Chapter 1 & 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of the securities industry in relation to investors and issuers?

A) To provide investors with a place to store their money.
B) To help issuers find customers for their products.
C) To match investors who have money with issuers who need capital for financing purposes.
D) To regulate financial markets and prevent fraud.

A

C) To match investors who have money with issuers who need capital for financing purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following entities may be considered issuers in the securities industry?

A) Individual investors
B)Investment banks
C) Hedge funds
D) State and local governments

A

D) State and local governments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statements is true about debt securities?

A) Debt securities represent ownership in a company or government agency.
B) Debt securities entitle investors to a portion of the issuer’s profits.
C) Debt securities represent the issuer’s promise to pay the investor.
D) Debt securities are considered in default if the issuer misses a dividend payment.

A

C) Debt securities represent the issuer’s promise to pay the investor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The department of a broker-dealer that works with issuers to arrange securities offerings is:

A) Sales
B) Investment banking
C) Trading
D) Operations

A

B) Investment banking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following terms is associated with an entity that sells securities from its own inventory?

A) Broker
B) Investment adviser
C) Market maker
D) Dark pool

A

C) Market maker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between a broker and a dealer in the securities industry?

A) A broker buys and sells securities for its own account, while a dealer matches up buyers and sellers for a commission.
B) A broker matches up buyers and sellers for a commission, while a dealer buys and sells securities for its own account.
C) A broker buys and sells securities for its own account, while a dealer buys and sells securities for others.
D) A broker matches up buyers and sellers for a commission, while a dealer acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers.

A

B) A broker matches up buyers and sellers for a commission, while a dealer buys and sells securities for its own account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a principal transaction in the securities industry?

A) A transaction in which a broker buys and sells securities on behalf of its clients
B) A transaction in which a dealer buys and sells securities for its own account
C) A transaction in which a broker acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers
D) A transaction in which a dealer matches up buyers and sellers for a commission

A

B) A transaction in which a dealer buys and sells securities for its own account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a Qualified Institutional Buyer?

A) Insurance company
B) Registered investment adviser
C) An individual with a $100,000,000 portfolio
D) Private pension fund

A

C) An individual with a $100,000,000 portfolio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A husband and wife have combined earnings of greater than $300,000 in each of the last two years. If it’s reasonably expected that this level of income will remain the same, the couple is considered:

A) A qualified investor
B) An accredited investor
C) An institutional investor
D) A qualified institutional buyer (QIB)

A

B) An accredited investor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A financial services firm that charges customers based on a percentage of the assets under management is BEST defined as:

A) An investment adviser
B) An exchange
C) A broker-dealer
D) An institutional investor

A

A) An investment adviser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary function of the Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation (DTCC)?

A) Issuing new stocks and bonds
B) Automating and centralizing the clearing and settlement of trades
C) Providing brokerage services to retail investors
D) Regulating financial institutions in the U.S.

A

B) Automating and centralizing the clearing and settlement of trades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the main responsibility of a clearing broker in a trade?

A) Providing investment advice to clients
B) Executing orders on behalf of clients
C) Handling the clearing and settlement process for trades
D) Facilitating client relationships and account management

A

C) Handling the clearing and settlement process for trades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following services is typically offered by a prime brokerage?

A) Retail banking services
B) Home mortgage lending
C) Consolidated services for hedge funds and institutional investors
D) Personal financial planning for individual investors

A

C) Consolidated services for hedge funds and institutional investors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A broker-dealer that executes orders, but also settles and clears trades, is referred to as:

A) An introducing firm
B) The Depository Trust and Clearing Corporation
C) An omnibus firm
D) A full-service firm

A

D) A full-service firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The issuer and guarantor of exchange-traded options is:

A) FINRA
B) The Options Clearing Corporation
C) The underwriter
D) The broker-dealer that’s selling the option

A

B) The Options Clearing Corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The third market is concerned with:

A) Securities listed on an exchange that are traded directly between institutional investors
B) Securities listed on an exchange, but traded in the OTC market
C) Listed securities trading on an exchange
D) OTC equity securities trading on an exchange

A

B) Securities listed on an exchange, but traded in the OTC market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chapter 2 Objectives

A

Understand and describe the multi-layered regulatory structure of the securities industry in the United States.

