Chap 7 Inside the Cell s.pdf Flashcards

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1
Q
1) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) DNA 
B) a cell wall 
C) a plasma membrane 
D) ribosomes 
E) an endoplasmic reticulum
A

E) an endoplasmic reticulum

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2
Q
2) In a bacterium, we will find DNA in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) a membrane-enclosed nucleus 
B) mitochondria 
C) the endoplasmic reticulum 
D) the nucleoid 
E) ribosomes
A

D) the nucleoid

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3
Q
3) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of 
the following molecules? 
A) lipids 
B) glycogen 
C) proteins 
D) cellulose 
E) nucleic acids
A

C) proteins

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4
Q
4) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? 
A) mitochondrion 
B) ribosome 
C) nuclear envelope 
D) chloroplast 
E) ER
A

B) ribosome

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5
Q
) Which of the following is NOT found in a prokaryote? 
A) DNA 
B) a cell wall 
C) a mitochondrion 
D) a plasma membrane
A

C) a mitochondrion

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6
Q

6) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved ________.
A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont
evolved into mitochondria
B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape
toxic oxygen–the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts
C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolving into the nucleus
D) acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria
from a portion of the Golgi apparatus

A

A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont
evolved into mitochondria

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7
Q

7) The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray,
what would you most likely expect to be the immediate consequence?
A) the loss of all nuclear function
B) the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division
C) a change in the shape of the nucleus
D) failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information
E) inability of the ribosomes to produce proteins

A

C) a change in the shape of the nucleus

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8
Q

8) A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely ________.
A) primarily producing proteins for secretion
B) primarily producing proteins in the cytosol
C) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix
D) digesting large food particles
E) enlarging its vacuole

A

B) primarily producing proteins in the cytosol

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9
Q
9) Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, 
phospholipids, and steroids? 
A) ribosome 
B) lysosome 
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
D) mitochondrion 
E) contractile vacuole
A

C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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10
Q
10) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the 
cell? 
A) rough ER 
B) lysosomes 
C) plasmodesmata 
D) Golgi vesicles 
E) free cytoplasmic ribosomes
A

A) rough ER

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11
Q

11) The Golgi apparatus has a polarity, or sidedness, to its structure and function.
Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?
A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side.
B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move
from one side of the Golgi to the other.
C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from
one side of the Golgi to the other.
D) Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as
they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
E) All of the listed responses correctly describe polarity characteristics of the Golgi
function.

A

E) All of the listed responses correctly describe polarity characteristics of the Golgi
function.

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12
Q

12) Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells
accumulating and becoming clogged with very large, complex, undigested lipids. Which
cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
A) the endoplasmic reticulum
B) the Golgi apparatus
C) the lysosome
D) mitochondrion
E) membrane-bound ribosomes

A

C) the lysosome

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13
Q
13) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the 
following structures is primarily involved in this process and, therefore, abundant in liver 
cells? 
A) rough ER 
B) smooth ER 
C) Golgi apparatus 
D) nuclear envelope 
E) transport vesicles
A

B) smooth ER

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14
Q
14) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted? 
A) lysosome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

D) Golgi apparatus

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15
Q
15) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes? 
A) lysosome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

A) lysosome

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16
Q
16) Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell? 
A) lysosome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

B) vacuole

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17
Q
17) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells? 
A) lysosome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

C) mitochondrion

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18
Q
18) Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes? 
A) glyoxysome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

C) mitochondrion

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19
Q
19) Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various 
substrates to oxygen? 
A) lysosome 
B) vacuole 
C) mitochondrion 
D) Golgi apparatus 
E) peroxisome
A

E) peroxisome

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20
Q
20) Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) vacuoles 
B) chloroplasts 
C) mitochondria 
D) lysosomes 
E) nuclei
A

B) chloroplasts

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21
Q

21) In a plant cell, DNA may be found ________.
A) only in the nucleus
B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria
C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts
D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
E) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

A

D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

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22
Q

22) Suppose a cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA,
ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from ________.
A) a bacterium
B) an animal but not a plant
C) nearly any eukaryotic organism
D) a plant but not an animal
E) any kind of prokaryotic organism

A

C) nearly any eukaryotic organism

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23
Q

23) When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the
surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following
correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A) plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → vacuole
B) secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm →
vacuole
C) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → vacuole
D) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → lysosome → cytoplasm → vacuole
E) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall →
vacuole

A

C) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → vacuole

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24
Q
24) Where are proteins produced other than on ribosomes free in the cytosol or 
ribosomes attached to the ER? 
A) in the extracellular matrix 
B) in the Golgi apparatus 
C) in lysosomes 
D) in mitochondria 
E) in the nucleolus
A

D) in mitochondria

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25
Q

25) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to
fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP
in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark.
The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, ________.
A) mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) chloroplasts and peroxisomes
C) peroxisomes and chloroplasts
D) chloroplasts and mitochondria
E) mitochondria and peroxisomes

