Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Courts will interpret any ambiguity in an insurance contract

A

In favor of the insured

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2
Q

The requirement that agents not commingle insurance monies with their own funds is known as

A

Fiduciary responsibility

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3
Q

An individual tendency to be dishonest would be indicative of a

A

Moral hazard

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4
Q

When transacting business in this state an insurer formed under the laws of another country is known as a/an

A

Alien insurer

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5
Q

An insurance organization that does not issue insurance policies but provides a meeting place for underwriters to conduct business is known as/a
A. Lloyd’s association
B. Fraternal society
C. Mutual company
D. Capital stock company

A

Lloyd’s association

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6
Q

Contracts that are prepared by one party and submitted to the other party on a take-it-or-leave-it basis are classified as

A

Contracts of adhesion

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7
Q

Which of the following insurers are owned by stockholders?

A

Stock

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8
Q

In insurance, an offer is usually made when

A

An applicant submits an application to the insurer

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9
Q

What documentation grants express authority to an agent?
A. Fiduciary contract
B. State provisions
C. Agent’s contract with the principal
D. Agent’s insurance license

A

Agent’s contract with the principal

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10
Q

What is a definition of a unilateral contract?

A

One-sided: only one party makes an enforceable promise.

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11
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a morale hazard?

A

Driving recklessly (Morale hazards arise from a state of mind that causes indifference to loss, such as careless driving)

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12
Q

In case of a loss, the indemnity provision in insurance policies

A

Restores an insured person to the same financial state as before the loss.

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a producer’s fiduciary duty?
A. An obligation to state every known fact about the policy the producer is selling
B. A duty to base all transactions upon the principle of Utmost Good Faith
C. The obligation to tell the truth to the best of one’s knowledge.
D. The trust that a client places in the producer in regard to handling premiums.

A

The trust that a client places in the producer in regard to handling premiums.

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14
Q

Which of the following entities is not an insurer but an organization formed to provide benefits to members of an affiliated lodge or religious organization?

A

Fraternal benefit society

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15
Q

What is a foreign insurer?

A

An insurer with a home office in another state.

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16
Q

Pertaining to insurance, which of the following is an example of a producer’s fiduciary responsibility?
A. Helping insureds to file a claim
B. Performing reviews of insured’s coverage
C. Offering additional coverage to insureds
D. Promptly forwarding premiums to the insurance company

A

Promptly forwarding premiums to the insurance company.

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17
Q

What method do insurers use to protect themselves against catastrophic losses?

A

Reinsurance

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18
Q

All of the following would be considered an insurance transaction EXCEPT

A

Obtaining an insurance license

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19
Q

On a participating insurance policy issued by a mutual insurance company, dividends paid to policyholders are

A

Not taxable since the IRS treats them as a return of a portion of the premium paid

20
Q

Which authority is NOT stated in an agents contract but is required for the agent to conduct business?
A. Apparent
B. Assumed
C. Express
D. Implied

21
Q

Insurance is a contract by which one seeks to protect another from

22
Q

What is a material misrepresentation?

A

A statement by the applicant that, upon discovery, would affect the underwriting decision of the insurance company

23
Q

The proposed insured makes the premium payment on a new insurance policy. If the insured should die, the insurer will pay the death benefit to the beneficiary if the policy is approved. This is an example of what kind of contract?

A

Conditional

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT an essential element of an insurance contract?

A

Counteroffer

25
An insurance company receives an application with some information missing and issues the policy anyway. What is this called?
Waiver
26
All of the following are examples of risk retention EXCEPT
Premiums
27
An insurer that holds a Certificate of Authority in the state in which it transacts business is considered a/an
Authorized insurer
28
Because an agent is using stationery with the logo of an insurance company, applicants for insurance assume that the agent is authorized to transact on behalf of that insurer. What type of agent authority does this describe?
Apparent (perceived authority)
29
Which statements regarding insurable risks is NOT correct? A. An insurable risk must involve a loss that is definite as to cause time, place, and amount. B. Insureds cannot be randomly selected. C. Insurance cannot be mandatory D. The insurable risk needs to be statistically significant predictable.
Insureds cannot be randomly selected
30
In terms of parties to a contract, which of the following does NOT describe a competent party? A. The person must not be under the influence of drugs or alcohol B. The person must be of legal age C. The person must be mentally competent to understand the contract D. The person must have at least completed secondary education
The person must have at least completed secondary education
31
The insurer must be able to rely on the statements in the application, and the insured must be able to rely on the insurer to pay valid claims. In the forming of an insurance contract, this is referred to as
Utmost good faith
32
An insurance producer who by contract is bound to write insurance for only one company is classified as a/an A. Captive agent B. Solicitor C. Broker D. Independent producer
Captive agent
33
In insurance transactions, fiduciary responsibility means
Handling insurer funds in a trust capacity
34
Which of the following best describes the aleatory nature of an insurance contract?
Exchange of unequal values
35
When an individual purchases insurance, what risk management technique is he or she practicing?
Transfer
36
The authority granted to an agent through the agent's contract is referred to as
Express authority
37
A person who does not lock the doors or does not repair leaks shows an indiffent attitude. This person presents what type of hazard?
Morale
38
What is the term for the entity that an agent represents regarding contractual agreements with third parties?
Principal
39
The risk of loss may be classified as
Pure risk and speculative risk
40
When an insured makes truthful statements on the application for insurance and pays the required premium, it is known as which of the following? A. Contract of adhesion B. Acceptance C. Consideration D. Legal purpose
Consideration
41
Insurance policies are not drawn up through negotiations, and an insured has little to say about its provisions. What contract characteristic does this describe? A. Conditional B. Personal C. Adhesion D. Unilateral
Adhesion
42
What insurance concept is associated with the names Weiss and Fitch? A. Index used by stock companies B. Guides describing company financial integrity C. Policy dividends D. Types of mutual companies
Guides describing company financial integrity
43
Representations are written or oral statements made by the applicant that are A. Guaranteed to be true B. Found to be false after further investigation C. Immaterial to the actual acceptability of the insurance contract. D. Considered true to the best of the applicant's knowledge
Considered true to the best of the applicant's knowledge
44
Not all losses are insurable, and there are certain requirements that must be met before a risk is a proper subject for insurance. These requirements include all of the following EXCEPT A. The loss must not be catastrophic B. There must be a sufficient number of homogeneous exposure units to make losses reasonably predictable. C. The loss produced by the risk must be definite D. The loss may be intentional
The loss may be intentional
45
If a court ordered payment for a loss that was not covered in the policy even if it was clearly worded, it would be an example of which legal concept? A. Nonforfeiture B. Indemnity C. Reasonable expectations D. Cease and desist
Reasonable expectations