Identify and explain the roles and responsibilities of key regulatory bodies, such as the SEC, the Department of Treasury, the IRS, and the FRB.

Differentiate between federal laws, state laws, SRO rules and regulations, and firm-specific policies and procedures, and understand how these different levels of regulation influence the activities of individuals and firms operating in the securities industry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The primary purpose of a self-regulatory organization (SRO) is to:

A) Press criminal charges for violations of securities laws
B) Establish market prices for the securities that trade in the market it regulates
C) Ensure the solvency of broker-dealers and other market participants
D) Promote fair and equitable practices among members

A

D) Promote fair and equitable practices among members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following organizations enforces municipal securities regulations for broker-dealers?

A) The FRB
B) The FDIC
C) FINRA
D) The MSRB

A

C) FINRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The primary purpose of the North American Securities Administrators Association is to:

A) Enforce rules that are established by the states
B) Create rules, laws, and exam requirements for interstate transactions of securities
C) Create rules, laws, and exam requirements for states
D) Examine broker-dealers that are registered in a state

A

C) Create rules, laws, and exam requirements for states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bank savings accounts are guaranteed and insured by the:

SIPC
FDIC
Federal Reserve Board
Department of the Treasury

A

FDIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Blue Sky Laws” were established by:

National Securities Markets Improvement Act
Bank Secrecy Act
Uniform Securities Act
The Maloney Act

A

Uniform Securities Act

23
Q

The FDIC provides coverage for:

Certificates of deposit (CDs)
Fixed annuities
Life insurance
Variable annuities

A

Certificates of deposit (CDs)

24
Q

If SIPC does not cover in full a customer’s account in a brokerage firm that has gone bankrupt, the investor is a:

