Chapert 13 - 26 Flashcards

1
Q

What do C&I members employment as well as others

A

Excluded with complaint with certain paragraphs of chapter 2 of PRPG

Should consider whether the SÃO rules apply where they are responsible for their employers financial accounting arrangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CPD

A

Need to do if a member that provides tax services or uses designed letters
Make declaration to CIOT every year

Records must be kept for current year plus minimum of three previous complete calendar years
- date CPD taken, and details of learning or activity

Honorary members, certain retired members and pro bono work not required to undertake CPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Professional indemnity insurance exemptions

A

Every member in practice within the territorial scope should ensure their firm holds PII

Pro bono exempt but required to consider if it will be beneficial

Subcontracted exempt if they have written confirmation from contracting firm that
- named the subcontractor on its own PII policy
- the insurer has wavered its right to subrogation in relation to the sub contractor

Retired exempt unless do pro bono

Overseas firm but obtain nearest equivalent cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Required limit of liability PII

A

Annual minimum limit of indemnity for each and every claim is £1m

Where firms gross fee income is less than £400,000, the required annual minimum limit of indemnity for each and every claim is the greater of
- 2.5x the gross fee income
- 100,000

Insurance policy may include an excess provided that this excess does not exceed £30,000 per principal
- can be calculated on a group basis
- before agreeing to the level of excess to be included in the policy the firm must satisfy itself that it would be able to meet the cost of the excess element of any claims which might arise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Requirements for PII

A

Needed for each and every claim and must cover all civil liability

Underwritten by insurer or an insurance arrangement approved by law body

Covers all civil liability including costs and expenses in connection with the provision of taxation services

Meets the required limit of liability

In respect of which all premiums have been paid and as they fall due

Not avoidable by reason of misrepresentation or defaul of insured

Must ensure have it for not less than 6 years after they cease to be member in practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PRCT

A

applies to all members who practice in tax, whether or not they are in professional practice

Members are bound by the five fundementally principles and five standards for tax planning but must comply with AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Five standards for tax planning

A

Client specific

Lawful

Disclosure and transparancy

Advising on tax planning arrangements

Professional judgement and appropriate documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where member has genuine and reasonably uncertainty as to whether planning is in breach of this standard they should

A
  • document the detailed reasoning and evidence sufficiently to be able to demonstrate why they took the view that any planning was not in breach
  • include their client advice and assessment of uncertainties and tax risks involved in the planning
  • include in their client advice an assessment of relevant disclosures that should be made to the relevant revenue authority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why would you give fuller disclosure than necessary

A

Filing relies on valuation
Extent doubt exists
Size and gravity of item in question
View taken by member
Terms of law
Manner which disclosure is to be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When would tax advisor approve returns

A

In capacity of liquidator, receiver, administrator or under personal appointment as a trustee, executor, attorney or director

  • consider legal authority
  • process whereby client will review and take responsibility for the contents of the return
  • legal implications of approving the truth for both the practice and individual signatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PRCT Help Sheet B

A

Contains essential practical guidance for members on whether tax advice and planning complies with fundamental principles and standards

Behaviour of advisor is focus not client tax outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HMRC dealing with errors flowchart Help sheet C

A

Establish facts - is there an error?

Is the error trivial? Tax effect no more than minimum, say £200

Is specific authorisation required by client to disclose the error?

Does client authorise disclosure
- stage 1 = after initial request
- stage 2 = oral advice on consequences
- stage 3 = written advice on consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stages of ceasing to act if client won’t disclose error

A

Advise client in writing that you no longer act for them

Notify HMRC that you have ceased to act

Consider if you need to advise HMRC that any accounts/ statements carrying a report signed by you can no longer be relied upon

Consider whether a report should be made to MLRO/ NCA

Carefully consider your response to any professional enquiry letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Client should notify potential deficiency in their return unless

A

The basis upon which the self assessment was made was sufficiently clear in the original return

There is continuity of treatment of the item from previous returns

The item was treated in accordance with prevailing practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How to deal with error within your business and they won’t disclose

