it into law in what year? (140)
- (Effective 31 May 195 I.)
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President Truman created the Manual for CourtsMartial(MCM) in 1951. What does it provide? (140
I) Standardized forms; 2) rules for evidence, procedure andmaximum punishments; and 3) military law guidance forcommanders and judge advocates.)
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How often is the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM)revised? (140)
Annually.
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The Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) contains awide range of materials. Name several. (140)
The US Constitution, UCMJ (including text and discussionof punitive articles and sample specifications), Rules forCourts-Martial (RCM) and Military Rules of Evidence(MRE).
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Armed forces members retain virtually all civilianlegal rights, including protection against involuntary selfincriminationand the right to counsel. T/F (140)
True.
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No person shall be compelled in any case to be a witnessagainst himself or herself. This is known as the rightagainst __ . (140)
Self-incrimination. (Protected under the Fifth Amendment tothe US Constitution; and reflected in Article 31, UCMJ; andMilitary Rules ofEvidence (MRE) 304.)
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A self-incriminating statement is considered involuntaryif it is obtained in violation of the _____ Amendmentto the US Constitution, Article 31 of the UCMJ, orthrough coercion, unlawful influence or unlawful inducement.(140)
Fifth.
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Article 31, UCMJ requires that persons asked tomake a statement first be told what three things? (140)
1) The nature of the accusation; 2) that they don’t have tomake a statement; and 3) that any statement may be used asevidence against them in a trial by court-martial. (They areentitled to consult with counsel and to have counsel present.)
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After being advised of their rights, can a personfreely, knowingly and intelligently waive them and makea statement which can be used as evidence? (140)
Yes.
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ln the Air Force, an attorney is provided free ofcharge to all who face courts-martial regardless of whether the accused can afford to hire an attorney. T/F~ (140)
True.
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The Air Force provides an attorney to the accusedprior to what actions? (140)
Summary, special and general courts-martial; Article 32 investigations;and in the Article 15 process.
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The __ assists and represents most members accusedof a crime. (140)
Area Defense Counsel (ADC). (Undivided loyalty to theclient is ensured because the ADC works for a separate chainof command and doesn’t report to anyone at base level.)
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Can members retain civilian counsel instead of counselfrom the Area Defense Counsel (ADC)? (140)
Yes, if it is at no expense to the government. (They may alsorequest an individual military defense counsel for an Article32 hearing or court-martial.)
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What is the military equivalent of civilian “arrest”?(140)
Apprehension. (The act of taking a person into custody.)
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Apprehension requires probable cause. When doesprobable cause exist? (140)
When there are reasonable grounds to believe that the individualhas committed, or is committing, an offense.
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When is a non-law enforcement NCO allowed to apprehendan officer? (140-141)
1) Under specific orders from a commissioned officer; 2) toprevent disgrace to the service; or 3) to prevent a seriousoffense or the escape of someone who committed one.
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Name four kinds of pretrial restraint (moral or physical).(141)
1) Conditions on liberty; 2) restrictions in lieu of arrest; 3)arrest; and 4) confinement.
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Which type of pretrial restraint directs a person todo, or refrain from doing, specified acts? (141)
Conditions on liberty. (However, it must not hinder pretrialpreparation.)
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How does restriction in lieu of arrest differ fromarrest? (141)
Restriction is less severe, usually confines the offender tobroader geographic limits and allows the performance of fullmilitary duties unless directed otherwise.
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In the armed forces, is arrest a physical or a moralrestraint? (141)
Moral. (It directs a person to remain within specified limits,but doesn’t physically restrain them.)
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Is a person under arrest expected to perform fullmilitary duties? (141)
No.
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__ is a physical restraint, such as imprisonment.(141)
Confinement
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When are individuals put in pretrial confinement?(141)
Only when lesser forms of pretrial restraint are inadequate.
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Persons in pretrial confinement have a right to whatkind of counsel? (141)
Civilian counsel (at their own expense) or military counsel(at the government’s expense).
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Pretrial restraint may only be ordered under whatcircumstances? (141)
When there’s a reasonable belief that the person committedan offense triable by court-martial and the circumstancesrequire restraint. (Pretrial restraint should not be more rigorousthan the circumstances require.)
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When is a search reasonable? (141)
When the authorization to search is based on probable causeand particularly describes the place to be searched and personsor things to be seized.
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Define “probable cause” as it relates to a search.(141)
Reasonable belief that who or what is being sought is locatedin the place or on the person being searched.
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Define “authorization to search.” (141)
Express written or oral permission to search a person or areafor specified property, evidence or for a specific person andto seize such property, evidence or person. (The militarycounterpart to a search warrant.)
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Who can authorize a search and seizure over anyonesubject to military law or anywhere on the installation?(141)
Commanders, military judges, installation commanders andmagistrates.
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Commanders may conduct inspections of their units.Can contraband uncovered during a proper inspection beseized and admissible in court? (141)
Yes.
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How does an inspection differ from a search? (141)
Inspections are not focused on specific individuals or thecollection of evidence.
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Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP) is authorized underArticle __ of the UCMJ. (141)
Article 15. (It provides commanders a means to maintaingood order and discipline without the stigma of a courtmartialconviction.)
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Any Air Force member may receive NonjudicialPunishment (NJP) under Article 15 for minor offenses.T/F (142)
True.
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What types of nonpunitive disciplinary actionsshould commanders attempt before resorting toNonjudicial Punishment (NJP)? (142)
Counseling and administrative reprimands. (However, theseare not required.)
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An Article 15 cannot be imposed upon a memberwho demands trial by court-martial. T/F (142)
True. (A commander should not offer an Article 15 unless heor she is prepared to proceed with court-martial charges.)
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As it relates to Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP), a(n)__ offense is typically one where the maximum imposablesentence does not include dishonorable dischargeor confinement of more than one year. (142)
Minor. (The commander considers the nature of the offense,the offender’s age, grade, duty assignments, record, experienceand the maximum sentence imposable for the offense iftried by a general court-martial.)
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0n what basis does the UCMJ set the permissibletypes and extents of punishments under Article 15? (142)
Limitations are based on the grade of the imposing commanderand the offender.
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Reduction in grade is one type of permissibleNonjudicial Punishment (NJP) on enlisted members. Listthe other six. (142-143-Tbl)
1) Additional restrictions; 2) correctional custody; 3) forfeitureof pay; 4) reprimand; 5) restriction; and 6) extra duties.
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When are bread and water and diminished rationspunishments authorized as Nonjudicial Punishment(NJP)? (143-Tbl-Note)
Never.
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What is the Article 15 maximum number of daysrestriction or extra duties imposed by a lieutenant orcaptain? By a major or above? (143-Tbl)
14 days for both. 45 days extra duties, 60 days restriction.
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What is the Article 15 maximum number of days incorrectional custody imposed by a lieutenant or captain?By a major or above? (143-Tbl)
Seven days. 30 days.
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How is the Article 15 authority to reduce the gradeof SMSgts and CMSgts limited? (143-Tbl-Note)
They can be reduced one grade only by MAJCOM commanders,commanders of unified or specified commands, orcommanders to whom promotion authority for these gradeshas been delegated.
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Do lieutenants and captains have Article 15 authorityto impose grade reductions on TSgts? (143-Tbl)
No. (They do have authority to reduce Amn-SSgt by onegrade.)
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Majors and above have Article 15 authority to reduceArnn, AlC and Sr A to the rank of __ . (143-Tbl)
AB.
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Do majors have Article 15 authority to reduce thegrade ofMSgts? (143-Tbl)
No. (They do have authority to reduce Amn-TSgt.)
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Frocked commanders may exercise only that authorityassociated with their actual pay grade. T/F (143-TblNote)
True. (No authority is conferred by the frocked grade.)
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Who advises and helps the commander evaluate factsthroughout the Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP) process?(142)
The Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). (The commander makes thefinal decision.)
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For Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP), the commanderforwards AF Form 3070A/B/C, Record of NonjudicialPunishment Proceedings, to the member. What does thisform state? (142)
The alleged offenses, the member’s rights and the maximumpunishment allowable.
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How long does a member have to decide whether toaccept Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP)? (142)
Three duty days (72 hours).
chapter 7
Accepting Article 15 over court-martial is an admissionof guilt. T/F (142)
False. (It is a choice of forum. Members may still present afull defense, make statements and have the right to remainsilent.)
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After carefully considering all matters submitted bythe member and consulting with the Staff Judge Advocate(SJA), which four decisions can the commander make regarding an Article 15? (142)
1) The member did not commit the offenses and proceedingsare terminated; 2) extenuation and mitigation factors makeNonjudicial Punishment (NJP) inappropriate and proceedingsare terminated; 3) the member committed one or moreof the offenses; or 4) the member committed one or morelesser-included offenses instead.
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How can offenders appeal a commander’s decision toimpose Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP)? (142)
Through command channels to the next superior authority.(Members may submit a written appeal within five calendardays.)
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Commanders have the power to suspend, __ , ormitigate punishment of an Article 15. (143)
Remit.
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Why are suspended sentences encouraged for firstoffenders under Article 15? (143)
To provide an observation period and an incentive for goodbehavior. (All or part of the punishment is postponed for aspecific probationary period (no more than six months) andautomatically cancelled if the offender continues good behavior.)
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__ cancels any unexecuted portion of a punishmentunder Article 15. (143)
Remission.
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Commanders may reduce either the quantity orquality of an unexecuted portion of an Article 15 punishmentthrough __ . (143)
Mitigation. (For example, a reduction in grade can be mitigatedto a forfeiture of pay.)
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__ cancels the Article 15 punishment when, underall the circumstances of the case, the punishment resultedin a clear injustice. (143)
Set-aside. (Any property, privilege or rights affected by theportion of the punishment set aside are also restored.)
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What are the three types of courts-martial? (143-144)
1) Summary Court-Martial (SCM); 2) Special Court-Martial(SPCM); and 3) General Court-Martial (GCM).
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A(n) __ court-martial tries minor offenses; a(n)__ court-martial tries intermediate offenses. (143-144)
Summary Court-Martial (SCM). Special Court-Martial(SPCM).
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How many active-duty commissioned officers presideover a Summary Court-Martial (SCM)? (143)
One. (The SCM officer is appointed instead of a militaryjudge and considers evidence, makes findings and imposessentencing if guilty.)
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A person may not be tried by a Summary CourtMartial(SCM) if he or she objects. T/F (143)
True. (Only consenting enlisted members may be tried bySCM.)
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A Special Court-Martial (SPCM) tries noncapitaloffenses and consists of a military judge and a panel of__ or more members. (144, 145-Tbl)
Three. (Enlisted accused can ask that at least 1/3 of the panelbe enlisted members. Any accused may ask for trial by militaryjudge alone.)
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Which four UCMJ authorized punishments are notallowed in a Special Court-Martial (SPCM)? (144)
1) Death; 2) dishonorable discharge; 3) dismissal of an officer;and 4) confinement for more than one year.
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A court-martial tries the most serious offenses. (144)
General Court-Martial (GCM).
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The General Court-Martial (GCM) is composed of amilitary judge and at least a(n) __ -member panel thatmay include, when requested, at least one-third enlistedmembers. (144)
5-member.
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The accused in a General Court-Martial (GCM) mayrequest trial by military judge alone, except in whichcases? (144)
Capital cases (when a sentence of death may be adjudged).
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How is the maximum punishment under GeneralCourt-Martial (GCM) limited? (144)
It is limited only by the maximum allowable punishmentunder the UCMJ for the offenses and may extend to death.
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Only enlisted members may be tried under SummaryCourt-Martial (SCM). Who is triable under SpecialCourt-Martial (SPCM) and General Court-Martial(GCM)? (145-Tbl)
Any person subject to the UCMJ.
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Any noncapital offense punishable under the UCMJis triable by Summary Court-Martial (SCM) and SpecialCourt-Martial (SPCM). T/F (145-Tbl)
True.
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Who is the convening authority for a General CourtMartial(GCM)? (145-Tbl)
The President; the SECAF; the commander of an air command,an air force, an air division or a separate wing of the Air Force; or any commander designated by the President orSECAF.
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Court-martial procedures include what three steps?(144-145)
The 1) trial; 2) findings and sentence; and 3) post-trial procedures.
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Who is generally the convening authority for courtsmartial?(144)
The wing or Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander. (He orshe selects the court-martial panel.)
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What grade must court-martial panel members be?(144)
Senior in grade to the accused. (They also must be the bestqualified.)
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What is the court-martial verdict called? (144)
The findings. (A not-guilty verdict is called an acquittal.)
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How many members of the court-martial panel mustconcur for a finding of guilty? (144)
At least 2/3.
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What court-martial panel vote is required for adeath sentence? (144)
A unanimous vote by a panel of 12 members.
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What court-martial panel vote is required for confinementexceeding 10 years? (144)
314 concurrence.
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Who must review the complete court-martial recordbefore the convening authority acts on the findings andsentence? (145)
The Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
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The convening authority must act on every case aftera court-martial. T/F (145)
True
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List several actions the convening authority can takewhen reviewing court-martial records. (145)
Approve or disapprove any portion of the findings or sentence,mitigate the sentence, suspend a sentence (except adeath sentence), order a rehearing, and defer forfeiture of payand allowances, reduction in grade or a sentence of confinement.
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Which court-martial sentence cannot be suspendedby the convening authority? (145)
A death sentence.
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List the four levels included in the appeal process ofthe UCMJ, in ascending order. (145-146)
I) The Judge Advocate General (TJAG); 2) US Air ForceCourt of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA); 3) US Court of Appealsfor the Armed Forces (USCAAF); and 4) US SupremeCourt.
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Who reviews any case that is not automatically reviewedby the US Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals(AFCCA)? (145)
The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
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What is the first level of formal appellate review?(146)
The Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA). (It mayapprove, disapprove or modify the findings and sentence.)
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Which court-martial findings are reviewed by the USAir Force Court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA)? (146)
I) Death sentence; 2) dismissal of a commissioned officer; 3)punitive discharge; and 4) confinement of one year or more.
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Name the highest appellate court in the military justicesystem. (146)
The US Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (USCAAF).(It reviews all death penalty cases and cases forwarded byThe Judge Advocate General (TJAG).)
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Is the US Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces(USCAAF) composed of five military or five civilianjudges? (146)
Five civilian judges appointed by the President.
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The accused may petition for the US Court of Appealsfor the Armed Forces (USCAAF) review of his orher case. T/F (146)
True.
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Decisions of the __ may be reviewed by the USSupreme Court. (146)
US Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces (USCAAF).