General creditor
Secured creditor
Preferred creditor
Guaranteed creditor

A

General creditor

25
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 regulates which of the following? The markup charged by a financial services firm on a securities transaction The fee charged by a bank to hold securities The fee charged by an accountant for providing advice concerning securities The fee charge by an accountant when he files a client's tax return
The fee charged by an accountant for providing advice concerning securities
26
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the role of SIPC? SIPC covers separate customers. SIPC covers separate accounts. SIPC provides protection against employee theft. All regulated investment companies must obtain SIPC coverage.
SIPC covers separate customers. SIPC covers separate customers of a broker-dealer. An individual would be viewed as a separate customer. An individual who holds a personal account and an IRA would be treated as two separate customers.
27
Which of the following is considered a FINRA member? A broker-dealer that's a member of a national securities exchange An associate of a broker-dealer who executes trades for customers An executive of a broker-dealer An employee of a broker-dealer who creates records of trailers and commissions
A broker-dealer that's a member of a national securities exchange
28
MSRB rules do NOT apply to: Registered representatives Issuers Broker-dealers that prepare research Underwriters
Issuers
29
If a broker-dealer declares bankruptcy, which of the following positions is fully covered by SIPC? $300,000 in stock, $100,000 in cash $200,000 in stock, $200,000 in cash, $25,000 in futures $200,000 in stock, $100,000 in cash, $75,000 in futures $100,000 in stock, $300,000 in cash
$300,000 in stock, $100,000 in cash The SIPC provides for coverage of $500,000 per separate customer, with a maximum coverage of $250,000 of cash. SIPC doesn't provide protection for futures positions. (17505)
30
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning a clearing corporation? It assists broker-dealers in transferring assets in a customer account to another broker-dealer. It provides trade comparison and reporting services. It is responsible for automated book-entry changes in the ownership of securities. It offers customers the ability to have real-time trade matching.
It is responsible for automated book-entry changes in the ownership of securities. The responsibility for automated book-entry changes in the ownership of securities is a function of a depository facility (e.g., the DTC), not a clearing corporation. Each of the other choices are functions of a clearing system, such as the National Securities Clearing Corporation (NSCC).
31
If there is a violation of securities laws, which of the following is responsible for taking criminal action? The Department of Justice (DOJ) The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)
The Department of Justice (DOJ) The SEC may investigate potential securities law violations through its Division of Enforcement, which prosecutes cases on behalf of the Commission. The SEC may also bring civil actions. However, if criminal activity is discovered by the Commission, the case falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Justice (DOJ).
32
A husband and wife have combined earnings of greater than $300,000 in each of the last two years. If it's reasonably expected that this level of income will remain the same, the couple is considered: An institutional investor A qualified investor An accredited investor A qualified institutional buyer (QIB)
An accredited investor Accredited investors have a net worth of $1 million (excluding their primary residence) or annual income of $200,000 in each of the last two years. For married couples to be considered an accredited investor, they need to have income of at least $300,000. A qualified institutional buyer (QIB) must be institution with $100 million in assets under management (AUM), but is NOT a natural person.
33
If a company's insiders are buying its shares, what will most likely happen to the share price? It will appreciate It depends on how correlated the stock is with the S&P 500 Index It will depreciate It will neither appreciate nor depreciate
It will appreciate Insiders know more about their company than most investors and are required to report their purchases and sales to the SEC. If a large number of insiders are buying stock, it's likely that investors will feel more confident about the company and the result is that the share price will rise or appreciate in value.
34
Bank savings accounts are guaranteed and insured by the: SIPC FDIC Department of the Treasury Federal Reserve Board
FDIC In the event that a bank is unable to pay its depositors, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) guarantees bank accounts up to $250,000. The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects brokerage customers against broker-dealer bankruptcy.
35
"Blue Sky Laws" were established by: The Maloney Act Bank Secrecy Act Uniform Securities Act National Securities Markets Improvement Act
Uniform Securities Act "Blue Sky Laws," which are state securities laws, were established by the Uniform Securities Act (USA). The National Securities Markets Improvement Act (NSMIA) created a more efficient process by which state and federal regulations apply to investment advisers and securities. The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) addresses the concerns of money laundering. The Maloney Act established the NASD, which was the predecessor to FINRA. (17504)
36
A customer sells 500 shares of stock to a broker-dealer that makes a market in the stock. The broker-dealer acted in a(n): Agency capacity and charged the customer a markup Agency capacity and charged the customer a commission Principal capacity and charged the customer a commission Principal capacity and charged the customer a markdown
