Chapter 1,2,3 Flashcards

1
Q

advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT

A

advanced life support (ALS)

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2
Q

comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect individuals with disabilities against discrimination

A

American With Disabilities ACT (ADA)

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3
Q

a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient

A

automated external defibrillator (AED)

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4
Q

a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care

A

certification

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5
Q

a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system

A

continuous quality improvement (CQI)

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6
Q

the first trained individual, such as a police officer, fire fighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance

A

emergency medical responder (EMR)

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7
Q

a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured

A

emergency medical services (EMS)

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8
Q

an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications

A

emergency medical technician (EMT)

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9
Q

federal legislation passed in 1996; its main effect in EMS is in limiting of availability of patients’ health care information and penalizing violations of patient privacy

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)

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10
Q

the delivery of medication directly into a vein

A

intravenous (IV) therapy

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11
Q

physician instructions that are given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program

A

medical control

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12
Q

the physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field

A

medical director

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13
Q

efforts to prevent an injury from ever occurring

A

primary prevention

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14
Q

focused on examining the health needs of entire populations with the goal of preventing health problems

A

public health

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15
Q

an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medicines

A

advanced EMT (AEMT)

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16
Q

a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews

A

emergency medical dispatch (EMD)

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17
Q

the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act

A

licensure

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18
Q

a document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMT providers

A

National EMS Scope of Practice Model

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19
Q

an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills

A

paramedic

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20
Q

the designated area in which the EMS service is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital

A

primary service area (PSA)

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21
Q

the responsibility of the medical director to ensure that the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call

A

quality control

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22
Q

a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, firefighting, and ambulance services

A

public safety access point

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23
Q

efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent

A

secondary prevention

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24
Q

a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

A

infectious disease

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25
Q

reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation

A

acute stress reactions

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26
Q

the spread of an organism in aerosol form

A

airborne transmission

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27
Q

pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

bloodborne pathogens

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28
Q

the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US; part of the US Department of Health and Human Services

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

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29
Q

a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another

A

communicable disease

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30
Q

the presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient’s body

A

contamination

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31
Q

the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection

A

cover and concealment

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32
Q

a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium

A

critical incident stress management (CISM)

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33
Q

prolonged or excessive stress

A

cumulative stress reactions

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34
Q

reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation

A

delayed stress reaction

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35
Q

the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues

A

designated officer

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36
Q

exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact

A

direct contact

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37
Q

a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur

A

exposure

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38
Q

the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease

A

foodborne transmission

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39
Q

the body’s response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion

A

general adaptation syndrome

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40
Q

inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function

A

hepatits

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41
Q

the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent

A

host

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42
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, which damages the cells in the body’s immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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43
Q

the body’s ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease

A

immune

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44
Q

exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object

A

indirect contact

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45
Q

the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease

A

infection

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46
Q

procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel

A

infection control

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47
Q

the federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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48
Q

a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host

A

pathogen

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49
Q

clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer

A

personal protective equipment (PPE)

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50
Q

a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. The delayed reaction is often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident

A

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

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51
Q

protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease

A

standard precautions

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52
Q

the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors

A

transmission

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53
Q

the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another

A

vector-borne transmission

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54
Q

unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient

A

abandonment

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55
Q

written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive

A

advance directive

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56
Q

the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct

A

applied ethics

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57
Q

unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm

A

assault

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58
Q

touching a patient or providing emergency care without consen

A

battery

59
Q

the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care

A

bioethics

60
Q

disclosure of information without proper authorization

A

breach of confidentiality

61
Q

damages awarded in a civil suit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident complained about in the lawsuit

A

compensatory damages

62
Q

able to make rational decisions about personal well-being

A

competent

63
Q

permission to render care

A

consent

64
Q

a legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff

A

contributory negligence

65
Q

ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care

A

decision-making capacity

66
Q

the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person’s reputation or standing in the community

A

defamation

67
Q

blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin

A

dependent lividity

68
Q

oral questions asked of parties and witnessed under oath

A

depositions

68
Q

the phase of a civil suit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case, which will assist them in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial; includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records

A

discovery

69
Q

written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel to not attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest

A

do not resuscitate (DNR) orders

70
Q

a type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity

A

durable power of attorney for health care

71
Q

a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care

A

duty to act

71
Q

a person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult

A

emancipated minors

72
Q

the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient’s age

A

emergency doctrine

72
Q

a serious situation, such as injury or illness, that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention

A

emergency

73
Q

immediate care or treatment

A

emergency medical care

74
Q

the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior

A

ethics

75
Q

a type of consent in which a patient gives express authorization for provision of care or transort

A

expressed consent

76
Q

the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent

A

false imprisonment

77
Q

the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action

A

forcible restraint

78
Q

statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence

A

Good Samaritan laws

79
Q

if your service is covered by immunity, it may mean that you cannot be sued or it may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS services that are operated by municipalities or other governmental entities