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Military justice requires an NCO to be familiar withthe UCMJ and correct marginal or substandard behavioror duty performance of subordinates, support the commander’sapplication of military justice, report violationsand be prepared to investigate incidents. Name threeother general responsibilities. (146)
1) Know the rules for apprehending, arresting and confiningviolators; 2) generally counsel Airmen on their legal rightsand refer them to proper legal authorities; and 3) lead and counsel individuals receiving Article 15 punishment.
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Military __ and __ evolved from a need fororder and from mutual respect and fraternity amongmilitary personnel. (157)
Customs and courtesies.
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Beyond basic politeness, why are customs and courtesiesimportant? (157)
They build morale, esprit de corps, discipline and missioneffectiveness, which ensures respect for military membersand builds a foundation for self-discipline.
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Name the seven US flag types authorized by the AirForce. (157-158)
1) Installation flag; 2) all-purpose flags; 3) ceremonial flag;4) organizational flag; 5) interment flag; 6) retirement flag;and 7) automobile flags.
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Which two flags are flown on installation flagstaffs?(157)
Installation flag and all-weather (storm) flag.
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Which flag replaces the installation flag during inclementweather? (157)
The lightweight nylon all-weather (storm) flag (5’ x 9’6”).
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List four uses for the all-purpose flag. (3’ x 4’). (157)
1) Outdoor displays with flags of friendly foreign nations; 2)arrival ceremonies for international dignitaries; 3) indicatingjoint occupancy of a building by two or more countries; and4) presentation at retirement ceremonies.
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The __ flag is rayon or synthetic material andmeasures 4’4” x 5’6”, trimmed on three edges with 2”wideyellow rayon fringe. (157)
Ceremonial.
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The __ flag is rayon or synthetic substitute materialand measures 3’ x 4’, trimmed on three edges with2”-wide rayon fringe. (157)
Organizational.
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Which US flag (5’ x 9’6”) is authorized to drape overmilitary personnel’s or veterans’ closed caskets? (158)
Interment flag.
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How can you obtain an interment flag? (158)
Submit VA Form 27-2008, Application for United StatesFlag for Burial Purposes, to any regional VA office or USPost Office.
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The retirement flag (3’ x 4’ or 3’ x 5’) is presented tomembers retiring from the Air Force. What funds areauthorized to purchase it? (158)
Base Operations and Maintenance (O&M) funds.
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When is use of the 12” x 18” automobile flag authorized?(158)
For display with the individual automobile flag of the Presidentand Vice President of the United States.
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When is use of the 18” x 26” automobile flag authorized?(158)
For display on government automobiles of individuals who . ,are authorized positional colors.
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US flags are typically displayed on buildings andstationary flagstaffs in the open from sunrise to sunset.When may flags be displayed 24 hours a day? (158)
When a patriotic effect is desired after dark. In this case, allflags on display should be properly illuminated.
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One installation flag may be flown from a flagstaff infront of installation headquarters from reveille to retreat.Where may additional flagstaffs and flags be placed?(158)
Adjacent to each dependent school on the installation.
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To whom should you send written requests for exemptionsfrom installation flag placement policy? (158)
The appropriate MAJCOM vice commander.
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How is the installation flag properly raised and lowered?(158)
It should be hoisted briskly and lowered ceremoniously.
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When should the installation flag not be displayed?(158)
On days when the weather is inclement, unless an allweatherflag is used.
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- When should the US flag be displayed in or nearevery schoolhouse? (158)
During school days.
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When carried in a procession (or displayed in a stationaryposition) with another flag or flags, the US flagshould be on the marching right - to the flag’s own right(to the far right of all others). Where should it be carriedwhen there is a line of other flags? (158, 159-Fig)
In front of the center line.
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When are flags carried by Airmen carried athalfstaff? (158)
They are never carried at halfstaff
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How is the US flag displayed with another flag fromcrossed staffs against a wall? (158, 159-Fig)
On the right (to the left of an observer facing the display)with its staff in front of the other flag’s staff.
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When many flags radiate on staffs from a centralpoint, and no foreign flags are in the display, the US flagwill be in the __ and at the __ point of the group.(158, 159-Fig)
Center; highest.
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When a number of flags are displayed from staffs setin a line, all staffs will have the same height and finial.Where is the US flag placed? (158, 160-Fig)
At the right (to the left of an observer facing the display). (Ifthere are no foreign national flags, the US flag may be placedin the center, but at a higher level.)
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When flags of two or more nations are displayed,how are they flown? (160)
From separate staffs of the same height and size.
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International usage requires you to display the flagsof all nations equally in a time of peace. The flags arealigned alphabetically, using the __ alphabet. (160)
English. (With the US flag at its own right (the observer’sleft).)
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In NATO countries, member country flags are displayedin __ alphabetical order. (160)
French.
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When the US flag is displayed from a staff projectinghorizontally or at an angle from the windowsill, balconyor front of a building, where should the union be placed?(160, 160-Fig)
At the peak of the staff.
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When the US flag is hung horizontally or verticallyagainst a wall, where should the union appear? (160, 161-Fig)
Uppermost and to the flag’s own right (to the left of an observerfacing the display).
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When displayed in a window, the US flag should bedisplayed with the union uppermost and to the left of anobserver inside the building. T/F (160, 161-Fig)
False, (The union should be to the left of an observer in thestreet.)
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When the US flag is displayed over the middle of astreet, it should be suspended vertically with the union tothe ___ on an east-west street, and to the __ on anorth-south street. (161)
North; east.
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How is the US flag positioned when displayed flat ona speaker’s platform? (161, 161-Fig)
It should be placed above and behind the speaker with theunion to the speaker’s right.
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How is the US flag displayed from a staff in a churchor public auditorium? (161, 161-Fig)
In a place of honor to the speaker’s right, with other flags tothe speaker’s left. (The flag holds the position of prominencein front of the audience,)
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When the US flag is suspended across a corridor orlobby (including aircraft hangars) in a building with onlyone main entrance, should it be suspended vertically orhorizontally? (161)
Vertically, (With the union of the flag to the observer’s leftupon entering.)
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When the US flag is suspended across a corridor orlobby (including aircraft hangars) in a building withmore than one main entrance, the flag should be suspendedvertically near the center of the corridor or lobbywith the union to the when the entrances are tothe east and west, or to the __ when the entrances areto the north and south. (161)
North; east.
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When three flag staffs of the same height are positionedoutside a building in a straight line, the US flagmay be placed at its own right (use the building lookingout to the flags as the point of reference). What arrangementis also permitted? (161)
The US flag may be positioned on the center staff if it ishigher than the other two staffs,
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On a closed casket, place the US flag lengthwise withthe union at the head and over the shoulder of thedeceased. (161, 162-Fig)
Left.
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When a full-couch casket is opened, remove the USflag and place it in the head end of the casket just abovethe decedent’s left shoulder. Into what shape should youfold the flag? (161)
The triangular shape of a cocked hat.
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How should you fold the US flag when a half-couchcasket is opened? (161
Fold it over the lower half of the casket in the same relativeposition as when displayed full-length on a closed casket.
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On a half-couch casket, is the US flag lowered intothe ground with the deceased? (161)
No. (Do not allow it to touch the ground.)
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The US interment flag may be given to the next ofkin at the conclusion of the interment. T/F (161)
True.
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How should the US flag be placed when posted orphotographed? (162)
Drape the flag left to right with the blue field on top and thestripes running left to right.
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When the US flag is painted or displayed on an aircraftor vehicle, the union is placed toward the __ _and the stripes trail. (162)
Front
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Is the US flag ever dipped to any person or thing?(162)
No.
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Regimental colors, ___ flags and organizationalor institutional flags are always dipped to the US flag as amark of respect. (162)
State flags.
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No disrespect is shown to the US flag; it will not bedipped to any person or thing. List five of the 18 ways thePDG states the US flag should never be used or displayed.(162)
Any five of the following: never 1) display the flag with theunion down (except in dire distress); 2) allow the flag totouch anything beneath it; 3) use the flag to cover a statue ormonument (except for an unveiling); 4) carry the flag flat orhorizontally; 5) use the flag as apparel, bedding or drapery;6) festoon the flag, nor draw it back, up or display in folds -it should always fall free; 7) allow the flag to be easily tom,soiled or damaged; 8) use the flag to cover a ceiling; 9) placeany mark on or attachment to the flag; 10) use the flag as areceptacle; 11) use the flag for advertising of any kind; 12)embroider the flag on articles such as cushions or handkerchiefs;13) print the flag on disposable items; 14) use anypart of the flag as a costume or athletic uniform (except flagpatches and lapel pins); 15) display the flag on a parade float(except from a staff); 16) drape the flag over part of a vehicle,train or boat; 1 7) place another flag or pennant above theUS flag; or 18) place another flag or pennant on the samelevel and to the right of the US flag (except during churchservices conducted by naval chaplains at sea).
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Where is the US flag flown at halfstaff on a numberof days throughout the year? (163, 163-Figs)
Throughout the United States, its territories and possessions,and on all DoD buildings, grounds and naval vessels. (SeeDoDI 1005.06, Display of the National Flag at Half-Sta.ff formore information.)
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The US flag is flown at halfstaff on Peace Officers’Memorial Day, Patriot Day, National Pearl Harbor RemembranceDay and on the day of the National FallenFirefighters Memorial Service each year. How is it flownon Memorial Day? (163)
At halfstaffuntil noon, then raised to the top of the staff
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Other than on the pre-planned dates, under whatcircumstances will all US flags in DoD jurisdiction beflown at halfstaff? (163)
On the death of individuals in accordance with AFI 34-1201,Protocol, or when directed by the President of the UnitedStates or the SecDef
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Who ensures the procedures for flying the US flag athalfstaff are properly executed? (163)
The responsible military commander.
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Define “half staff.” (163)
The flag is flown one-half the distance between the top andbottom of the staff
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Describe the procedure for hoisting and lowering theUS flag when displaying it at halfstaff. (163)
First hoist the flag to the peak for an instant and then lower itto the halfstaff position. Raise it to the peak position againbefore lowering it at the end of the day.
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All flags displayed with the US flag are flown athalfstaff when the US flag is flown at halfstaff - withwhat exception? (164)
Foreign national flags are exempt from this rule.
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Heads of DoD components may direct US flags onbuildings, grounds or naval vessels under their jurisdictionbe flown at halfstaff when they feel it is proper andappropriate. Within the Air Force, to whom is this authoritydelegated? (164)
Installation commanders.
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When an installation commander chooses to fly theUS flag at halfstaff for a local death, what measuresshould he or she take to avoid confusion? (164)
State the reason on the base marquee.
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How should you dispose of flags no longer fit for display?(164)
They should be destroyed in a dignified manner (preferably by burning), unless they’re to be historically preserved. (Theinstallation honor guard or protocol office provide dispositioninstructions.)
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May people arrange to purchase flags flown over thecapitol? (164)
Yes. (By contacting their Senator or Representative. A certificatesigned by the architect of the capitol accompanies eachflag.)
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What are the official colors of the Air Force seal?(164)
Ultramarine blue and Air Force yellow.
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What do the 13 stars on the Air Force seal represent?(164)
The original 13 colonies.
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What does the American bald eagle on the crest ofthe Air Force seal symbolize? (164)
The United States and its air power.
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What does the thunderbolt with flames on the AirForce seal’s shield represent? (164)
Striking power through the use of aerospace.
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What do the background colors of the thunderbolton the Air Force seal’s shield represent? (164)
The top light blue represents the sky, the lower white representsmetal silver.
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The Air Force Seal is protected from __ use underTitle 18 of the USC Section 506, Seals of Departmentsor Agencies. (165)
Unauthorized.
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Is falsely making, forging, counterfeiting, mutilatingor altering the Air Force seal or knowingly using or possessingany such altered seal with fraudulent intent punishableby law? (165)
Yes.
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Which publication outlines the authorized uses of theAir Force seal? (165)
AFMAN 33-326, Preparing Official Communications.
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When is the Air Force coat of arms authorized forcommercial and/or unofficial use? (165)
When approved by the Secretary of the Air Force, PublicAffairs (SAF/PA).
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How is the Coat of Arms protected against unauthorizeduse or alterations to approved versions? (165)
Through a trademark.
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What does the official symbol of the US Air Forcehonor and represent? (165)
The heritage of our past and the promise of our future.
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What are the two main parts of the Air Force symbol?(165, 165-Fig)
The stylized “Arnold” wings and the star with circle (the coreelements of our Air Corps heritage) - modernized to reflectour air and space force of today and tomorrow.
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The stylized wings in the Air Force symbol representthe stripes of our strength - the enlisted men and womenof our force. What do their six sections represent? (165,165-Fig)
Our distinctive capabilities - 1) air and space superiority; 2)global attack; 3) rapid global mobility; 4) precision engagement;5) information superiority; and 6) agile combat support.
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What does the sphere in the lower half of the AirForce symbol represent? (165, 165-Fig)
The globe (reminding us of our obligation to secure our nation’sfreedom and our challenge to rapidly respond to crisesand provide decisive air and space power worldwide).
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What does the star in the lower half of the Air Forcesymbol represent? (165, 165-Fig)
The star represents the components of our one force and family(active duty, civilians, guard, reserve and retirees). It alsosymbolizes space, is the rallying symbol in all our wars andrepresents the officer corps.
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What do the three diamonds in the lower half of theAir Force symbol represent? (165, 165-Fig)
The core values (Integrity First, Service Before Self, Excellencein All We Do).
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All the elements of the Air Force symbol come togetherin one symbol that presents what two powerfulimages? (165, 165-Fig)
1) An eagle, the emblem of our nation; and 2) a medal, representingvalor in service to our nation.
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The Air Force symbol is protected against unauthorizeduse or alterations to approved versions through aregistered trademark. T/F (165)
True.
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DoD employees and their immediate families have animplied license to use the Air Force symbol on personalproducts, with what restrictions? (165)
Only for internal use, not for retail sales, advertising or potential endorsements.
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May the Air Force symbol be used for commercialpurposes? (165)
Yes. (If a license agreement has been obtained.)
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What must all personnel outside in uniform do duringthe raising and lowering of the flag? (166)
Face the flag and salute.
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How long should you hold the salute during the nationalanthem or “To the Colors”? (166)
Until the last note of music is played.
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If you’re in a moving vehicle, what should you dowhen you hear the national anthem or “To the Colors”start to play? (166)
Stop at the first note of music and sit quietly until it ends.