Principal capacity and charged the customer a markdown A broker-dealer that's always willing to buy and/or sell shares of stock is considered a market maker. A market maker will normally act in a principal capacity and charge a customer a markdown when buying the stock from the customer and a markup when selling the stock to the customer. When acting in an agency capacity, the broker-dealer will not take the other side of the trade and normally charges the customer a commission.
37
Which of the following organizations enforces municipal securities regulations for broker-dealers? FINRA The FDIC The MSRB The FRB
FINRA Although the MSRB creates rules governing municipal securities broker-dealers, its rules are enforced by other regulatory bodies. The appropriate regulatory agencies are the: - The SEC or FINRA for broker-dealers - The comptroller of the currency for federal banks - The FRB for state banks that are members of the FRB - The FDIC for member banks of the FDIC
38
The third market is concerned with: Securities listed on an exchange, but traded in the OTC market Listed securities trading on an exchange OTC equity securities trading on an exchange Securities listed on an exchange that are traded directly between institutional investors
Securities listed on an exchange, but traded in the OTC market The third market is concerned with securities that are listed on an exchange (e.g., the NYSE or Nasdaq) that are traded in the OTC market. The fourth market refers to direct institution-to-institution trading and does not involve the public markets or exchanges. (37522)
39
MSRB rules do NOT apply to: Registered representatives Issuers Broker-dealers that prepare research Underwriters
Issuers Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB) rules apply to all the parties listed except municipal bond issuers. The MSRB does not have the power to regulate municipal bond issuers. (71330)
40
The FDIC provides coverage for: Life insurance Certificates of deposit (CDs) Fixed annuities Variable annuities
Certificates of deposit (CDs) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) provides coverage for deposits at a bank, in the event the bank has financial troubles. FDIC will cover CDs, but not insurance, or fixed and variable annuities.
41
A financial services firm that charges customers based on a percentage of the assets under management is BEST defined as: An institutional investor An exchange A broker-dealer An investment adviser
An investment adviser Investment advisers charge fees for providing advice to their clients. These fees are often based on a percentage of assets under management (AUM) and are charged regardless of whether any trades occurred in their clients’ accounts. Broker-dealers earn compensation (e.g., commissions) for executing transactions and an exchange is a facility that brings together the buyers and sellers of securities. (37494)
42
Four customers have accounts at a broker-dealer with the following balances: Securities - Cash - Commodities & Futures - Options Customer 1 $50,000 - $20,000 - $0 - $30,000 Customer 2 $40,000 - $10,000 - $0 - $20,000 Customer 3 $30,000 - $20,000 - $10,000 - $40,000 Customer 4 $50,000 - $40,000 - $0 - $40,000 Under SIPC rules, which customer will not be fully covered if the broker-dealer declares bankruptcy? Customer 1 Customer 4 Customer 2 Customer 3
Customer 3 In the event of broker-dealer bankruptcy, SIPC protects customers' securities positions and cash being held by the broker-dealer. SIPC provides $500,000 of coverage for each separate customer, of which no more than $250,000 may be in the form of cash. SIPC does not cover futures and commodities positions. Although each of the customers are under the SIPC coverage limits, the $10,000 in commodities and futures positions of Customer 3 will not be covered.
43
A broker-dealer executes but does not process transactions. If the firm processing the transactions does not know the identity of the customers, this is known as a(n): Clearing broker Omnibus account Prime broker Fully disclosed account
Omnibus account Due to the expense of setting up trade processing operations, many smaller broker-dealers choose not to self-clear. These firms do not process customer transactions nor operate their own Operations Department. Instead, they contract with another member firm to perform these services. The firm providing these services is the clearing firm, while the firm paying for these services is the introducing firm. While customers of an introducing firm consider that firm as their broker-dealer, their funds and securities are physically held at the clearing firm, from which they generally also receive statements and confirmations. If the introducing firm keeps the books and records for its own customers and the clearing firm does not know the identity of these customers, this arrangement is known as an omnibus account.
44
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning electronic communication networks (ECNs)? They can be used by investors who want to trade anonymously. They can be used only by institutional investors. They can be used only by retail investors. They can be used by clients who don't want to use a broker-dealer.
They can be used by investors who want to trade anonymously. Electronic communication networks (ECNs) are securities trading systems that are designed to anonymously match buyers with sellers. These systems can be used by both institutional and retail investors. One of the benefits of their use is immediate automatic execution if a matching buy or sell order can be found on the system. ECNs do not allow investors to trade directly with one another; however, they do allow subscribers (e.g., broker-dealers) to use these systems to execute orders that they receive from their clients.
45