A

D) chloroplasts and mitochondria

26
Q
26) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells? 
A) chloroplast 
B) wall made of cellulose 
C) central vacuole 
D) mitochondrion 
E) centriole
A

D) mitochondrion

27
Q

27) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is
exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the ________.
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) lysosomes
E) endoplasmic reticulum

A

A) mitochondria

28
Q

28) A cell with an extensive area of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is specialized to
________.
A) play a role in storage
B) synthesize large quantities of lipids
C) actively export protein molecules
D) import and export protein molecules

A

B) synthesize large quantities of lipids

29
Q

29) Why is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum unable to synthesize proteins?
A) No ribosomes are attached to its surface.
B) There is no supply of free amino acids that it can easily access.
C) It stores calcium, which is a known inhibitor of protein synthesis.
D) It has no DNA to direct synthesis of proteins.

A

A) No ribosomes are attached to its surface.

30
Q

30) Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they
________.
A) deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum
B) facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi
C) are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed
by the Golgi
D) are composed largely of phospholipids

A

C) are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed
by the Golgi

31
Q

31) Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and
eukaryotic cells?
A) Prokaryotes have cells but eukaryotes do not.
B) Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes.
C) Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration, relying instead on
anaerobic metabolism.
D) Prokaryotes are generally larger than eukaryotes.

A

B) Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes.

32
Q

32) Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic
disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease?
A) lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus
C) ribosomes
D) mitochondria

A

D) mitochondria

33
Q

33) When yeast cells are transferred from anaerobic to aerobic growth conditions, which
of these organelles become much more numerous?
A) lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus
C) ribosomes
D) mitochondria

A

D) mitochondria

34
Q
34) An organism with a cell wall would most likely be unable to take in materials through 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) diffusion 
B) osmosis 
C) active transport 
D) phagocytosis 
E) facilitated diffusion
A

D) phagocytosis

35
Q

35) A primary objective of cell fractionation (including differential centrifugation) is to
________.
A) view the structure of cell membranes
B) sort cells based on their size and weight
C) determine the size of various organelles
D) separate the major organelles
E) separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules

A

D) separate the major organelles

36
Q
36) Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell 
through pores in the nuclear membrane? 
A) DNA 
B) amino acids 
C) mRNA 
D) phospholipids
A

C) mRNA

37
Q

37) What can you infer about a high-molecular-weight protein that cannot be
transported into the nucleus?
A) It is too large.
B) It lacks a nuclear localization signal (NLS).
C) It contains errors in its amino acid sequence.
D) It lacks a signal sequence.

A

B) It lacks a nuclear localization signal (NLS).

38
Q

38) What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes?
A) It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus.
B) It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA.
C) It selectively transports molecules out of the nucleus but prevents all inbound
molecules from entering the nucleus.
D) It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus.

A

A) It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus.

39
Q

39) The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the
endomembrane system is largely determined by the ________.
A) interconnection of most intracellular membranes to the nuclear envelope
B) transportation of membrane lipids among the membranes of the endomembrane
system by small membrane vesicles
C) function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components
D) modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination
E) synthesis of different lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the
endomembrane system

A

C) function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components

40
Q

40) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be
secreted by a cell?
A) ER → Golgi → nucleus
B) Golgi → ER → lysosome
C) nucleus → ER → Golgi
D) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
E) ER → lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

A

D) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

41
Q

41) Proteins coded for by nuclear DNA but found within mitochondria move from the
cytoplasm into mitochondria using ________.
A) signal sequences (peptides)
B) random transport vesicles
C) attachment of ribosomes to outer mitochondrial pores and direct deposition into the
inner mitochondrial compartment
D) mRNAs that are manufactured in the nucleus but translated by mitochondrial
ribosomes

A

A) signal sequences (peptides)

42
Q

42) Scientists have found that polypeptides which are normally synthesized in the
endoplasmic reticulum are about 20 amino acids longer when they are synthesized by
ribosomes not attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. What is a possible explanation for
the greater length of these polypeptides?
A) Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum require fewer amino acids to function.
B) The 20 amino acids serve as a signal (peptide) sequence that directs the forming
polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are cleaved off during
processing.
C) The 20-amino-acid sequence helps the endoplasmic reticulum package these
proteins for shipping to the Golgi.
D) The protein has a different function in the cytosol than in the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

B) The 20 amino acids serve as a signal (peptide) sequence that directs the forming
polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are cleaved off during
processing.

