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MT Laws Chapter 1 > Chapter 1 > Flashcards

Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Meaning of CDC

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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2
Q

Meaning of OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health

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3
Q

Meaning of CLSI

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

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4
Q

Types of Safety Hazards

A

Biological

Sharps

Chemical

Radioactive

Electrical

Fire/Explosive

Physical

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5
Q

All health-care facilities have developed

procedures to control and monitor infections occurring within their facilities. This is referred to as

A

Infection control

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6
Q

It is the place where the infectious agent can live and

possible multiply.

A

Reservoir

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7
Q

Equipment and other soiled inanimate objects

that can serve as reservoirs

A

Fomites

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8
Q

the unprotected host touches the patient,

specimen, or a contaminated object (reservoir)

A

Direct contact

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9
Q

inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating

on air currents or attached to dust particles

A

Airborne

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10
Q

the host inhales material from the reservoir (e.g.,

aerosol droplets from a patient or an uncapped centrifuge tube, or when specimens are aliquoted or spilled)

A

Droplet

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11
Q

ingestion of a contaminated substance (e.g., food,

water, specimen)

A

Vehicle

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12
Q

from an animal or insect bite

A

Vector

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13
Q

In the clinical laboratory, the most direct contact with a

source of infection is through contact with

A

Patient Specimen

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14
Q

When did CDC instituted Universal Precaution

A

1987

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15
Q

Under this precaution all patients are considered to be possible carriers of blood- borne pathogens. The guideline recommends wearing gloves

when collecting or handling blood and body fluids contaminated with blood and wearing face shields when there is danger of blood splashing on mucous membranes and when disposing of all needles and sharp objects in puncture-resistant containers.

excluded urine and body fluids not visibly

contaminated by blood

A

Universal Precaution

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16
Q

guidelines are not limited to blood-borne pathogens; they consider all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious.

personnel should wear gloves at

all times when encountering moist body substances.

A major disadvantage is that they do not recommend handwashing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.

A

Body Substance Isolation

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17
Q

Potentially harmful microorganisms o Frequently present in specimens in the lab

A

Biologic

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18
Q

shows disease transmission cycle

A

Chain of Infection

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19
Q

shows disease transmission cycle

A

Chain of Infection

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20
Q

Chain of Infection happens when there is a continuous link between

A 
Infectious agent
▪ Reservoir
▪ Portal of exit
▪ Means/Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
▪ Susceptible host
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21
Q

Percentage of risk of acquiring HBV thru needlestick injury

A

6-30%

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22
Q

risk of acquiring HIV thru needlestick injury

A

<1%

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23
Q

risk of acquiring HIV thru direct skin contact

A

<0.1%

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24
Q

risk of acquiring HIV human bite

A

0.1-1%

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25
Q

Major disadvantage of BSI

A

does not recommend handwashing after

removing gloves

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26
Q

when was standard precaution instituted

A

1996

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27
Q

if hands are VISIBLY SOILED

A

hand-washing

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28
Q

if hands NOT visibly soiled

A

hand-rubbing

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29
Q

for suspected Mycobacterium exposure use

A

N95 respirator

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30
Q

sequence of donning

A

gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

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31
Q

sequence of doffing

A

gown and gloves, eye protection, mask

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32
Q

PRIMARY method of infection transmission

A

Hand Contact

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33
Q

All biologic waste, except urine, must be placed in

appropriate containers labeled with the

A

biohazard symbol

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34
Q

decontaminated following institutional policy

A

Incineration
Autoclaving
Pick-up by certified hazard waste company

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35
Q

Urine is discarded by

A

POURING it into a LABORATORY SINK

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36
Q

disinfection of sink is done daily using

A

1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)

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37
Q

When skin contact occurs:

BEST FIRST AID is

A

Flush the area with large amounts of

water(running water)

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38
Q

at least how many minutes should area that is affected by chemicals flushed

A

at least 15 mins

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39
Q

proper way of mixing acid and water

A

Acid to Water

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40
Q

Hazardous chemicals must be labelled w/ a description of their particular
hazard:

A 
Poisonous
Corrosive
Flammable
Explosive
Teratogenic
Carcinogenic
41
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Diamond color for health hazard

A

Blue

42
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Diamond color for fire hazard

A

Red

43
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Diamond color for reactivity

A

Yellow

44
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Diamond color for specific hazard

A

White

45
Q

when a fire is discovered what should one do

A

RACE

46
Q

Steps in operating a fire extinguisher

A

PASS

47
Q

ordinary combustibles: paper, cloth, rubbish, plastic, wood

A

Type A

48
Q

Flammable liquids: grease, gasoline, paint, oil

A

TYPE b

49
Q

Electrical Equipment and Motor switches

A

Type C

50
Q

Flammable metals: mercury, magnesium, sodium, lithium

A

type d

51
Q

detonation (arsenal fire)