A customer has an account with a discount broker-dealer that specializes in online trading. If the customer is being charged a commission, the firm is MOST likely acting in which of the following capacities? Underwriter Agent Principal Market marker
Agent A broker-dealer who charges customers a commission is acting as an agent or broker. A broker-dealer who charges customers a markup or markdown is acting as a principal or dealer. (63763)
46
If SIPC does not cover in full a customer's account in a brokerage firm that has gone bankrupt, the investor is a: General creditor Guaranteed creditor Preferred creditor Secured creditor
General creditor If SIPC does not cover a client's account in a brokerage firm that has gone bankrupt, the client is a general creditor. The client ranks equally with all other general creditors. (72518)
47
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 regulates which of the following? The markup charged by a financial services firm on a securities transaction The fee charge by an accountant when he files a client's tax return The fee charged by a bank to hold securities The fee charged by an accountant for providing advice concerning securities
The fee charged by an accountant for providing advice concerning securities The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 regulates firms that are established as investment advisers (IAs). The Act both defines the term investment adviser and provides a number of exclusions from the IA definition. Examples of investment advisers include firms that manage mutual fund portfolios as well as firms that manage wrap accounts and collect a single fee to cover the costs related to investment advice along with the costs of transactions. Exclusions from the IA definition are available to broker-dealers, specific types of professionals (lawyers, accountants, teachers, engineers), and publishers. However, for the professionals to be excluded, the investment advice being provided must be incidental to their actual profession. For example, if an accountant decides to hold himself out to the public as an investment adviser and charge a separate fee for that service, the exclusion will not apply. On the other hand, if an account collects a fee for completing and filing a client's tax return, he is not considered to be acting as an investment adviser. (37508)
48
If a customer exceeds SIPC limits: The customer doesn't have a claim to the excess amount The customer is a secured creditor The customer is a general creditor The customer will receive cash rather than his securities
The customer is a general creditor If a customer's claim exceeds SIPC limits, he becomes a general creditor. (17406)
49
The primary purpose of a self-regulatory organization (SRO) is to: Promote fair and equitable practices among members Establish market prices for the securities that trade in the market it regulates Ensure the solvency of broker-dealers and other market participants Press criminal charges for violations of securities laws
Promote fair and equitable practices among members The primary purpose of SROs (e.g., the exchanges, FINRA, the MSRB) is to promote fair and equitable practices regarding trading and the process by which its broker-dealer members interact with customers. SROs do not establish market prices. The SEC, not an SRO, may recommend pressing charges for violations of securities laws. (37529)
50
If a market maker has a current quote of 50.00 - 50.05 (15 x 20), this indicates that the firm is willing to: Sell 200 shares at $50.00 and buy 150 shares at $50.05 Buy 150 shares at $50.00 and sell 200 shares at $50.05 Sell 1,500 shares at $50.00 and buy 2,000 shares at $50.05 Buy 1,500 shares at $50.00 and sell 2,000 shares at $50.05
Buy 1,500 shares at $50.00 and sell 2,000 shares at $50.05 When reading a quote, the bid is always listed first (i.e., $50.00 in this question) and the offer/ask (i.e., $50.05 in this question) is listed second. The market maker willing to buy shares at $50.00 and sell them for $50.05. The numbers in parentheses or brackets refer to the number of shares represented by the bid and offer. Unless specified otherwise, it's assumed that the size is in round lots of 100 shares. Therefore, the market maker is willing to buy up to 1,500 (15 lots x 100 shares) at $50.00 and sell 2,000 (20 lots x 100 shares) at $50.05. (17602)
51
In the secondary market, the "spread" for a security represents the difference in: The nominal and firm prices The ask and offered price The market prices and public offering prices The bid and offer prices
The bid and offer prices The spread for a stock in the over-the-counter (OTC) market is the difference between the bid and offer prices. The offer is sometimes called the "ask". (17604)
52
The issuer and guarantor of exchange-traded options is: The Options Clearing Corporation The underwriter FINRA The broker-dealer that's selling the option
The Options Clearing Corporation Exchange-traded options are issued and guaranteed by the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC). It’s important to note that derivatives (e.g., options) are not issued by corporations in an attempt to raise capital. Instead, options are created when a buyer and seller agree to standardized terms. If either the buyer or seller cannot fulfill its side of the transaction, the OCC will step in and guarantee the other side of the option position. (10731)
53
Which of the following is considered a FINRA member? An employee of a broker-dealer who creates records of trailers and commissions An executive of a broker-dealer A broker-dealer that's a member of a national securities exchange An associate of a broker-dealer who executes trades for customers
A broker-dealer that's a member of a national securities exchange Registered employees of broker-dealers are considered associated persons of the member firm. A broker-dealer that's a member of a national securities exchange is likely a FINRA member. (13490)