43
Q

43) Lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors ________.
A) receive “modified” enzymes and are thus unable to break down carbohydrates
B) do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus
C) have unstable membranes
D) stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes

A

B) do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus

44
Q

44) Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from
working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by
the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize asbestos but are not able to
degrade it. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in ________.
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) lysosomes

A

D) lysosomes

45
Q

45) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside
of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?
A) on the outside of vesicles
B) on the inside surface of the cell membrane
C) on the inside surface of the vesicle
D) on the outer surface of the nucleus
E) on the ER

A

C) on the inside surface of the vesicle

46
Q

46) Eukaryotic cells manufacture cytoskeletal proteins, which help to maintain cell
shapes and functions. What would you predict about these proteins?
A) They initially contain signal sequences that allow their entrance into the endoplasmic
reticulum.
B) They are manufactured on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
C) They are glycosylated in the Golgi apparatus.
D) They travel to the nucleus in a transport vesicle with a specific signal.

A

B) They are manufactured on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

47
Q

47) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of
cellular structures?
A) mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope
C) free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER
D) components of the cytoskeleton
E) cellulose fibers in the cell wall

A

D) components of the cytoskeleton

48
Q
48) Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures? 
A) microtubules and motor proteins 
B) actin filaments and microtubules 
C) actin filaments and ribosomes 
D) centrioles and motor proteins 
E) actin filaments and motor proteins
A

A) microtubules and motor proteins

49
Q

49) Which of the following correctly matches a component of the cytoskeleton to one of
its functions?
A) Microfilaments form the nuclear lamina.
B) Microtubules help animal cells divide in two.
C) Microfilaments cause ciliary bending.
D) Intermediate filaments contribute to cytoplasmic streaming.
E) Microtubules move chromosomes.

A

E) Microtubules move chromosomes

50
Q

50) Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural
elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light
of such structural similarities?
A) Cilia and flagella arise from centrioles.
B) Loss of basal bodies should prevent cells from dividing in two.
C) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of
structure.
D) Cilia and flagella evolved separately in the same ancestral eukaryotic organism.
E) Natural selection for cell motility repeatedly selected for microtubular arrays in
circular patterns in the evolution of each of these structures.

A

A) Cilia and flagella arise from centrioles.

51
Q

51) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is TRUE?
A) The cytoskeleton of eukaryotes is a static structure most resembling scaffolding used
at construction sites.
B) Although microtubules are common within a cell, actin filaments are rarely found
outside of the nucleus.
C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to
move relative to each other.
D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would have little effect on a
cell’s response to external stimuli.
E) The cytoskeleton is produced by transport vesicles of the endomembrane system.

A

C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to
move relative to each other.

52
Q
52) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella? 
A) tubulin 
B) laminin 
C) actin 
D) intermediate filaments 
E) secretory vesicles
A

A) tubulin

53
Q

53) Actin filaments have polarity. This means that the two ends can be identified due to
structural differences. The plus end is the end to which subunits are added more
rapidly, or the end of polymerization. Which of the following would enable you to identify the plus end of actin filaments?
A) adding radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions
are favorable for polymerization
B) adding radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions
favor depolymerization
C) determining the ionic charge of the ends of the actin filaments

A

A) adding radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions
are favorable for polymerization

54
Q

54) Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling), which involves
________.
A) growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane
B) setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of
cytoplasm
C) reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments
D) cytoplasmic streaming

A

A) growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane

55
Q

55) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to
assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular tracks along which
vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew
the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they put everything together, there
was no movement or transport of vesicles. What were they missing?
A) an axon
B) contractile microfilaments
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) motor proteins

A

D) motor proteins

56
Q

56) How is the structure of kinesin related to its function?
A) Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to
contract and shorten.
B) Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to
microtubules.
C) The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities.
D) Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved and a tail region that
attaches to microtubules.

A

B) Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to
microtubules.

57
Q

57) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP. ATP hydrolysis results in a
conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks
(pathways). What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding
site and, therefore, changes shape to enable movement?
A) the portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported
B) the stalk
C) the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the
vesicle is being transported
D) a location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule
that binds to microtubular tracks

A

C) the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the
vesicle is being transported

58
Q

58) Cilia and flagella bend because of ________.
A) conformational changes in ATP that thrust microtubules laterally
B) a motor protein called radial spokes
C) the quick inward movements of water by osmosis
D) a motor protein called dynein

A

D) a motor protein called dynein

59
Q

59) Which structure—function pair is mismatched?
A) nucleolus—production of ribosomal subunits
B) lysosome—intracellular digestion
C) ribosome—protein synthesis
D) Golgi—protein trafficking
E) microtubule—muscle contraction

A

E) microtubule—muscle contraction

60
Q

60) Spherocytosis is a human blood disorder associated with a defective cytoskeletal
protein in the red blood cells (RBCs). What do you suspect is the consequence of such
a defect?
A) abnormally shaped RBCs
B) an insufficient supply of ATP in the RBCs
C) an insufficient supply of oxygen-transporting proteins in the RBCs
D) adherence of RBCs to blood vessel walls, causing plaque formation

A

A) abnormally shaped RBCs