A

type e

52
Q

cooking media: grease, oils fats

A

type k

53
Q

goal of total quality management

A

Improved Patient Outcomes

54
Q

Overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care

A

Quality Management (QM)

55
Q

All of a laboratories processes, procedures, and resources needed to
achieve quality testing

A

Quality Management System (QMS)

56
Q

“TAT” or “Turnaround Time” : time required from

A

Test is requested by a healthcare provide to Result is reported
to the healthcare
provider

57
Q

Urine should be transported to the laboratory within

A

2 hours after collection

58
Q

documentation tool*
→ helps the director to gather info to determine the
root cause analysis and develop a preventive or corrective
action plan

A

Internal laboratory quality improvement form

59
Q

Type of water for reagent and control preparation must be specified

A

distilled water, deionized water, clinical laboratory reagent water

60
Q

Reagent strips should be checked against known negative and positive
control solutions whether:

A
  • each shift
  • once-a-day
  • whenever a new bottle is opened
61
Q

Most frequently encountered equipment or instruments in UA laboratory

A

refractometer
• osmometer
• automated reagent strip readers

61
Q

Most frequently encountered equipment or instruments in UA laboratory

A

refractometer
• osmometer
• automated reagent strip readers

62
Q

when should professional cleaning of microscope be done

A

annually

63
Q

Refractometer:
: calibrated daily or when used against
deionized water SG

A

1.000

64
Q

 Refractometer:

: calibrated daily or when used against 3% NaCl SG

A

1.015 ± 0.001

65
Q

 Refractometer:

: calibrated daily or when used against 5% saline

A

1.022 ± 0.001

66
Q

Refractometer:

: calibrated daily or when used against 9% sucrose

A

1.034 ± 0.001

67
Q

product oriented
all about detection
you try to find defects and correct them while making
used to verify the quality of a product

A

Quality Control

68
Q

process oriented
you plan to avoid the defect in the first place
all about prevention
involves processes managing quality

A

Quality Assurance

69
Q

closeness of a result to the actual value

A

closeness of a result to the actual value

70
Q

closeness of results (of the same specimen) to one another

A

Precision (of values

71
Q

ability to produce or obtain the expected result

A

Accuracy (of a test)

72
Q

ability to obtain he same results on the same specimen

A

Precision (of a test)

73
Q

a substance that has an exact known value that can

produce a solution of an exact concentration

A

Standards (Calibrators)

74
Q

to correlate readings of an instrument with those of a standard in order to check the instrument’s accuracy

A

Calibrate

75
Q

material or solution with known/established concentrations* that
are similar to the patient samples (viscosity, turbidity, color, composition)

A

Controls

76
Q

freeze-dried/dehydrated into powder

A

lyophilized

77
Q

most common animal source of control

A

bovine (cow)

78
Q

Average of all data points

A

Mean/Control Mean

79
Q

Average distance of each data point in a normal distribution from the mean

A

Standard Deviation (SD)

80
Q

relative measure of dispersion that is used to determine the variability of
data.
Should be less than 5%

A

Coefficient of Variation (CV)

81
Q

gradual change in one direction
increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days
PASS OVER the mean

A

Trend

82
Q

rule in trend

A

7T rule violation

83
Q

cause of trend

A

deterioration of reagent

84
Q

abrupt change

6 or more values on ONE SIDE of the mean, but maintain a constant level

A

Shift

85
Q

rule in trend

A

12x rule violation

86
Q

cause of shift

A

deterioration of standard and improper calibration of instrument

87
Q

Consists of internal monitoring systems (built in to the test system)

A

INTERNAL QUALITY CONTROL

88
Q

INTERNAL QUALITY CONTROL can also be called as

A

“Internal Control” or “Procedural Control”

89
Q

Use mechanical or electrical device in place of a liquid QC

specimen/control

A

ELECTRONIC CONTROLS

90
Q

→Involves testing of unknown specimens received from an outside agency
→Provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results

A

PROFICIENCY TESTING (External Quality Assessment)

91
Q

Alternative CLIA QC option
→Provides equivalent quality testing for moderate- and high-complexity tests
and provider-performed microscopy procedures (PPMP) tests
→ADVANTAGE: the lab can determine the frequency of QC testing based on
information about the test, the risk assessment, and the accreditation
agencies’ requirements

A

Individualized Quality Control Plan (IQCP)

92
Q

For reporting STATtest results and critical values

A

Telephone (Verbal) Results

93
Q

Quality management/assessment procedure which compares patient’s test results with the previous ones

A

DELTA CHECK

94
Q

Automated comparison of patient results

A

Autoverification

95
Q

test results that are significantly lower or higher than the normal reference range
can be LIFE-THREATENING; must be relayed to healthcare provider immediately

A

Critical Results

96
Q

lowest level of an analyte that a test can detect

A

SENSITIVITY

97
Q

the likelihood of measuring the analyte desired

A

SPECIFICITY

MT Laws Chapter 1 (1 decks)

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