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What should you do during the national anthem or”To the Colors” if you are wearing civilian clothes? (166)
Face the flag (or sound of the music) and stand at attentionwith your right hand over your heart, or render a salute.
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Do you need to stand and salute indoors during retreator reveille? (166)
No. (However, you must stand during the playing of the nationalanthem before a showing of a movie at the base theater.)
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A folded flag is considered cased and does not requirea salute. T/F (166)
True.
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Saluting is a courteous exchange of greetings. Whosalutes first? (166)v
The junior member.
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- What item is rendered a salute as a sign of respect?(166)
The flag.
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When may any Airman, NCO or officer who recognizesa need to salute, or a need to return one, do so?(166)
Anytime, anywhere.
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When you return or render an individual salute,what parts of your body should you turn toward the flagor person being saluted? (166)
Your head and eyes.
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When you meet an officer outside a building and ..Iyou’re both in uniform, what should you do? (166)
Initiate the salute upon recognition, allowing him or her timeto return it.
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If your hands are full when you approach an officer,what type of greeting is appropriate? (166)
A verbal greeting without saluting.
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A junior member salutes an officer carrying articlesin both hands. What should the officer do? (166)
Nod or verbally acknowledge the salute.
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If you’re in formation and an officer approaches,who calls the group to attention and salutes for them?(166)
The person in charge of the group.
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In formation, when do members salute or return asalute? (166)
Only when given the command to do so.
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If you’re part of a group not in formation, who callsthe group to attention? Who salutes? (166)
The first person to see the officer calls the group to attention.Everyone faces the officer and salutes.
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Are salutes required between individuals at publicgatherings, such as sporting events and meetings? (166)
No
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Exchanging salutes between military pedestrians(including gate sentries) and officers in a moving vehicleis not mandatory. T/F (166)
True. (Unless officer passengers are readily identifiable.)
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True. (Unless officer passengers are readily identifiable.)
Yes.
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Persons in uniform may salute civilians. T/F (166)
True. (Always salute the President and, if appropriate, militarymembers in civilian clothes.)
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In a work detail, who salutes? (166)
The person in charge salutes for the whole detail.
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While in uniform at a military funeral, when do yousalute? (166)
As the caisson or hearse passes by and as the casket is carriedby your position. Also, during the firing of volleys andthe playing of Taps.
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When is it appropriate to salute indoors? (167)
In a formal reporting situation.
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___ is defined as common, everyday courtesy. (167)
Etiquette
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What is the general rule for addressing civil servantsproperly? (167)
Use the last name with Mr, Mrs, Miss or Ms, unless requestedto do otherwise.
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Gossip leads to low morale within the unit. T/F (167)
True. (Don’t gossip and discourage others from gossiping.)
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Give some examples of proper telephone etiquette.(167)
1) Be polite and identify yourself and your organization; 2)offer to take a message or help the caller when someone isunavailable; 3) write down the individual’s name, organization,phone number and message; and 4) pass the informationon to the intended recipient.
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Why shouldn’t you lean or sit on desks, lean back ina chair or put your feet on desks? (167)
Because it doesn’t present a professional military image.
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What are some good general rules for military etiquette?(167)
Use common sense, be considerate of others and insist thatyour subordinates do the same.
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You should extend the same military courtesies tomembers of all US service branches. T/F (167)
True.
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Should you salute commissioned officers of friendlyUN forces and nations? (167)
Yes
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As an NCO, you must learn the identifying insigniaof the military grades of all nations. T/F (167)
False. (However, you should learn the insignia of the mostfrequently contacted nations, particularly during an overseasassignment or deployment.)
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What happens when courtesy falters within a unit?(167)
Discipline stops functioning and the mission is endangered.
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In the Air Force, the position or place of honor is onthe __ . (167)
Right.
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When you accompany or join a person senior to you,what position should you take? (167)
The position to the senior’s left.
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What should you do when a senior officer enters ordeparts the room? (168)
Rise and stand at attention.
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Who calls a group to attention when an officer entersa room? (168)
The first person to see the officer.
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When wouldn’t a group be called to attention whenan officer enters a room? (168)
When an officer of equal or higher rank is already in theroom.
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Junior members enter a vehicle or boaton the senior’s __ . (168)
First; left.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor the Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force? (168-Fig)
CMSAF; Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force or Chief.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Chief Master Sergeant? (168-Fig)
CMSgt; Chief Master Sergeant or Chief.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Senior Master Sergeant? (168-Fig)
SMSgt; Senior Master Sergeant or Sergeant.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Master Sergeant? (168-Fig)
MSgt; Master Sergeant or Sergeant.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Technical Sergeant? (168-Fig)
TSgt; Technical Sergeant or Sergeant.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Staff Sergeant? (168-Fig)
SSgt; Staff Sergeant or Sergeant.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor a Senior Airman? (168-Fig)
SrA; Senior Airman or Airman.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of address for an Airman First Class? (168-Fig)
AIC; Airman First Class or Airman.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor an Airman? (168-Fig)
Arnn; Airman.
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What is the abbreviation and proper term of addressfor an Airman Basic? (168-Fig)
AB; Airman Basic or Airman.
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__ signals the start of the official duty day. (168)
Reveille.
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Where and when does reveille take place? (168)
Near the base flagstaff after sunrise. (Depending on the timedesignated by the commander.)
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How and when is reveille in the unit area held? (168)
It is normally held with the formation of squadron in line andused when a reveille ceremony is not held at the base flagstaff.
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What commands are used during the reveille ceremony?(168)
“Parade, REST,” “SOUND REVEILLE,” “Squadron, ATTENTION,”“Present, ARMS” and “Order, ARMS.”
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When practical, who makes up the flag security detailfor raising the flag? (168)
One NCO and two Airmen to hoist the flag.
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The flag is raised and lowered from the __ side ofthe flagstaff. (169)
Leeward.
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What two-fold purpose does the retreat ceremonyserve? (169)
To signal the end of the official duty day and to pay respectto the US flag.
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Where does a retreat ceremony take place? (169)
In the squadron area, base parade ground or near the baseflagstaff.
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What factors determine whether units are formed inline, or massed for a retreat ceremony at the flagstaff?(169)
The size and number of units and the available space.
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Before the band or recorded music starts to playretreat, who orders “SOUND RETREAT”? (169)
The commander.
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How is the flag lowered while the band plays the nationalanthem or a bugler plays “To the Colors”? (169)
Slowly and with dignity by the junior members of the flagsecurity detail.
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Which member of the flag security detail remains atattention while the flag is folded? (169)
The senior member. (Unless needed to control the flag.)
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The flag is folded in the triangular shape of a cockedhat. What part should be visible? (171-Fig)
Only the blue field.
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When practical, who lowers the all-purpose flag?(170)
One NCO and three Airmen.
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When practical, who lowers the installation flag?(170)
One NCO and five Airmen.
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How is the lowering of the flag coordinated with themusic (national anthem or “To the Colors”)? (170)
They should end at the same time.
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How do you lower a flag flown at halfstaff? (170)
Briskly hoist it to the staff head as retreat sounds, then loweron the first note of the national anthem or “To the Colors.”
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In military formations and ceremonies, the Pledge ofAllegiance is not recited by military personnel. T IF (170)
True.
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What do military personnel do during the Pledge ofAllegiance at outdoor protocol functions and social andsporting events that include civilian participants? (170)
Stand at attention, remain silent, face the flag and render thehand salute.
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Military members stand at attention, remain silentand face the flag without rendering the hand salute forthe Pledge of Allegiance during indoor protocol functionsand social and sporting events that include civilian participants.T IF (170)
True. (Reciting the pledge is optional for those in uniform, ifthe participants are primarily civilians and military in civilianattire.)
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At protocol functions and social and sporting events,military members in __ , recite the Pledge of Allegiancewhile standing at attention, facing the flag with theright hand over the heart. (170)
Civilian attire.
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During the Pledge of Allegiance, men in civilian attirewearing a head cover should remove it with the _____hand and hold it over their _____ shoulder.(170)
Right; left. (Hand over the heart.)
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The only authorized flag folding script is the onedeveloped by the Air Force that provides a(n) __ perspectiveon the US flag. (170)
Historical
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According to the Air Force script for flag folding,why do we display the flag and give it a distinctive fold?(172-Fig)
To show respect to the flag and express our gratitude to thoseindividuals who fought and continue to fight for freedom athome and abroad.
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Who decides how formally an award ceremony isconducted, based on the significance of the award? (170)
Commanders or other officials. (Many units present awardsduring commander’s call.)
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What ceremony recognizes meritorious service, outstandingachievement or heroism? (170)
The decoration ceremony. (The commander should presentthe decoration at a formal ceremony.)
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When should a decoration ceremony be conducted?(170)
At the earliest possible date after approval of the decoration.
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Decoration ceremony participants and attendeesshould wear the uniform specified by the host. If indoubt, it is best to wear the __ . (170)
Service Dress. (It is preferable to the ABU.)
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How do decoration ceremonies normally begin?(171)
By announcing “ATTENTION TO ORDERS.”
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Many of the guidelines for promotion ceremonies arethe same as for __ ceremonies. (172)
Decoration.
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When is it customary to hold a promotion ceremony?(172)
On the last duty day prior to the promotion.
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Can a base hold a basewide ceremony for allpromotees? (172)
Yes.
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What are some ways to add decorum to the promotionceremony? (172)
The national anthem, reaffirmation of the Oath of Enlistmentand the Air Force Song.
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The reenlistment ceremony can be celebratory withspecial gimmicks and publicity stunts. T/F (172)
False. (It must be dignified.)
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Why should immediate family members receive aninvitation to reenlistment ceremonies? (172)
To reinforce the family’s renewed commitment to the AirForce.
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Who may perform the reenlistment ceremony? (172)
The Airman may request any commissioned officer of theUS armed forces (active duty, reserve, guard or retired).
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What must form a backdrop for the participants in areenlistment ceremony? (172)
The US flag. (Reenlistees and reenlisting officers must wearan authorized uniform.)
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What is the core of the reenlistment ceremony? (173)
The Oath of Enlistment, recited by the officer and repeatedby the reenlistee.
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Why are retirement ceremonies important? (173)
To give a tangible expression of appreciation for contributionsto the Air Force and its mission and assurance that theretiree is still part of the Air Force family. (A retiring membermust be offered the courtesy of a formal ceremony.)
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What publication should you consult for detailsabout retirement ceremonies? (173)
AFI 36-3203, Service Retirements.
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Who normally conducts the retirement ceremony?(173)
A general officer. (Often as part of a formal military formation,such as a retreat or parade.)
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Along with any awards, decorations, honors andletters of appreciation, what two items are presented toretirees? (173)
A certificate ofretirement and an Air Force retired lapel button.
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Why is it customary to present the retiring member’sspouse with a certificate of appreciation during a retirementceremony? (173)
To acknowledge their support and sacrifices made during themember’s career.
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How does the commander proceed when a retiring member doesn’t want a formal retirement ceremony orfor any reason (leave or hospitalization) can’t be presentfor duty on the retirement date? (173)
The commander personally presents all decorations and anyawards or honors to the member at another time. (The retirementcertificate is not mailed unless there is no otherchoice.)
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AFPAM __ , Guide to Protocol, outlines the anapproved sequence of events for indoor retirement ceremonies.(173)
AFPAM 34-1202.
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When planning a retirement ceremony, 1) appointsomeone to set up the ceremony; 2) ensure the date andtime are good for the honoree; 3) select and reserve alocation; 4) permit the honoree to invite whomever he orshe would like to assist with the ceremony honors; 5) mailpersonal invitations to the guests (optional) or use AFIT’s”E-lnvitations” free web application; 6) ensure all awardelements and certificates are ready; 7) select an emceeand special guest escorts; and 8) request photographicsupport from the multimedia center. What other guidelinesapply before the ceremony begins? (174-Fig)
9) Ensure media equipment is available; 10) recommend a”walk through” of the actual ceremony; 11) order refreshments;12) print programs and seating/parking signs; 13)verify the guest list and obtain special guest information; 14)ensure the officiating officer and emcee have guest information,agenda, proposed remarks, etc.; and 15) perform a”dry run” the ceremony with all the key players.
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0n the day of the retirement ceremony, 1) set up thelocation at least two hours early; 2) meet with the honoreeto go over last-minute details; and 3) have the honoreeand special guests meet with the officiating officerjust before the ceremony. What occurs next? (174-Fig)
4) The ceremony begins with the emcee announcing the arrivalat the ceremony location; 5) the emcee welcomes everyoneand introduces special guests; 6) the emcee or officiatingofficer describes the honoree’s career highlights; 7) the emceereads the special order of the honoree; 8) the officiatingofficer performs the ceremony; 9) photos are taken throughout;I 0) the honoree gives remarks; and 11) the emcee thankseveryone for coming and invites participants to congratulatethe honoree and enjoy the refreshments.
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What is the only difference between a Dining-In anda Dining-Out? (173)
Nonmilitary spouses, friends and civilians may not attend theDining-In.
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Where did the present Dining-In format originate?(173)
In the Air Corps, where General “Hap” Arnold held his famouswingdings.
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What is appropriate attire for the Dining-In/Out?(173)
Air Force mess dress or the semiformal uniform. (Civiliandress is specified in the invitations.)
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What ceremony is a formal evening banquet to honoran inductee as a “leader among leaders” and an”Airman among Airmen”? (173)
The Order of the Sword induction ceremony. (The highestrecognition enlisted people can bestow.)
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____ consists of certain movements by which theflight or squadron is moved in an orderly manner fromone formation to another or from one place to another.(174)
Drill.
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How are Air Force organizations divided for drillpurposes? (174)
Into elements, flights, squadrons, groups and wings.
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Ceremonies are an extension of drill activity. T/F(174)
True.
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Name the four types of commands in drill. (175)
I) Drill; 2) supplementary; 3) informational; and 4) mass.
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Name the two parts of a drill command (oral order).(175)
The preparatory command and the command of execution.
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In the command “Flight, HALT,” the word “Flight”is the preparatory command. What else does it designate?(175)
The unit.
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The command of __ follows the preparatorycommand. (175)
Execution.
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When are supplementary commands given? (175)
When one unit of the element must execute a differentmovement from other units or the same movement at a differenttime,
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Give an example of a supplementary command. (175)
“CONTINUE THE MARCH” or “STAND FAST.”
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What type of command directs others to give commandsand has no preparatory command or command ofexecution? (175)
An informational command. (Examples: “PREPARE FOR~ INSPECTION” and “DISMISS THE SQUADRON.”)