A

Consult internal whistleblowing procedures where they exist

Consider making a report to money laundering reporting officer in a regulated business

Consider taking legal advice

Consider willingness to be associated with the business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Schedule 36 finance act 2008 statutory notices

A

Can only issue a notice to third parties where it is approved by FTT and taxpayer agrees

HMRC may extend deadlines

Client can refuse HMRC entry to premises

Schedule 36 does not overnight legal professional privilege

17
Q

Types of legal privilege under common law

A

Legal advice privilege
- covers documents passing between client and their legal adviser prepared for the purpose of obtaining or giving legal advice. Tax advisor not included

Litigation privilege
- data created for the dominant purpose of litigation
- quasi privilege for pending appeal
- speak to legal expert if unsure

18
Q

Members personal tax affairs

A

Member must keep own tax affairs up to date in accordance with the fundamental principle of professional behaviour

If in dispute with HMRC may wish to engage an agent

Needs to be done to avoid raising doubts within HMRC to standard of the members professional work and could bring the member of the professional body into disrepute

19
Q

Who does not need to be AML supervised

A

Employee

Fully retired

Working ourside the uk

Not working in tax and accounting sector

20
Q

AML scheme rules for registrants

A
  1. disclose criminal history check
  2. Complete and submit AML annual return
  3. Registration and annual retention fee
  4. Notify institution if they wish to withdraw from the register, propose to wind up or are subject to insolvency practices or otherwise cease to be liable to be supervised
  5. Conduct practice in accordance with laws of the institute and PRPG/PCRT guides
21
Q

Scope of AMLGAS

A

Auditor
External accountant
Insolvency practitioner
Tax advisor
Trust or company service provider

Doing a defined service = ordinary course of business

22
Q

What is terrorism

A

When action used to influence the gov or intimidate the public

Terrorism property
- likely to be used for terrorism
- the proceeds of acts of terrorism
- the proceeds of acts carried out for terrorism

24
Q

What are primary offences AMGLAS

A

Conceal, disguise, convert or transfer criminal property

Acquire, use or possess criminal property

Involved in an arrangement that allows another to acquire, retain, use or control criminal property

Remove criminal property from a UK jurisdiction

Penalty = 14 years imprisonment or unlimited fine or both

25
Q

What do s not money laundering

A

If it is reasonably believed to have happened in a location outside of the UK where it was legal

It would have carried a maximum sentence of less than 12 months had it occurred in the UK

26
Q

What is the tipping off offence

A

Person in the regulated sector disclosed that a suspicious activity report had been made

Investigation into allegations of MTLF is underway

Disclosure is likely to prejudice that investigation

Maximum penalty = 2 years imprisonment, unlimited fine of both

27
Q

What is failure to report offence

A

When regulated sector person fails to report knowledge or suspicion of money laundering or terroidt financing as soon as practicable

Maximum penalty = 5 years imprisonment, unlimited fine or both

28
Q

What is prejudicing an investigation

A

Includes reg and non reg sector

Interference with material relevant to an investigation can akount to an offence

For outside reg: revealing the existence of a law enforcement investigation can amount to an offence

Max penalty| 5 years imprisonment, unlimited fine or both

29
Q

BOOM

A

Beneficial owner, officer and manager

Must apply to superadvusiry committee to get approval

If subsequently convicted of an offence must inform supervisory authority within 30 days of conviction date
- business must also inform within 39 days when they become aware of conviction

30
Q

Sole practitioners MLRO requirements

A

Appoint board member or member of senior management to be responsible for the businesses’s compliance

Appoint s nominated officer because sole practitioner will be responsible for submitting external reports to NCA

Establish an independent audit function for AML policies, controls and procedures

31
Q

What are responsibilities of senior management/ MLRO

A

Approve
- policies, controls and procedures adopted by the business
- before entering into or continuing a business relationship with, or carrying out occasional transaction for person established in a high risk third country

32
Q

What must there be systems and controls in place for

A

Risk assessment

Customer due diligence
Record keeping

Internal control

Ongoing monitoring

Reporting procedures

Compliance management

Communication