A

governmental immunity

80
Q

conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care

A

gross negligence

81
Q

a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions; also known as an advance directive or a living will

A

health care directive

82
Q

a type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity; a.k.a. a durable power of attorney for health care

A

health care proxies

83
Q

type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment

A

implied consent

84
Q

refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent

A

in loco parentis

85
Q

permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained

A

informed consent

86
Q

written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another

A

interrogatories

87
Q

the seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent

A

kidnapping

88
Q

false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing

A

libel

89
Q

the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act

A

licensure

90
Q

a term relating to medical law or forensic medicine

A

medicolegal

91
Q

a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience

A

morality

92
Q

failure to provide the care that a person with similar training would provide

A

negligence

93
Q

a theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute

A

negligence per se

94
Q

the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care

A

patient autonomy

95
Q

basing current action on lessons, rules, or guidelines derived from previous similar experiences

A

precedence

96
Q

any information about health status, provision of health car, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual; this is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient’s medical record or payment history

A

protected health information (PHI)

97
Q

damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil suit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public

A

punitive damages

97
Q

when a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual; the EMT, the agency, and/or the medical director may be sued to negligence

A

proximate causation

98
Q

decomposition of body tissues

A

putrefaction

99
Q

when the EMT or an EMS service is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occured

A

res ipsa loquitor

100
Q

stiffening of the body; a definitive sign of death

A

rigor mortis

101
Q

most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care you are able to provide for the patient

A

scope of practice

102
Q

false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word

A

slander

103
Q

written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm

A

standard of care

104
Q

the time in which a case must be commenced

A

statute of limitations

105
Q

a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit

A

tort

106
Q

A healthcare model in which experience paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the pre-hospital environment such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illness or conditions in patient advocacy

A

community paramedicine

107
Q

And establish process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession or to function as an organization

A

credentialing

108
Q

And approach the medicine where decisions are based on well conducted research classifying recommendations based on the strength of the scientific evidence also called science based medicine

A

Evidence based medicine EBM

109
Q

A method of delivering healthcare that involves providing healthcare within the community rather than at a physicians office or hospital

A

Mobile integrated healthcare MIH

110
Q

Documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions also called the living will or healthcare directive

A

Advanced directive

111
Q

Cooling of the body after death until the matches the ambient temperature

A

algor mortis

112
Q

Treatments that increase the risk for transmission of infections that are spread through the air of droplets CPR is an example

A

Aerosol generating procedure

113
Q

A combination of exhaustion CYNICISM and reduce performance resulting from long-term stresses in healthcare and other high stress professions

A

Burn out

114
Q

Stress disorder characterized by gradual lessening of compassion overtime

A

Compassion fatigue

115
Q

The use of objects to limit a persons ability to see you

A

Concealment

116
Q

The presence of infectious organisms on or in object such as dressing, water, food, needles, wounds, or patient body

A

Contamination

117
Q

Tactical use of impenetrable barrier for protection

A

Cover

118
Q

A negative response to a stressor

A

Distress

119
Q

A beneficial response to a stressor

A

eustress

120
Q

Inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, fatigue, and altered liver function, jaundice

A

Hepatitis

121
Q

They use an animal to spread an organ organism from one person to another

A

Vectorborne transmission

122
Q

The active pursuit of a state of good health

A

Wellness

123
Q

Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills
Paramedic (4)

A

1.)Endotracheal intubation
2.) Airway obstruction removal by direct laryngoscopy
3.)Cricothyrotomy
4.) High- flow nasal cannula

124
Q

Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills
a EMT (3)

A

1.) Supraglottic airway
2.) tracheobronchial suctioning
3.) ETC02 Monitoring

125
Q

Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills
EMT (4)

A

1.) Nasal airway
2.) CPAP
3.) Pulse oximetry
4.) Oxygen humidifiers

126
Q

Scopes of practice Airway/ventilation/oxygen skills
EMR (4)

A

1.) Oral airway
2.) Bag mask device
3.) Upper airway suctioning
4.) Nasal canal

127
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A
128
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
Paramedic (2)

A

1.) Cardioversion, electrical
2.) Manual defibrillation

129
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
EMT (2)

A

1.) Mechanical CPR
2.) telemetry monitoring

130
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
EMR (2)

A

1.) Manual CPR
2.) Auto/semi-auto defibrillation

131
Q

Scopes of practice Medication Administration Routes
Paramedic (2)

A

1.) Transdermal
2.) Rectal

132
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
AEMT (2)

A

1.) Intravenous
2.) subcutaneous

133
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
EMT (2)

A

1.) Oral
2.) Sublingual

134
Q

Scopes of practice Cardiovascular/Circulation skills
EMR (2)

A

1.) Intramuscular auto injector
2.) Internasal (premeasured)

135
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A
136
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A
137
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A
138
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A
139
Q

Who can perform this at the lowest level?

A