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What type of command helps develop confidence,self-reliance, assertiveness and enthusiasm by making themember recall, give and execute the proper commands?(175)
A mass command.
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Mass commands are given in __ by everyone inthe element. (175)
Unison.
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When giving commands in drill, good military __is essential. (175)
Bearing.
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In what position is the commander when givingcommands in drill? (175)
Attention.
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To assume the position of attention, bring your heelstogether evenly and point your feet out equally to forma(n) __ -degree angle. (175)
45-degree.
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You should not lock your knees while at attention.T/F (175)
True
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What are the four positions of rest in drill? (175)
1) Parade rest; 2) at ease; 3) rest; and 4) fall out.
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What command is given to resume the position ofattention from any of the rest positions (except fall out)?(175)
“Flight, ATTENTION.” (For fall out, use “FALL IN.”)
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How far apart should your heels be in the paraderest position? (175)
12 inches apart (measured from the inside of the heels).
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To assume the position of __ , keep your right footin place and remain silent. (175)
At ease.
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How does the rest position differ from at ease? (175)
Moderate speech is permitted at the rest position.
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You may leave the immediate area when you execute”FALL OUT.” T/F (176)
False. (You may leave the ranks, but not the immediate area.)
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What does the first phase of drill involve? The secondphase? (176)
First phase - teaching basic movements, facings and positions.Second phase - merging individuals as a flight to learnbase formations and marching.
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What is the most practical drill group? (176)
A flight formation.
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A flight forms in at least two but not more than__ elements for drill. (176)
Four.
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On which drill command does a flight form a lineformation? (176)
“FALLIN.”
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Who usually forms and dismisses the flight formationin drill? (176)
The flight sergeant.
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What commands are used when forming the flight indrill? (176)
“FALL IN,” “Dress Right, DRESS” and “Ready, FRONT.”
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In a flight formation, who verifies the alignment ofeach rank? (176)
The flight commander.
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When is the command “Open Ranks, MARCH” givento a formation? (176)
When in line at normal interval.
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What does the first rank in a flight formation doupon the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”? (176)
Take three paces forward.
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How many forward paces do the second and thirdranks in a flight formation take upon the command”Open Ranks, MARCH”? (176)
The second takes two paces and the third takes one.
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What does the fourth rank do in a flight formationupon the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”? (176)
Stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.
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Who inspects the flight? (176)
The inspector and commander. (Ifrequired.)
chapter 8
In “Close Ranks, MARCH,” the first rank standsfast. What do the second, third and fourth ranks do?(177)
Second rank takes one pace forward and halts at attention;third and fourth ranks take two and three paces forward respectively,then halt at attention.
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What is the primary mission of the base honorguard? (177)
Providing professional military funeral honors for activeduty, retired members and veterans of the US Air Force.
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Installation commanders are responsible for themandatory base honor guard program. What does thisprogram emphasize? (177)
The importance of military customs and courtesies, dress andappearance, and drill and ceremonies.
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Members of the base honor guard program are usuallyvolunteers from the installation host and tenantunits, drawn from the airman basic to __ sergeantpool. (177)
Technical.
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When did HQ Command, US Air Force, direct thecreation of the elite ceremonial unit that has evolved intothe honor guard? (177)
May 1948.
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Where was the first base honor guard activated?(177)
Within the 11 OOth Air Police Squadron, Bolling Field, Washington,DC.
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Since January 2000, public law provides for all veteransto receive, at a minimum, a funeral ceremony includingwhat three things? (177)
The 1) folding of a US flag; 2) presentation of the flag to theveteran’s family; and 3) playing of”Taps.”
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__ are the backbone of the Air Force. (183)
NC Os.
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What is the essential purpose of an organized militaryforce? (183)
To defend the state’s interests, by force of arms if necessary.(This task is unique to the military profession.)
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The military profession is a calling that requires adevotion to service and willingness to sacrifice at thesame levels as those required in the business world. T/F(183)
False. (It requires devotion and sacrifice far beyond thoserequired in the business world.)
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Why does the enlisted force need a common approachto career progression, professional development,and acquiring increased supervisory and leadership responsibilities?(183)
Because it is a diverse corps of functionally and operationallyspecialized Airmen.
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What provides consistent, well-defined expectations,standards and opportunities for growth for all Airmen inevery specialty and command? (183)
The enlisted force structure.
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What does the enlisted force structure reflect? (183)
The Air Force core values (Integrity First, Service BeforeSelf and Excellence in All We Do), which are the foundationof all Air Force policies, guidance and overall focus.
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The enlisted force structure provides what threethings? (183)
1) A structure that best meets mission requirements; 2) acommon stable career structure for all enlisted personnel;and 3) an opportunity for professional growth for all Airmen.
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What five things does the enlisted force structuredefine? (183)
1) Its three tiers; 2) the three levels of enlisted leadership and development; 3) the roles, responsibilities, expectations andofficial terms of address of each enlisted rank; 4) specialSNCO positions; and 5) official duty titles for the enlistedforce.
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Each in the enlisted force structure correspondsto higher training levels, education, technicalcompetence, experience, leadership and managerial responsibilities.(184)
Tier.
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What are the three tiers of the enlisted force structure?(184)
The 1) Junior Enlisted Airman tier; 2) NCO tier; and 3)SNCO tier.
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What ranks are included in the Junior Enlisted Airmantier of the enlisted force structure? (184)
AB, Arnn, AlC and SrA.
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What is the initial focus of those in the Junior EnlistedAirman tier of the enlisted force structure? (184)
Adapting to the military profession’s requirements, achievingtechnical proficiency and becoming productive servicemembers.
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Upon achieving what rank do Airmen begin to exerciselimited supervision and leadership while preparingfor increased responsibilities and expanding their technicalskills? (184)
Sr A.
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The ____ tier of the enlisted force structure includesSSgts and TSgts serving as first-line supervisors whilebecoming expert hands-on technicians.
NCO tier.
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What are the three major responsibilities of NCOs?(184)
1) Ensuring their team members work together; 2) developingtheir subordinates into the future’s NCOs; and 3) continuingto develop their own leadership skills.
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Which tier of the enlisted force structure includesMSgts, SMSgts and CMSgts who are critical to the AirForce’s ability to project air power? (184)
The SNCO tier.
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What should be the primary focus for those in theSNCO tier of the enlisted force structure? (184)
Accomplishing the mission by skillfully using and developingteams, as well as participating in the decisionmakingprocess appropriately.
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The three enlisted leadership and development levelsapply to all members of the enlisted force. What arethey? (184)
1) Tactical; 2) operational; and 3) strategic.
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The tactical level of enlisted leadership and developmentnormally applies to members in what ranks?(184)
AB through TSgt.
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What is the primary focus of the tactical level of enlistedleadership and development? (184)
Accomplishing all assigned work as efficiently as possibleusing the personnel and resources available.
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At what enlisted leadership and developmental leveldo SNCOs (typically working at the Numbered Air Force(NAF) level and below) transition from expert techniciansand first-line supervisors to leaders with broaderresponsibilities? (184)
The operational level.
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What do SNCOs at the operational level of enlistedleadership and development continue to develop? (184)
Their expertise, experience, and management and leadershipskills to convert direction into mission accomplishment.
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The majority of the enlisted force spends their entirecareers at the and levels of enlisted leadershipand development, where their natural strengths ofcompetencies, experience and day-to-day mission focusare required. (184)
Tactical and operational levels.
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CMSgts (and a few other SNCOs assigned to higherHQ) serve in what positions that constitute the strategiclevel of enlisted leadership and development? (184)
Key leadership positions at the DoD, Headquarters Air Force(HAF), MAJCOMs, Direct Reporting Units (DRU) and selectagencies and HQ.
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What abilities do SNCOs serving at the strategiclevel of enlisted leadership and development continue todevelop? (184)
Their knowledge of Air Force institutional management processesand challenges, ability to advise senior leaders, participationin top-level decisionmaking processes, drafting policies, managing career fields and leading far-reaching programs.
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What is the primary focus of the strategic level ofenlisted leadership and development? (184)
Strategic leadership and management of the force that satisfiescurrent and future requirements.
chapter 9
Name four general junior enlisted Airman responsibilities.(185)
1) Accepting and executing all duties, instructions, responsibilitiesand lawful orders in a timely, efficient manner; 2)being effective followers; 3) placing official duty requirementsand responsibilities above their personal desires; and4) issuing lawful orders if placed in charge ofa work activityor other Airmen.
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To attain and maintain the highest level of personalreadiness and meet Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) mission requirements, Airmen must be ready toaccomplish the mission in what five ways? (185-186)
1) Technically; 2) physically; 3) mentally; 4) spiritually; and5) by meeting all predeployment requirements if postured todeploy.
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How can junior enlisted Airmen be technically readyto accomplish the mission? (185)
Have a skill level commensurate with their rank and maintaina high degree of proficiency in their specialty.
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How can junior enlisted Airmen be physically readyto accomplish the mission? (185)
Maintain good physical condition, meet Air Force fitnessstandards and participate in the Air Force Fitness Program.
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How can junior enlisted Airmen be mentally ready toaccomplish the mission? (185-186)
Deal with issues that detract from mission focus, diminishmotivation, erode positive attitudes and reduce the quality oftheir work. (Seek help ifnecessary.)
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What kinds of issues can detract from mental readiness?(185)
Quality of life, financial problems, sexual harassment, discrimination,stress, marital problems and substance abuse.
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If a junior enlisted Airman is having difficulty dealingwith an issue that detracts from mental readiness, heor she can seek assistance from whom? (186)
His or her supervisory chain, first sergeant, commander,chaplain or an appropriate referral agency. (Airmen are expectedto take positive steps to resolve these issues responsi- ..,_/bly.)
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What is the Air Force’s policy regarding discrimina~tion and sexual harassment? (186)
“Zero tolerance.”
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To whom should junior enlisted Airmen immediatelyreport anyone who may be exhibiting suicidal behavior?(186)
Their supervisory chain, first sergeant or commander. (FellowAirmen are extremely important in suicide prevention.)
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How can junior enlisted Airmen be spiritually readyto accomplish the mission? (186)
Develop the personal qualities needed to get through times ofstress, hardship and tragedy.
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Spiritual readiness always includes religious activities.T/F (186)
False. (It may or may not include religious activities.)
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Junior enlisted Airmen should correct personnel whoviolate what military standards? (186)
Professional behavior, military bearing, respect for authorityand dress and appearance.
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__ are primarily learners operating at the tacticallevel of enlisted leadership and development. They canperform basic tasks under close supervision at their firstduty station. (186)
ABs.
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Arnn, operating at the __ level of enlisted leadershipand development, should understand and conform tomilitary standards, customs and courtesies. (186)
Tactical.
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Although Arnn remain focused on learning and requiresignificant supervision and support, what shouldthey begin to show? (186)
Basic task proficiency.
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What is required of an AlC? (186)
He or she must master many skills while becoming an effectiveteam member. (Al Cs must fully comply with Air Forcestandards.)
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AlCs operate at the tactical level of enlisted leadershipand development and no longer require supervisionto progress. T/F (186)
False. (They require continued supervision.)
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SrA establish themselves as effective first-line supervisorswith whose guidance and assistance? (186)
The NCOs above them.
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When may Sr A become reporting officials? (186)
After completing ALS.
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How are Sr A commonly used? (186)
As skilled technicians and trainers operating at the tacticallevel.
chapter 9
Name several general NCO responsibilities. (186-188)
Any of the following: 1) accept and execute all duties, instructions,responsibilities and lawful orders in a timely, efficientmanner; 2) be effective leaders and followers; 3) maintainthe highest level of readiness technically, physically,mentally and spiritually; 4) prepare themselves and theirsubordinates to meet all predeployment requirements; 5)accept the responsibility and accountability that comes withleadership; 6) support and explain leaders’ decisions; 7) stayinvolved with their personnel on a daily basis; 8) epitomizeexcellence and lead by example; 9) provide career counselingto subordinates; 10) promote a culture of flexible Airmenable to master many tasks; 11) secure and promote PME andprofessional enhancement for themselves and their subordinates;and 12) promote organizational esprit de corps andfoster good community relations.
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What is an NCO’s primary purpose? (187)
To be a skilled technician in his or her assigned specialty andbuild, prepare and lead teams to accomplish the mission.
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How should NCOs monitor and address their subordinates’mental readiness? (187)
By 1) helping them identify and resolve their personal, financial,marital, alcohol and stress-related problems; 2) activelysupporting the “zero tolerance” policy for discriminationand sexual harassment; 3) watching for signs of suicidalbehavior; 4) familiarizing themselves with the off-duty opportunitiesand living conditions of their subordinates; and 5)recognizing and rewarding individuals whose military conductand duty performance exceed standards and holdingsubordinates who do not meet them accountable.
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__ are often in the best position to detect earlyindications of personal, financial, marital, alcohol andstress-related problems in their subordinates and are keyto identifying, addressing and resolving them. (187)
Supervisors. (They must stay involved and be supportive astheir subordinates struggle to resolve these problems.)
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What should an NCO do if he or she notices a personexhibiting possible suicidal behavior? (187)
Ask the person directly ifhe or she is thinking of hurting himor herself, then immediately seek assistance from the firstsergeant, commander, security forces, chaplain, life skillssupport center or medical personnel. Remain with the individual until relieved by the proper authority.
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How should NCOs help their subordinates becomespiritually ready to accomplish the mission? (187)
Provide assistance to subordinates who are struggling withtheir spiritual readiness through the chaplain, life skills supportcenter or other support agencies.
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In addition to meeting predeployment requirementswhen postured to deploy, what must NCOs do to ensuredeployment readiness? (187)
They must educate and assist subordinates with deploymentpreparation and correct and counsel those who do not meetdeployment readiness standards.
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Responsibility and accountability increase commensuratewith __ . (187)
Grade.
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Within the enlisted grades, how do NCOs take rankand precedence over all junior enlisted Airmen and otherNCOs? (187)
According to rank.
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Within the same grade, how is rank and precedencedetermined? (188)
By 1) Date of Rank (DOR); 2) Total Active Federal MilitaryService Date (TAFMSD); 3) pay date; and 4) Date of Birth(DOB).
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One way that NCOs demonstrate responsibility andaccountability is by 1) understanding the Air Force corevalues, the Airman’s Creed and the Air Force symbol.Name two other ways. (188)
Any two of the following: by 2) staying informed on issuesaffecting the Air Force via social media sites and e-mailwithout discrediting the Air Force or compromising operationalsecurity; 3) monitoring individual and group dynamicsthat affect readiness and safety; and 4) maintaining a “zerotolerance” environment regarding behaviors that preventAirmen from achieving their full potential.
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At a minimum, when must an NCO provide careercounseling to subordinates? (188)
In conjunction with performance feedback counseling orwhen a subordinate comes up for quality review under theSelective Reenlistment Program (SRP).
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Commanders may place NCOs in charge of moresenior NCOs of the same grade. T/F (188)
True. (These NCOs are then authorized to issue lawful orders.Failure to obey violates Article 92, UCMJ.)
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Name two ways NCOs can promote a culture of flexibleAirmen. (188)
Consider for themselves and encourage subordinates to 1) retrain into Air Force shortage career fields, when appropriate;and 2) serve in special duties, such as military traininginstructor, PME instructor, recruiter, etc.
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SSgts strive to develop greater supervisory and technicalcompetence. Operating at the tactical level of enlistedleadership and development, what do they require?(188)
Opportunities to demonstrate growth as leaders.
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__ , technical experts in their specialties, developand supervise their assigned enlisted personnel and operateat the tactical level of enlisted leadership and development.(189)
TSgts.
chapter 9
What are the general responsibilities of SNCOs?(189)
In addition to meeting NCO responsibilities, they must 1)provide highly effective leadership; 2) translate leader directionsfor their teams; 3) be active, visible leaders; 4) helpleadership make informed decisions; 5) support developmentof Company Grade Officers (COO); 6) epitomize excellence,professionalism and competence; 7) ensure efficient andeffective use of resources; 8) promote a culture of flexibleAirmen who adapt to evolving requirements throughout their ...,..tcareers; 9) continue professional development through avariety of means; and 10) promote organizational esprit decorps and foster good community relations.
chapter 9
Why should SNCOs study their leaders’ decisions?(189)
To understand their leaders’ rationale and goals in order tofully leverage their own personal experience and knowledgeto more effectively accomplish the mission.
chapter 9
How can SNCOs support the development of CompanyGrade Officers (CGO)? (189)
By sharing knowledge and experience, as appropriate, tomeet their organization’s challenges.
chapter 9
How do SNCOs ensure the efficient use of resources?(189)
By planning resource utilization, replenishment and budgetallocation to ensure personnel have the equipment and resourcesnecessary to effectively accomplish the mission.
chapter 9
How can SNCOs continue their professional development?(190)
Through professional reading, voluntary CDCs, lectures, offdutyeducation and leadership seminars. (Personal professionalgrowth never ends.)
chapter 9
__ transition from technical experts and first-linesupervisors to leaders and managers normally working atthe operational level of enlisted leadership and development.(189)
MSgts.
chapter 9
Members in which rank, normally at the operationallevel of enlisted leadership and development, are experiencedleaders continuing to develop their skills by preparingfor expanded responsibilities and higher leadershippositions? (190)
SMSgts.
chapter 9
What are the distinctive roles CMSgts may hold,serving at either the operational or strategic levels of enlistedleadership and development? (190)
Commandants, superintendents, program managers, CommandChief Master Sergeants (CCM), functional managersand career field managers.
chapter 9
Only the very best NCOs - those who epitomize thefinest qualities of military leadership - are selected asCMSgts. What do they bring to their organizations?(190)
Substantial institutional, operational and functional experience,as well as strong leadership skills.
chapter 9
Enlisted duty titles enable rapid identification of aperson’s role and level of responsibility. How are theyassigned? (190)
Based on the scope of responsibility and duties performed.(A consistent, standard approach is important to ensure thetitles are meaningful.)
chapter 9
List the eight official authorized duty titles in theenlisted force (excluding special SNCO duty positions).(190-191)
1) Supervisor; 2) NCOIC; 3) Section Chief; 4) Flight Chief;5) Squadron Superintendent; 6) Superintendent; 7) Manager;and 8) Chief.
chapter 9
What are the prerequisites for the title of Supervisor?(190)
Must be at least a SrA, an Airman Leadership School (ALS)graduate and supervise the work of others.
chapter 9
What enlisted duty title is used only for someone whois in charge of a workcenter or element, has subordinatesupervisors and whose primary duty is program or functionalmanagement, even if he or she does not directlysupervise personnel? (190)
NCOIC.
chapter 9
What determines the rank of a section chief or aflight chief? (190)
The size of the section or flight (number of enlisted personnel,number of workcenters and scope of responsibilities).
chapter 9
What enlisted duty title is given the enlisted leader ofa squadron? (190)
Squadron Superintendent. (Usually a CMSgt, but may occasionallybe a SMSgt or MSgt.)
chapter 9
What enlisted duty title is given to SNCOs in chargeof group- or wing-level functions, or who oversee functionswithin a squadron? (191)
Superintendent.
chapter 9
Managers and Chiefs are program, project or policymanagers at what levels? (191)
Numbered Air Force (NAF), MAJCOM, Direct ReportingUnit (DRU), Field Operating Agency (FOA), Joint Staff orAir Staff levels.
chapter 9
Managers and Chiefs may be the enlisted leader ofthe branch, division or __ . (191)
Directorate. (They may or may not have personnel workingfor them.)
chapter 9
List several special SNCO positions. (191-193)
First sergeant, group superintendent, enlisted academy commandant,enlisted MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM),Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), Command ChiefMaster Sergeant (CCM) and CMSAF.
chapter 9
What are the duties of the first sergeant, an expeditionaryleader working directly for and deriving authorityfrom the commander? (191)
To 1) be the commander’s link to the unit for all matters concerningenlisted members; 2) provide the commander with amission-ready enlisted force; 3) be a vital link between thecommander, unit personnel and support agencies; 4) ensurethe enlisted force understands the commander’s policies,goals and objectives; 5) ensure support agencies are responsiveto the needs of unit personnel and their families; and 6)watch for and resolve issues that would adversely impactAirmen readiness.
chapter 9
How is the first sergeant identified on his or her uniform?(191, 191-Fig)
With a distinguishing diamond device on the chevron.
chapter 9
How long is a tour of duty as a first sergeant? (191)
Three years (with options to remain up to three more years).
chapter 9
First sergeant duty is considered retraining. T IF(191)
False. (SNCOs normally return to their previous career fieldwith the knowledge and experience they gained.)
chapter 9
What unique SNCO position is filled by CMSgts whoare enlisted leaders at the group level? (191)
Group superintendent.
chapter 9
What are the duties of the group superintendent?(191)
To 1) provide leadership and manage assigned personnel toeffectively achieve the organization’s mission; 2) manageand direct resource activities; 3) interpret and enforce policiesand applicable directives; 4) recommend and initiateactions to improve organizational effectiveness and efficiency;and 5) resolve issues between subordinate squadrons,other groups, wing staff and outside agencies.
chapter 9
Enlisted academy commandants are SNCOs. Wheredo they serve? (192)
Each ALS, NCOA, the Air Force SNCOA and the First SergeantAcademy.
chapter 9
What are the duties of enlisted academy commandants?(192)
They 1) implement and enforce policies, procedures anddirectives; 2) analyze data and provide direction and vision;and 3) coordinate visits from high-ranking leadership.
chapter 9
What is the role of the Vice Commandant, ThomasN. Barnes Center for Enlisted Education (BCEE)? (192)
He or she provides leadership, guidance and direction toPME faculty support staff and strategic planning and policyto BCEE schools.
chapter 9
Enlisted MAJCOM Functional Managers (MFM)manage enlisted career fields for MAJCOMs. What aretheir duties? (192)
They 1) serve as MAJ COM liaisons for their Air Force CareerField Managers (AFCFM); 2) monitor their career fieldhealth and manning within their command and elevate concernsto their AFCFM; 3) manage command training; 4)coordinate associated issues with MAJCOM staff and theAFCFM; 5) disseminate policies and program requirementsthroughout the MAJCOM; 6) ensure proper command prioritizationof personnel resources; and 7) provide expertise toAir Education and Training Command (AETC) to developnew training programs or improve existing ones.
chapter 9
Where do enlisted Air Force Career Field Managers(AFCFM) usually serve? (192)
On the Air Staff.
chapter 9
What are the responsibilities of the Air Force CareerField Manager (AFCFM)? (192)
To 1) organize and manage one or more enlisted careerfields; 2) establish career field entry requirements; 3) managetrained personnel requirements and manning; 4) develop andmanage career-long training plan requirements and programs;5) construct viable career paths; 6) evaluate trainingeffectiveness; 7) monitor career field health and manning; 8) provide input on personnel policies and programs; 9) developforce management policies and programs; I 0) develop contingencyplanning policies; 11) validate deployment re- ‘–“quirements and workforce availability; 12) ensure their careerfields are responsive to current and future Air Forceneeds; and 13) communicate directly with other Air Staffoffices, MAJCOM enlisted career field representatives andAir Education and Training Command (AETC) trainingmanagers.
chapter 9
Command Chief Master Sergeants (CCM) serve atwhat organizational level(s)? (192)
MAJCOM, wing and other authorized organizational levels.
chapter 9
What are the duties of a Command Chief MasterSergeant (CCM)? (192)
To 1) lead the enlisted force; 2) advise commanders on mattersimpacting the enlisted force; 3) monitor compliance withAir Force standards; 4) serve on advisory councils; 5) have aclose relationship with the community; 6) maintain a liaisonbetween their commander, the enlisted force and staff members;7) communicate with commanders regarding problems,concerns, morale and enlisted force attitudes; 8) ensure theenlisted force knows and understands the commander’s policies;and 9) serve as functional manager for assigned firstsergeants.
chapter 9
Command Chief Master Sergeants (CCM) do notwear a distinctive chevron. T/F (192)
False.
chapter 9
In 1964, Air Force leadership rejected the idea ofcreating a(n) __ position, fearing it would underminethe formal chain of command. (193)
CMSAF.
chapter 9
Why did the Air Force create the CMSAF position in1966? (193)
It realized the tremendous support behind the failed congressionalbill mandating that each service appoint an SNCO as aSenior Enlisted Advisor (SEA).
chapter 9
Describe the unique insignia of the CMSAF. (193,193-Fig)
It has a wreath around the star and an eagle and two stars inthe chevron.
chapter 9
Who became the first CMSAF, the senior-rankingenlisted member of the Air Force, in April 1967? (193)
Chief Paul W. Airey.
chapter 9
Which CMSAF helped create the WAPS, served asan aerial gunner on B-24 bombers in Europe duringWWII, was held prisoner by the Germans for almost ayear and was awarded the Legion of Merit during theKorean Conflict? (193)
Paul W. Airey. (April 1967-July 1969)
chapter 9
__ served as CMSAF from August 1969 - September1971. He worked to help support his mother andpay tuition prior to being drafted into the Army AirCorps, serving as an armament and gunnery instructorand in the personnel career field. As CMSAF, he focusedon resolving racial tensions, assignment concerns andpromotion problems. (193-194)
Donald L. Harlow. (He was known for his no-nonsense approachand ability to listen.)
chapter 9
The third CMSAF grew up on an Iowa farm duringthe Great Depression and Dust Bowl years. After he wasdrafted into the Army in 1945, he served in France at theend of WWII. Known as “the GI’s man in Washington,”he focused on increasing opportunities for NCO professionaldevelopment as CMSAF. Who was he? (194)
Richard D. Kisling. (October 1971- September 1973)
chapter 9
Which CMSAF, whose tenure was extended for twoyears, was the first African-American to serve in thehighest enlisted post of any military service, worked toensure equality among the ranks and races, and brokedown barriers for women in the Air Force? (194)
Thomas N. Barnes. (October 1973 - July 1977)
chapter 9
The fifth CMSAF, __ , enlisted to travel and learna skill He educated the force on the hazards of substanceabuse (SA) and addressed low morale, weak militarypublic image, quality of life and prejudices against minoritiesand women. (195)
Robert D. Gaylor. (August 1977 - July 1979)
chapter 9
The fifth CMSAF, __ , enlisted to travel and learna skill He educated the force on the hazards of substanceabuse (SA) and addressed low morale, weak militarypublic image, quality of life and prejudices against minoritiesand women. (195)
James M. McCoy. (August 1979 - July 1981)
chapter 9
Which CMSAF served nearly 14 years in the militarypolice force after enlisting out of patriotism and adesire to expand, traveled extensively as CMSAF to knowthe issues firsthand, and focused on cultural change withinthe Air Force? (196)
ArthurL. “Bud” Andrews. (August 1981-July 1983)
chapter 9
__ entered the Air Force as a ground weatherequipment operator, became the youngest 7-level in hiscareer field and was a member of the first SNCOA class.He obtained approval for the John Levitow Award foreach level of PME and established the First Sergeant ofthe Year program Air Force-wide. (196)
Sam E. Parish. (August 1983 - June 1986)
chapter 9
Disqualified from flight school because of high frequencyhearing loss, this CMSAF set his sights on becomingCMSAF while serving in Vietnam. He was the sole enlisted member on the President’s Commission on MilitaryCompensation, created the EPR and performancefeedback systems, and believed that giving more responsibilityto Airmen would attract and retain higher qualitypeople. Who was he? (197)
James C. Binnicker. (July 1986 - July 1990)
chapter 9
After playing minor league baseball, this CMSAFserved as an aircraft mechanic and military training instructor,taking part in the first Ability to Survive andOperate (ATSO) exercise in a chemical environment. Heworked to avoid involuntary separations during the AirForce downsizing and created enlisted career paths similarto the officer career model. Who was he? (197)
Gary R. Pfingston. (August 1990 - October 1994)
chapter 9
Once his supervisors at his first base turned his attitudearound, __ sought challenges throughout hiscareer. As CMSAF, he successfully fought a proposedreduction in retirement pay, gave each Airman an individualroom in the dormitory, and advised Airmen to behonest and keep their promises. (198)
David J. Campanale. (October 1994- November 1996)
chapter 9
Which CMSAF served as the US Air Forces in Europe(USAFE) Senior Enlisted Advisor (SEA) duringOperation Joint Endeavor in Bosnia, crafted the NCOProfessional Development Seminar and Warrior Week inbasic training, and focused on culture change as the AirForce became an expeditionary force? (198)
Eric W. Benken. (November 1996 - August 1999)
chapter 9
Which CMSAF began his career in the “bombdumps” as a missile maintenance crew chief, restructuredthe PME program, implemented the procedures tocreate the ALS and allowed MSgts to attend theSNCOA? He also streamlined the Command Chief MasterSergeant (CCM) selection process, giving commandersmore flexibility, and ensured the development of future-focused leaders. (199)
Frederick J. “Jim” Finch. (August 1999 - June 2002)
chapter 9
Often recognized for performance and leadership,this CMSAF was promoted to Sr A Below the Zone(BTZ). He refocused Basic Military Training (BMT) andPME toward expeditionary combat principles, developeda new physical fitness program, and balanced the enlistedforce structure. Who was he? (199)
Gerald R. Murray. (July 2002 - June 2006)
chapter 9
Trained as a medical technician and aircraft maintenancespecialist, __ served as the Pacific Air Forces(P ACAF) Command Chief Master Sergeant (CCM) beforebecoming the CMSAF in June 2006. He helped makethe first major changes to feedback and performancereport forms since 1990, encouraged Airmen to earntheir CCAF degree earlier in their career, created theEnlisted Heroes Walk, and brought back the enlisted collar brass and Good Conduct Medal. (200)
Rodney J. McKinley. (June 2006 - June 2009)
chapter 9
The 16th CMSAF, __ , served in civil engineerpositions and as a Command Chief Master Sergeant(CCM) at multiple levels, helped build a culture of resiliencywithin Airmen and their families, focused on developingAirmen through training, education and experience,and improved Distance Learning (DL) opportunities.(200)
James A. Roy. (June 2009 - January 2013)
chapter 9
Who is the current CMSAF? (201)
James A. Cody (He entered the Air Force as an air trafficcontroller, served as Command Chief Master Sergeant(CCM) at multiple levels, and most recently served as theCCM for Air Education and Training Command (AETC).)
chapter 9
The term “Airmen” refers to members in which AirForce ranks? (201)
All ranks from AB to the four-star general.
chapter 9
__ is a mindset or attitude about belonging to theProfession of Arms that is reflected in our behavior. (201)
Airmanship. (A mindset predetermines our responses andinterpretations of situations.)
chapter 9
Name three hallmarks of the airmanship mindset.(201)
1) Belief in and commitment to the oath of enlistment; 2)embracement of Air Force core values as your own; and 3)willingness to fulfill all NCO responsibilities.
chapter 9
Adhering to and enforcing standards, impeccablewear of the uniform, readiness to perform mission objectivesand perpetuating the Air Force culture all give aclear picture of what we expect Airman behavior to looklike. T IF (201)
True. (Proudly exhibit the highest levels of professionalism.)
chapter 9
The We Are All Recruiters (WEAR) program grantsup to __ days permissive TDY to participate in anapproved event that directly helps recruiting efforts.(201-202)
12 days.
chapter 9
We Are All Recruiters (WEAR) events can provideleads for recruiters as Air Force personnel interact withand educate the public about the Air Force. T/F (201)
True. (WEAR events augment limited recruiting resourcesand advertising dollars.)
chapter 9
What do Air Force members do in Recruiters AssistancePrograms (RAP)? (202)
Bring the Air Force story to their hometowns or prior residencesby helping local recruiters make contacts and developleads. (Any active duty member may apply.)
chapter 9
What may be granted to those desiring to positivelyimpact recruiting by participating in Recruiters AssistancePrograms (RAP)? (202)
Up to 12 days of nonchargeable leave, including one weekend.
chapter 9
How does EPME complement training, experienceand other educational programs? (202)
By providing 1) a continuum learning via progressive courseson developing airmanship and warfighting skills; 2) professionaleducation at critical career points; and 3) increasedsupervision, leadership and management preparation.
chapter 9
What are the three levels of Air Force EPME? (202)
ALS, NCOA and Air Force SNCOA.
chapter 9
Which levels of EPME are available through Dis- I. .tance Learning (DL) courses? (202)
ALS, NCOA and Air Force SNCOA.
chapter 9
Who 1) provides EPME program development, facultydevelopment and operational program managementfor EPME; and 2) advises Air Force and other key leaderson Air Force and Joint EPME issues and policies?(202)
The Thomas N. Barnes Center for Enlisted Education(BCEE), EPME Academic Affairs (AA).
chapter 9
What is the Academic Affairs (AA) mission? (202)
To provide the continuum of EPME necessary to inspire anddevelop enlisted leaders of integrity, service and excellence.
chapter 9
Academic Affairs’ (AA) vision is to instill Airmenwith a warrior ethos, expeditionary mindset and a passionfor leading. What is its goal? (202)
To expand enlisted leadership ability and strengthen commitmentto the profession of arms by integrating sound leadership,communication skills and military studies.
chapter 9
EPME Academic Affairs (AA) courses are based onwhat three broad areas of learning/graduate attributes?(202)
1) Military professional; 2) expeditionary leadership; and 3)leadership communication.
chapter 9
What are the three principle methods of instructionfor each EPME course? (202)
1) Guided discussion; 2) case study analysis; and 3) experientiallearning.
chapter 9
The __ is accredited through the Southern Associationof Colleges and Schools. (202)
TheCCAF.
chapter 9
Do graduates of resident and nonresident Air ForceSNCOA, NCOA and ALS receive college credits with theCCAF? (202)
Yes. EPME schools provide the CCAF class graduate informationand the CCAF automatically updates individual recordsand transcripts.
chapter 9
What is the first level of resident EPME that enlistedAirmen attend? (202)
ALS.
chapter 9
What is the ALS mission and goal? (202-203)
To prepare SrAs to be professional warfighters able to superviseand lead Air Force teams that employ air, space andcyberspace power by helping them understand expectationsinherent in their position and the need for professional development.
chapter 9
Operating at most installations, resident ALS is a__ -week course that helps SrAs understand expectationsinherent in their position and their need for professionaldevelopment. (203)
5-week.
chapter 9
ALS must be completed in residence to be eligible forpromotion to what rank? (203)
SSgt. (It is also required before performing duties as a reportingofficial.)
chapter 9
What four attributes does ALS provide graduates?(203)
Those of 1) expeditionary Airmen; 2) supervisors of Airmen;3) military professionals; and 4) supervisory communicators.
chapter 9
Resident ALS graduates earn __ semester hoursof college credit with the CCAF. (203)
10 semester hours.
chapter 9
Five stateside NCOAs are operated by the ThomasN. Barnes Center for Enlisted Education (BCEE) and oneis operated by the ANG. Who operates the four overseasNCOAs? (203)
Three are operated by Pacific Air Force (PACAF), one byUS Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).
chapter 9
What is the mission of the NCOA? (203)
To prepare TSgts to become professional warfighters wholead and manage Air Force units to employ air, space andcyberspace power.
chapter 9
What is the goal of the NCOA? (203)
To help TSgts understand their position in the military structureand develop effective supervisory and leadership skills.
chapter 9
You must complete the 6-week NCOA curriculum(in residence) within two years of sewing on __ , and tobe eligible for promotion to __ . (203)
TSgt; MSgt.
chapter 9
NCOA focuses on what four graduate attributes?(203)
Those of 1) military professionals; 2) operational Airmen; 3)unit managers; and 4) managerial communicators.
chapter 9
How many semester hours of college credit with theCCAF do resident NCOA graduates earn? (203)
11 semester hours.
chapter 9
The Air Force established the Air Force SNCOA in1972 to enhance development of SNCOs through PME.What is its current annual enrollment? (203)
Up to 2,250 Air Force SNCOs, Navy and Coast Guard chiefpetty officers, Army and Marine sergeants major and internationalSNCOs.
chapter 9
What is the mission of the Air Force SNCOA? (203)
Prepare SNCOs to lead the enlisted force in employing air,space and cyberspace power to support national securityobjectives.
chapter 9
Resident Air Force SNCOA completion is requiredto assume what rank? (203)
SM Sgt.
chapter 9
What do Air Force SNCOA students do to improveinteractions between officers and enlisted members in thePME environment? (203)
Work in teams with Squadron Officer School students forthree days, increasing understanding and appreciation ofeach other’s talents.
chapter 9
The Air Force SNCOA is a __ -week in-residencecourse. (203)
7-week
chapter 9
What four key attributes does the Air Force SNCOAfocus on? (203)
Those of a 1) military professional; 2) operational manager;3) joint warfighter; and 4) senior communicator.
chapter 9
Air Force SNCOA graduates earn __ semesterhours of CCAF college credit. (203)
13 semester hours.
chapter 9
What do students completing the EPME DistanceLearning (DL) courses gain? (203)
Additional knowledge about their increasing responsibilitiesas leaders and managers.
chapter 9
What are the three EPME Distance Learning (DL)courses? (203)
I) ALS, Course l; 2) NCOA, Course 9; and 3) SNCO,Course 14.
chapter 9
ALS Distance Learning (DL) Course 1 consists ofwhat five volumes? (203)
I) Successful learning; 2) expeditionary Airman; 3) supervisorof Airmen; 4) military professional; and 5) supervisorycommunicator.
chapter 9
Name the five volumes covered in NCOA DistanceLearning (DL) Course 9. (203)
1) Successful learning; 2) military professional; 3) operationalAirman; 4) unit manager; and 5) managerial communicator.
chapter 9
EPME Distance Learning (DL) Course 1, Course 9and Course 14 are only available for Reserve and Guardpersonnel. T/F (203)
False. (Course 14 is available for active duty, Reserve andGuard personnel.)
chapter 9
ALS Distance Learning (DL) Course 1 graduatesearn __ CCAF semester hours of college credit. (203)
Eight.
chapter 9
NCOA Distance Learning (DL) Course 9 graduatesearn __ CCAF semester hours of college credit. (203)
Eight.
chapter 9
SNCO Distance Learning (DL) Course 14 graduatesearn __ CCAF semester hours of college credit. (204)
Four.
chapter 9
Which EPME Distance Learning (DL) course is aweb-based multimedia course that has five objective multiple-choice tests covering five areas - profession of arms,communication skills, behavior analysis, human resourcedevelopment and organizational management? (203)
Course 14.
chapter 9
Completion of SNCO Distance Learning (DL)Course 14 is mandatory for all active duty personnel. T/F(204)
False. (It is voluntary, though highly encouraged for AirForce active duty personnel. However, it is required for asenior rater endorsement on SNCO EPRs.)
chapter 9
What web-based course gives SNCOs a more comprehensivejoint education to prepare them for assignmentsto joint billets at the Senior Enlisted Leader (SEL)or command SEL level? (204)
Senior Enlisted Joint PME (SEJPME).
chapter 9
hat does the Senior Enlisted Joint PME (SEJPME)course prepare enlisted personnel to do? (204)
To effectively operate as part of a future joint force and tosupervise multiple service members.
chapter 9
Who may enroll in Senior Enlisted Joint PME(SEJPME)? (204)
All active duty, Reserve or Guard enlisted personnel in thegrades ofE-6 to E-9.
chapter 9
You should complete rank-required service EPMEprior to enrolling in Senior Enlisted Joint PME(SEJPME). T/F (204)
True.
chapter 9
The Senior Enlisted Joint PME (SEJPME) courseconsists of a pretest, five learning modules of variouslengths totaling 40 hours, section quizzes and a final exam.How many weeks does it take to complete? (204)
It is a self-paced course, so timing varies depending on thestudent’s schedule and personal commitment.
chapter 9
Military __ is about knowing what is good andtrue, and the courage to do and be what and who weought to be. (204)
Ethics. (It’s also about our heritage, history and responsibilityto be men and women of character.)
chapter 9
Military ethics is rooted in the three Os. Name them.(204)
Owing, ordering and oughting.
chapter 9
The core value of “service before self’’ is based onthe debt of gratitude Airmen owe to whom? (204)
Country, family, service, chain of command, comrades andthose who wore the uniform before us.
chapter 9
According to Dr. James H. Toner, what is the properordering of Airmen’s priorities? (204)
Country, Air Force, unit.
chapter 9
Ethics insists upon conditional and contextual obedienceto orders. T/F (204)
True. (Lawful orders ought to be obeyed.)
chapter 9
When facing an ethical dilemma, rely on your __ as a guide to what you ought to do. (204)
Integrity.
chapter 9
Enlisted Force Development (EFD) is a __ approachto developing innovative Airmen who lead in arapidly evolving global environment and accomplish theAir Force mission. (205)
Life-cycle. (Deliberate development is essential throughoutan Airman’s career.)
chapter 9
What is the most important issue when developingAirmen? (205)
Ensuring they take full advantage of functional and institutionalopportunities.
chapter 9
How does the Air Force develop Airmen as technicalexperts? (205)
Functionally, through career field progression planning. (Careerfield progression includes both technical and tacticaldevelopment.)
chapter 9
Institutionally, the Air Force develops experiencedleaders by encouraging them to take on increased responsibilityand leadership roles. This includes experienceopportunities like deployments, joint assignments andHQ staff assignments. T/F (205)
True. (These experiences offer a unique perspective on howthe Air Force functions.)
chapter 9
What educational opportunities exist to enhance anAirman’s knowledge and capabilities? (205)
EPME, developmental education, civilian education andother self-improvement programs (like the Chief of Staff, USAir Force (CSAF) Professional Reading Program).
chapter 9
Airman development and career progression dependson continuous conversations between __ and__ regarding career field and institutional requirements;personal qualifications and goals; and availabledevelopmental opportunities. (205)
Supervisors and subordinates.
chapter 9
What is the Enlisted Force Development Panel(EFDP) responsible for? (205)
Guiding Enlisted Force Development (EFD) efforts.
chapter 9
The Enlisted Force Development Panel (EFDP) is cochairedby the CMSAF and the __ . (205)
Director, Force Development (AF/AID).
chapter 9
Who else is on the Enlisted Force Development Panel(EFDP), besides the two co-chairs and a strategic advisor?(205)
Command Chief Master Sergeants (CCM) from the CombatantCommand (COCOM) and MAJCOM levels; CMSgtsfrom the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and ANG;Career Field Managers; and representatives from Air EducationTraining Command (AETC), Air University (AU), SecondAir Force, BMT, and Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
chapter 9
Who attends the Enlisted Force Development Panel(EFDP) as a strategic advisor? (205)
A former CMSAF.
chapter 9
When did Force Development (AF/Al) and the ViceChief of Staff approve Enlisted Development Teams(EDT) for all AFSCs? (205)
August 2012.
chapter 9
In 2010, who recommended initiating Enlisted DevelopmentTeams (EDT)? (205)
The Enlisted Force Development Panel (EFDP).
chapter 9
Career fields use Enlisted Development Teams(EDT) to help __ eligible personnel for critical leadershipand developmental positions. (205)
Identify. (The teams also perform succession planning, basedon defined education, training, experience and performancerequirements.)
chapter 9
_____ is a Web-based self-service resource to manageyour professional development. (206)
My Enlisted Development Plan (MyEDP). (Stay informed,collaborate with peers and track professional and career development.)
chapter 9
What special features does My Enlisted DevelopmentPlan (MyEDP) provide Airmen? (206)
Mentoring capabilities, discussion forums and tools to trackpersonal and professional accomplishments.
chapter 9
What interactive tool helps senior Air Force leadersunderstand the Enlisted Force Development (EFD) enterpriseand specific aspects of training, education andexperience? (206)
The EFD Strategic Visual Mapping Tool.
chapter 9
The Enlisted Career Path __ helps Airmen understandcurrent and future opportunities for continuingdevelopment. (206)
P)’Tamid. (It displays training, education and experience theywill encounter in their career.)
chapter 9
In ascending order, name the six leadership roles on the Enlisted Career Path Pyramid. (207-Fig)
1) Supervisor; 2) NCOIC; 3) Section/Flight Chief; 4) Superintendent;5) Manager; and 6) Chief
chapter 9
__ competencies prepare Airmen to operate successfullyacross the array of Air Force tasks and requirementsand form the framework for force development.(207)
Institutional.
chapter 9
What do institutional competencies provide for consistencyacross the Air Force? (207)
A common language and a set of priorities.
chapter 9
Institutional competencies apply across a few occupations,functions and organizational levels. T/F (207)
False. (They apply across all occupations, functions and organizationallevels.)
chapter 9
Name the Air Force’s three categories of institutionalcompetencies. (207)
Personal, people/team and organizational. (These are brokeninto 8 competencies and 24 subcompetencies.)
chapter 9
__ competencies are institutional competenciesapplied in face-to-face and interpersonal relationships,directly influencing values and human behavior. (207)
Personal competencies.
chapter 9
Do Airmen learn personal competencies at the strategicor tactical level? (207)
Tactical level.
chapter 9
Personal competencies are vital for individual contribution,building cohesive units and immediatesubordinates. (207)
Empowering.
chapter 9
The personal category of institutional competenciesincludes Embodies Airman Culture and Communicating.T/F (208-Fig)
True.
chapter 9
What are the four subcompetencies of the institutionalcompetency Embodies Airman Culture? (208-Fig)
1) Ethical Leadership; 2) Followership; 3) Warrior Ethos;and 4) Develops Self
chapter 9
Airmen exhibit the Ethical Leadership institutionalsubcompetency when they promote Air Force core valuesthrough goals, actions and referent behaviors. Namethree other ways they do this. (208-Fig)
They also: 1) maintain checks and balances on self and others; 2) develop trust and commitment through words andactions; and 3) exhibit accountability for Areas of Responsibility(AOR), operations ofunit and personal actions.
chapter 9
What institutional subcompetency exhibits hardinessof spirit, despite physical and mental hardship (moraland physical courage)? (208-Fig)
Warrior Ethos. (It also continuously hones skills to supportemployment of military capabilities and displays military/executive bearing, self-discipline and self-control.)
chapter 9
The Develops Self institutional subcompetency understandsand values the role of follower in mission accomplishment.T/F (208-Fig)
False. (Develops Self assesses self to identify strengths anddevelopmental needs; seeks and integrates performancefeedback and recognizes personal impact on others; and continuouslyexpands knowledge and skills by developing lifelonglearning habits.)
chapter 9
Speaking and Writing is a subcompetency of theCommunicating institutional competency. Name the othersubcompetency. (208-Fig)
Active Listening.
chapter 9
If an Airman adjusts their communication approachbased on the unique operational environment and audienceneeds, what institutional subcompetency are theyemploying? (208-Fig)
Speaking and Writing. (This subcompetency also bridgescommunication between units, organizations and institutions,and articulates ideas and intent in a clear, concise and convincingmanner, both verbally and in writing.)
chapter 9
The institutional subcompetency, Active __ , fostersthe free exchange of ideas in an atmosphere of openexchange. (208-Fig)
Listening. (It also attempts to understand others’ points ofview, clarifies information as needed and solicits feedback toensure that others understand messages as intended.)
chapter 9
Give two definitions of the institutionalsubcompetency, Followership. (208-Fig)
Any two of the following: 1) understands and values the roleof followership in mission accomplishment; 2) seeks command,guidance and/or leadership while giving unbiasedadvice; 3) aligns priorities and actions with chain of commandguidance for mission accomplishment; or 4) exercisesflexibility and adapts quickly to alternating role as follower/leader (the concept of “follower first, leader at times”).
chapter 9
Which category of institutional competencies involvesmore interpersonal and team relationships? (208)
People/Team. (Leaders use these competencies to set theorganizational climate.)
chapter 9
How many institutional competencies are in the people/team category? (209-Fig)
Two. (Leading People and Fostering Collaborative Relation ships.)
chapter 9
The people/team category of institutional competenciescontains six subcompetencies. T/F (209-Fig)
False. (There are five subcompetencies.)
chapter 9
Develops and Inspires Others, and Diversity, are twosubcompetencies of the Leading People institutionalcompetency. Name the third subcompetency. (209-Fig)
Takes Care of People.
chapter 9
A leader who uses feedback, coaching, mentoringand delegating to help and motivate others to improveskills and performance, exhibits which institutionalsubcompetency? (209)
Develops and Inspires Others. (The leader also: empowersand guides others toward their goals and mission accomplishment;and inspires them to transcend self-interest andembrace personal risk and sacrifice for the good of the organizationand mission.)
chapter 9
Leaders employ the Diversity institutionalsubcompetency by showing respect for others in certainsituations and treating people equally. T/F (208-Fig)
False. (Leaders employing Diversity show respect for others,regardless of the situation. They also leverage differences inindividual characteristics, experiences and abilities to accomplishthe mission while fostering an inclusive environment.)
chapter 9
Name one way Airmen apply the institutionalsubcompetency, Takes Care of People. (209-Fig)
Any of the following: 1) people first - attends to the wellbeingoffellow Airmen and their families; 2) integrates wellnessinto mission accomplishment and creates an environmentwhere Airmen always take care of each other; and 3)establishes work-life balance through time management andsetting clear expectations and priorities.
chapter 9
What are the two subcompetencies of the institutionalcompetency, Fostering Collaborative Relationships?(209-Fig)
1) Builds Teams and Coalitions; and 2) Negotiating.
chapter 9
If a leader sees and attends to the interests, goals andvalues of individuals and institutions, which institutionalsubcompetency is he applying - Builds Teams and Coalitionsor Develops and Inspires Others? (209-Fig)
Builds Teams and Coalitions. (Other definitions include: 1)contributes to group identity while fostering cohesiveness,confidence and cooperation; 2) builds effective teams forgoal and mission accomplishment and improves team performance;and 3) develops networks and alliances that spanorganizational, service, department, agency and nationalboundaries.)
chapter 9
Name four ways Airmen display the Negotiating institutional subcompetency? (209-Fig)
They: 1) comprehend the underlying principles and conceptsapplied throughout negotiation; 2) attain desired missionoutcomes while maintaining positive, long-term relationshipswith key individuals and groups; 3) reduce tension or conflictbetween people using appropriate interpersonal stylesand methods; and 4) persuade and influence, build consensus,gain cooperation and effectively collaborate.
chapter 9
Managing Organizations and Resources is one of theorganizational institutional competencies. Name the otherthree. (210-Fig)
1) Employing Military Capabilities; 2) Enterprise Perspective;and 3) Strategic Thinking.
chapter 9
Name six of the 13 organizational institutionalsubcompetencies. (210-Fig)
Any six of the following: 1) Operational and Strategic Art; 2)Unit, Air Force, Joint and Coalition Capabilities; 3) NonadversarialCrisis Response; 4) Enterprise Structure and Relationships;5) Government Organization and Processes; 6)Global, Regional and Cultural Awareness; 7) StrategicCommunication; 8) Resource Stewardship; 9) Change Management;10) Continuous Improvement; II) Vision; 12)Decisionmaking; and 13) Adaptability.
chapter 9
Which institutional subcompetency uses innovationand technology to employ lethal and nonlethal force, andexpertly integrates and leverages doctrine, concepts andcapabilities within an effects-based approach to operations?(210-Fig)
Operational and Strategic Art. (The third definition is: understandsand applies operational and strategic art in conventionaland irregular warfare, peacekeeping and homelandoperations.)
chapter 9
Which institutional subcompetency considers andapplies Air Force capabilities across air, space and cyberspace?(210-Fig)
Unit, Air Force, Joint and Coalition Capabilities. (Thissubcompetency also: 1) understands how Air Force capabilitiesrelate and complement other service capabilities; and 2)understands interdependency and interoperability acrossservices, agencies, departments and coalition partners.)
chapter 9
A leader who understands the national security implicationsof peacekeeping operations, humanitarian reliefoperations, and support of foreign and domestic civilauthorities, displays which institutional subcompetency?(210-Fig)
Non-adversarial Crisis Response. (The leader also understandsthe need for: engagement before and after warfightingor crisis response; integrated involvement with interagencyand multinational partners; and multipurpose capabilities,applicable across military operations.)
chapter 9
Leaders exhibit the Enterprise Structure and Relationshipsinstitutional subcompetency by understanding the organizational structure and relationships betweenthe Air Force, DoD, joint staff, Combatant Commands(COCOM), defense agencies and other defense structureelements. How else do they display this subcompetency?(210-Fig)
By comprehending how their unit or function fit into theparent organization and how the parent organization relatesto its external environment (such as supporting and supportedorganizations, the public and Congress).
chapter 9
Which institutional subcompetency develops languageskills and seeks to understand foreign cultural,religious, political, organizational and societal norms andcustoms? (210-Fig)
Global, Regional and Cultural Awareness. (It also promotesconsciousness of regional and other factors influencing defense,domestic and foreign policy.)
chapter 9
How is the institutional subcompetency, GovernmentOrganization and Processes, defined? (210-Fig)
Understands the 1) essential operating features and functionsof the Air Force, DoD, national security structure, other relatedexecutive branch functions and Congress, includingorganization and leadership; 2) roles of members, committeesand staff; 3) authorization, appropriation and budgetprocesses; 4) acquisition policy and procedures; and 5) interdependenciesand relationships.
chapter 9
Leaders applying the institutional subcompetency,Strategic Communication, formulate the institutional__ ,telling the Air Force story. (210-Fig)
Message. (They also synchronize and integrate communicationefforts to deliver truthful, timely, accurate and credibleinformation, analysis and opinion to inform and influencekey audiences.)
chapter 9
In addition to implementing “best practice” managementtechniques throughout the organization, what isthe second definition of the institutional subcompetency,Resource Stewardship? (210-Fig)
Identifies, acquires, administers and conserves financial,informational, technological, material, warfare and humanresources needed to accomplish the mission.
chapter 9
aders who display the institutionalsubcompetency, Change Management, perceiveand risks before, or as, they emerge. (210-Fig)
Opportunities. (They also: embrace, support and lead change; and understand the change management process, criticalsuccess factors, and common problems and costs.)
chapter 9
List one definition of the institutionalsubcompetency, Continuous Improvement. (210-Fig)
Any one of the following: 1) originates actions to improveexisting conditions and processes, using appropriate methodsto identify opportunities, implement solutions and measureimpact; 2) supports ongoing commitment to improve processes,products, services and people; and 3) anticipates andmeets the needs of internal and external stakeholders.
chapter 9
Vision, an institutional subcompetency, involves takinga long-term view and building a shared vision thatclearly defines and expresses a future state. It also formulateseffective plans and strategies to consistently achievegoals and maximize mission accomplishment. What aretwo other definitions? (210-Fig)
1) Providing innovative and creative insights and solutionsfor guiding and directing organizations to meet institutionalneeds; and 2) anticipating potential threats, barriers and opportunitieswhile encouraging risk-taking.
chapter 9
Decisionmaking, as an institutional subcompetency,identifies, evaluates and assimilates data from multiplestreams and differentiates information according to itsuse. It also uses information to influence actions and decisions,and analytic methods to solve __ and develop__ . (210-Fig)
Problems; Alternatives.
chapter 9
Making sound, well-informed and timely decisions,despite conditions of ambiguity, risk and uncertainty,defines the Continuous Improvement institutionalsubcompetency. T/F (210-Fig)
False. (The correct subcompetency is Decisionmaking, alsodefined as: critically analyzing situations to anticipate secondand third order effects of proposed policies or actions, andestablishing metrics to evaluate results and adapt and implementfeedback.)
chapter 9
A leader who maintains effectiveness while experiencingmajor changes in work environment or tasks, displayswhich institutional subcompetency? (210-Fig)
Adaptability. (This leader also adjusts to change in new workstructures, processes, requirements and cultures, and respondsquickly and proactively to ambiguous and emergingconditions, opportunities and risks.)
chapter 6
As an NCO, what are your responsibilities regardingstandards of conduct? (113)
To learn the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), Code of Conductand general standards well enough to clearly explainthem to subordinates, follow them and ensure other membersobserve them properly.
chapter 6
What international law arises from civilized nations’humanitarian desire to lessen the effects of conflicts, preventunnecessary suffering, and protect combatants, noncombatants,civilians, POWs, the wounded and sick?(113)
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
chapter 6
DoDD 2311.0lE, DoD Law of War Program, requireseach military department to design a program to ensureLaw of Armed Conflict (LOAC) observance and preventLOAC violations. What else does it require? (113)
That each military department 1) ensures prompt reporting ofalleged LOAC violations; 2) appropriately trains all forces inthe LOAC; and 3) completes a legal review of all new weapons.
chapter 6
How do other services often refer to the Law ofArmed Conflict (LOAC)? (113)
As the law of war. (Within this chapter, LOAC and law ofwar are the same.)
chapter 6
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) training is anobligation of the US under the provisions of what treaty?(113)
The 1949 Geneva Conventions.
chapter 6
Which Air Force publication requires that all personnelreceive instruction on the principles and rules ofthe Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) commensurate withtheir duties and responsibilities? (113)
AFI 51-401, Training and Reporting to Ensure Compliancewith the Law of Armed Conflict.
chapter 6
Name three groups who receive additional specializedLaw of Armed Conflict (LOAC) training to addressunique issues they may encounter. (113)
Aircrews, medical personnel and security forces.
chapter 6
What is the foundation of the Law of Armed Conflict(LOAC)? (113)
Customary international law and treaties. (Everyone subjectto US laws must observe the US’ LOAC obligations.)
chapter 6
Which Article of the US Constitution states that treatyobligations of the US are the “supreme law of theland”? (113)
Article VI.
chapter 6
According to the US Supreme Court, US internationallegal obligations and customs are not a part of USlaw. T/F (113)
False.
chapter 6
Why must military personnel, civilians and contractorsauthorized to accompany the armed forces in combatfollow the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) when plan- ._.Ining and executing combat operations? (113)
Because treaties and international agreements enjoy equalstatus to laws passed by Congress and signed by the President.(Those who violate the LOAC can be held criminallyliable for war crimes and court-martialed under the UCMJ.)
chapter 6
What five important Law of Armed Conflict(LOAC) principles govern armed conflict? (113)
1) Military necessity; 2) distinction; 3) proportionality; 4)humanity; and 5) chivalry.
chapter 6
Which Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principlepermits only the degree of regulated force not prohibitedby the laws of war needed to obtain the enemy’s partialor complete submission with the least expenditure of life,time and physical resources? (113)
Military necessity.
chapter 6
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principle ofmilitary necessity limits Air Force targets to what? (113)
Military objectives - those objects that make an effectivecontribution to military action and whose total or partial destruction,capture or neutralization offers a definite militaryadvantage.
chapter 6
List some examples of military objectives that may be targeted under the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).(113)
Enemy troops, bases, supplies, lines of communications andheadquarters.
chapter 6
Under the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), militarynecessity does not authorize all military action and destruction.T/F (114)
True. (Military necessity never authorizes actions specificallyprohibited by the LOAC.)
chapter 6
Under the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), __means discriminating between military objectives andcivilian objects such as places of worship, schools, hospitalsand dwellings. (114)
Distinction.
chapter 6
When may civilian objects lose their Law of ArmedConflict (LOAC) protection? (114)
When they are used to make an effective contribution tomilitary action.
chapter 6
What does the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principleof distinction require attackers to do? (114)
To not intentionally attack civilians or use weapons or tacticsthat would cause excessive civilian collateral casualties.
chapter 6
Under the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), are defendersrequired to separate military targets from civiliansand civilian objects? (114)
Yes.
chapter 6
Employing human shields to protect military objectivesis a fundamental violation of the Law of ArmedConflict (LOAC) principle of __ . (114)
Distinction
chapter 6
To meet the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principleof proportionality, those who plan military operationsmust seek to avoid or minimize what? (114)
The extent of civilian destruction and probable casualties thatwill result (to the extent consistent with military necessity).
chapter 6
Under the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), proportionalitynever applies to military facilities and forces.T/F (114)
True. (They are always legitimate targets.)
chapter 6
Does the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principleof proportionality require attackers to expose their forcesto extraordinary risks to avoid or minimize civilian losses?(114)
No.
chapter 6
Which Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principleprohibits employing any kind or degree of force not neeessary for the purposes of war? (114)
Humanity. (Also referred to as unnecessary suffering.)
chapter 6
Give several examples of weapons banned under theLaw of Armed Conflict (LOAC) because they cause unnecessarysuffering. (114)
Poison or poisoned weapons, expanding hollow-point bullets,and indiscriminate chemical, biological and bacterialweapons.
chapter 6
What Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principle demandsa certain amount of offensive and defensive fairnessas well as mutual respect and trust between opposingforces? (114)
Chivalry
chapter 6
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principle ofchivalry forbids treacherous attempts to injure the enemy,such as while displaying the white flag in good faith.What is another example of chivalry? (114)
Treating and protecting an individual as one would wish tobe treated by the enemy, were the roles reversed. (Personshors de combat (outside the fight) or military personnel whoare unable to fight due to sickness, injury or shipwreck.)
chapter 6
he Geneva Conventions are four separate internationaltreaties. What do these treaties govern? (114-115)
The treatment of wounded and sick forces, POWs and civiliansduring war or armed conflict.
chapter 6
What do the Geneva Conventions’ four treaties aimto protect from unnecessary suffering? (115)
Combatants and noncombatants, including the wounded,sick, shipwrecked and POWs during hostilities. (They alsoprotect civilians and private property.)
chapter 6
The Geneva Conventions distinguish between whatthree groups of people? (115)
1) Combatants; 2) noncombatants; and 3) civilians.
chapter 6
Under the Geneva Conventions, who is a combatant?(115)
Anyone who engages in violent acts on behalf of a state partyto an armed conflict.
chapter 6
Under the Geneva Conventions, what two conditionsmust be met for combatants to be immune from prosecutionfor belligerent acts in armed conflict? (115)
They must act I) with the authority of a sovereign state; and2) in accordance with the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
chapter 6
Under the Geneva Conventions, a combatant may bea member of either a regular armed force or a militia.T/F (115)
True.
chapter 6
Name the four Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) requirementsof a lawful combatant’s force. (115)
It must 1) be commanded by a person responsible for subordinates;2) have fixed distinctive emblems recognizable at adistance (such as uniforms); 3) carry arms openly; and 4)conduct its combat operations according to the LOAC.
chapter 6
__ are protected persons and military personnelnot authorized by governmental authority or the Law ofArmed Conflict (LOAC) to engage in hostilities. (115)
Noncombatants.
chapter 6
Noncombatants are protected under the GenevaConventions and may not be the object of attack. Nametwo examples of noncombatants. (115)
Certain military personnel not authorized to engage in combatantactivities, such as permanent medical personnel andchaplains.
chapter 6
Under what circumstances may civilians suffer injuryor death without the attack violating the Law ofArmed Conflict (LOAC)? (115)
Incident to a direct lawful attack on a military objective.
chapter 6
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) always forbidscivilians from taking an active or direct part in hostilities.T/F (115)
False. (Civilians who take a direct part in hostilities withoutauthority are unlawful combatants.)
chapter 6
The term “unlawful combatant” is defined in theGeneva Conventions of 1949. T/F (115)
False. (It is not used in the Geneva Conventions.)
chapter 6
How does DoDD 2310.0lE, The Department of DefenseDetainee Program, define unlawful combatants?(115)
Persons not entitled to combatant immunity, who engage inacts against the US or its coalition partners in violation of thelaws and customs of war during an armed conflict.
chapter 6
Unlawful combatants become lawful targets. If captured,can they be tried as criminals for their unlawfulactions? (115)
Yes.
chapter 6
If there is doubt about a captured individual’s Lawof Armed Conflict (LOAC) status, what protectionsshould the individual receive until his or her status isdetermined? (115)
Those of the Geneva Prisoner of War Convention.
chapter 6
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principle of military necessity authorizes aerial attacks on combatantsand other lawful military objectives. Define lawfulmilitary objectives. (115)
Those that by their own nature, location, purpose or usemake an effective contribution to military action and whosetotal or partial destruction, capture or neutralization offers adefinite military advantage.
chapter 6
How does the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) protectcivilian populations? (115)
It forbids attacks not justified by military necessity againstcities, towns or villages, and forbids attacking civilians forthe sole purpose of terrorizing them.
chapter 6
Which personnel are critical in determining the proprietyof targets and the choice of weapons when planningan attack? (115)
Judge advocate, intelligence and operations personnel.
chapter 6
Examples of objects specifically protected under theLaw of Armed Conflict (LOAC) include medical units orestablishments and transports of wounded and sick personnel.Name five others. (116)
I) Military and civilian hospital ships; 2) safety zones establishedunder the Geneva Conventions; 3) religious, culturaland charitable buildings; 4) monuments; and 5) POW camps.
chapter 6
When may objects that are normally protected fromdirect attacks lose their protected status? (116)
When they are used for military purposes. (They may alsosuffer collateral damage if they are located near lawful militaryobjectives.)
chapter 6
According to the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC),what is the only place enemy military aircraft may not beattacked or destroyed? (116)
In neutral airspace or territory.
chapter 6
When must an attack on enemy military aircraft bediscontinued, according to the Law of Armed Conflict(LOAC)? (116)
When the aircraft is clearly disabled and has lost its means ofcombat.
chapter 6
According to the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC),when may Airmen who parachute from a disabled aircraftbe attacked? (116)
When they resist, or are downed behind their own lines andcontinue to fight. (Those who offer no resistance may not beattacked.)
chapter 6
Name two conditions that allow civil aircraft in flightto be lawfully attacked. (116)
!) When the civil aircraft initiates an attack; or 2) when a reasonable suspicion of hostile intent exists. (Examples: anaircraft approaches a military base at high speed or entersenemy territory without permission and disregards signals orwarnings to land or proceed to a designated place.)
chapter 6
Military medical aircraft are subject to lawful attackwhen they initiate an attack. If not known to be engagedin medical operations at the time, name two of the fourother times they are subject to lawful attack. (116)
Any two of the following: when I) they do not bear a clearlymarked Red Cross, Red Crescent or other recognized symbol;2) they do not fly at heights, times and on routes specificallyagreed to; 3) they fly over enemy territory or enemyoccupiedterritory, unless otherwise agreed; and 4) they approachenemy territory or a combat zone and disregard asummons to land.
chapter 6
Where may military members who violate the Lawof Armed Conflict (LOAC) face criminal prosecution andpunishment? (116)
In a national or international forum.
chapter 6
Is “I was following orders” an acceptable defense ina war crime trial? (116)
No. (Individual Airmen are responsible for their actions andmust comply with the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).)
chapter 6
__ are illegal acts that may be justified as a lastresort under the circumstances to stop illegal acts committedfirst by the adversary. (116)
Reprisals.
chapter 6
Who may authorize a reprisal by US forces underthe Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)? (117)
Only the President of the US (as Commander in Chief(CINC)).
chapter 6
Which Air Force publication contains guidance onhandling a possible Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) violation?(117)
AFI 51-401.
chapter 6
You must inform your commander if you know of orreceive a report of apparent Law of Armed Conflict(LOAC) violations by the enemy, allies, US Armed Forcesor any others. T/F (117)
True
chapter 6
To whom would you report an alleged Law of ArmedConflict (LOAC) violation by a US commander? (117)
To the next higher US command authority or the nearestjudge advocate, a special agent of the OSI, a chaplain or asecurity forces member.
chapter 6
What ensures force is used according to nationalpolicy goals, mission requirements and the rule of law?(117)
Rules of Engagement (ROE).
chapter 6
What do mission-specific Rules of Engagement(ROE) provide? (117)
More detailed application of Law of Armed Conflict(LOAC) principles tailored to the political and military natureof a mission’s execution orders, operations plans andoperations orders.
chapter 6
Who must understand, remember and apply missionRules of Engagement (ROE)? (117)
All Airmen.
chapter 6
The US Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provideguidance on self-defense and applying force for missionaccomplishment. Who issues and approves theSROE? (117)
The Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS) issues the SROEand the President and Sec Def approve them.
chapter 6
Do Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) limit acommander’s inherent authority and obligation to use allmeans necessary and appropriate for personal, unit orUS forces self-defense? (117)
No
chapter 6
What are the four methods of self-defense listed inthe Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)? (117)
1) National; 2) collective; 3) unit; and 4) individual.
chapter 6
Under the Rules of Engagement (ROE), two elementsthat must be considered before using force in self-defenseare l) military necessity and 2) proportionality. Namethree other considerations. (117)
3) Hostile act; 4) hostile intent; and 5) declared hostile force.
chapter 6
Under the Rules of Engagement (ROE), how doesproportionality constrain the use of force in self-defense?(117)
The force used must be reasonable in intensity, duration andmagnitude compared to the threat as known at the time.
chapter 6
What do the Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)consider a declared hostile force? (117)
Any civilian, paramilitary or military force, or terrorist(s)declared hostile by an appropriate US authority.
chapter 6
What document outlines the basic responsibilitiesand obligations of members of the US Armed Forces, particularly as POWs or hostile detainees? (117)
The Code of Conduct.
chapter 6
POWs and other members under hostile detentionshould survive __ while resisting their captor’s exploitationefforts. (117)
Honorably.
chapter 6
How many articles are in the Code of Conduct? (117)
Six.
chapter 6
Who must fully understand the Code of Conduct andensure personnel have the training and education necessaryto support it? (118)
DoD personnel who plan, schedule, commit or control theuse of the armed forces.
chapter 6
What three considerations dictate the degree ofknowledge of the Code of Conduct members require?(118)
1) How likely they are to be captured; 2) their exposure tosensitive information; and 3) how useful or valuable a captorconsiders them.
chapter 6
How many levels of Code of Conduct training arethere? (118)
Three. (Levels A, Band C.)
chapter 6
What level of understanding is required at Code ofConduct training Level A (Entry Level Training), andwhen is it conducted? (118)
The minimum level needed for all members of the armedforces. It is imparted to all personnel during entry training.
chapter 6
What level of understanding is required at Code ofConduct training Level B (Training After Assumption ofDuty Eligibility) and when is it conducted? (118)
The minimum level needed for service members whose militaryjobs, specialties or assignments entail moderate risk ofcapture, such as members of ground combat units. (Conductedas soon as their assumption of duty makes them eligible.)
chapter 6
Describe Code of Conduct training Level C (TrainingUpon Assumption of Duties or Responsibilities). (118)
The minimum level of understanding needed for memberswhose military jobs, specialties or assignments entail significantor high risk of capture and whose position, rank or senioritymake them vulnerable to greater-than-average exploitationefforts by a captor.
chapter 6
When is Code of Conduct training Level C conducted?(118)
Upon assumption of the duties or responsibilities requiringLevel C training.
chapter 6
The Code of Conduct was first published by PresidentEisenhower on 17 August 1955. Why did PresidentReagan amend the Code in March 1988? (118)
To make the language gender-neutral.
chapter 6
What does Article I of the Code of Conduct requireyou to do? (118)
Always oppose the enemies of the US and support our nationalinterests, in combat or captivity, and be prepared togive your life.
chapter 6
What personal qualities does honorable survival incaptivity require? (118)
A high degree of dedication, motivation, and faith in, andloyalty to, POWs.
chapter 6
How can you maintain the qualities necessary forhonorable survival in captivity? (118)
Know and strongly believe in the advantages of Americandemocratic institutions and concepts; love and have faith inthe US; and have conviction that the US cause is just.
chapter 6
What is required by Article II of the Code of Conduct?(118)
Members of the armed forces may never surrender voluntarily.(Make every effort to avoid capture.)
chapter 6
According to the Code of Conduct, when can themeans to resist or evade capture be considered exhausted?(118-119)
When evasion is impossible and further fighting would leadto death with no significant loss to the enemy. (Capture ispermissible without dishonor.)
chapter 6
Which article of the Code of Conduct states that ifyou are captured, you should continue to resist exploitationby all means available? (119)
Article III.
