Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chap 5, lesson 4 > Chap 5, Lesson 4 > Flashcards

Chap 5, Lesson 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The two major principles in sliding filament theory include the following:

A

A sarcomere shortens as a result of the Z-lines moving closer together (i.e., converging). The Z-lines converge as the result of myosin filaments’ heads attaching to the actin filament’s heads, pulling the actin across the myosin, resulting in the shortening of the muscle fiber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The most essential electrolytes for muscle function include

A

Calcium, potassium, sodium, and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Power stroke

A

The myosin heads bind to actin and pull them toward the sarcomere center, which slides the filaments past each other, shortening the muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The length of a muscle when it is not actively contracting or being stretched.

A

Resting length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue

A

Type 1 muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Muscle fibers that are larger in size, generate higher amounts of force, and are faster to fatigue.

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Motor units cannot vary the amount of force they generate; they either contract maximally or not at all.

A

All-or-nothing principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Capillaries

A

The smallest blood vessels and the site of exchange of elements between the blood and the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type 1

A

More capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin

Increased oxygen delivery

Smaller in size

Less force produced

Slow to fatigue

Long-term contractions (stabilization)

“Slow twitch”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type 2

A

Fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin

Decreased oxygen delivery

Larger in size

More force produced

Quick to fatigue

Short-term contractions (force and power)

“Fast twitch”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Epimysium?

A

Inner layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Perimysium

A

Connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Endomysium

A

Connective tissue that wraps around individual muscle fibers within a fascicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fascia

A

Connective tissue that surrounds muscles and bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fascicle

A

The largest bundles of fibers within a muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

Contractile components of a muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following refers to the series of steps in muscle contraction?

A

Sliding filament theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Endocrine System

A

“Hormone secreting” - triggers muscle contraction, stimulates protein & fat utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lipolysis

A

The breakdown + utilization of fat for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enzyme

A

A substance in the body that causes a specific reaction or change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glands

A

Cells that release substances into the bloodstream (such as hormones) or other surface of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hormone

A

Chemical messenger released from a gland travels to cells to activate a specific function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Target (receptor) cell

A

Cell that receives a message from a hormone or enzyme. Target cells exert an action after being stimulated or activated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primary Endocrine glands

A

Hypothalamus, Pineal gland, Pancreas, Thyroid gland, Pituitary gland, Adrenal gland, and Reproductive glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hypothalamus

A

A gland located in the brain that communicates with the pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pineal Gland

A

A small gland in the brain that secretes the hormone melatonin, which helps regulate sleep cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pancreas

A

An organ with numerous functions, including the production of insulin, glucagon, and digestive juices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Thyroid gland

A

An endocrine gland, located in the anterior neck, is responsible for the secretion of many hormones, including thyroxin and calcitonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pituitary Gland

A

An endocrine gland that controls the secretion of many hormones, including growth hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adrenal gland

A

A gland, located just above the kidneys, responsible for the secretion of catecholamines and cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Reproductive Glands

A

Glands, such as the ovaries or testes, serve sex-specific functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Insulin

A

A hormone secreted by the pancreas that is responsible for glucose metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Glucagon

A

A hormone secreted by the pancreas that regulates blood glucose and functions opposite to insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients are used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Glycogen

A

Glucose is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Growth Hormone

A

An anabolic hormone produced by the pituitary gland is responsible for growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Catecholamines

A

Hormones produced by the adrenal glands are part of the stress response known as the fight-or-flight response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Catabolic

A

Metabolic process that breaks down molecules into smaller units used for energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources (proteins and fats).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Overtraining

A

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, results in a reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Testosterone

A

A hormone producing secondary male sex characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anabolic

A

The metabolic process synthesizes smaller molecules into larger units used for building and repairing tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Insulin-like growth factors (IGF)

A

An anabolic hormone is produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Calcitonin

A

The thyroid hormone helps the body use calcium properly to aid with maintaining bone mineral density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Glucose Intolerance

A

A condition that results in elevated blood glucose levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What gland communicates with and coordinates the activity of the pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What organ is responsible for producing insulin?

A

Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which gland produces catecholamines?

A

Adrenals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What gland regulates the sleep cycle and produces melatonin?

A

Pineal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What gland controls the secretion of many hormones, including growth hormone?

A

Pituitary Gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is the primary energy source during vigorous exercise?

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What term is used to describe the amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?

A

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3 functional regions of the digestive system

A

(1) the head & neck, (2) the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract, (3) the lower GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Gall bladder

A

An organ found below the liver, on the right side of the body, receives bile from the liver and secretes it into the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Liver

A

An organ in the upper-right abdominal cavity with numerous functions, including the production and secretion of bile, which is stored and concentrated in the gall bladder prior to release into the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Motility

A

In the digestive system, refers to movements of the anatomical structures that allow contents to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mastication

A

The mechanical process whereby the oral muscles break down food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Peristalsis

A

The muscle action of the gastrointestinal system pushes food through the body during digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Digestion

A

A multi-step process that describes the passage of food through the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Absorption

A

The process of nutrients being absorbed into the body during the digestive process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Esophagus

A

The anatomical part of the digestive tract that allows food to pass from the oral cavity to the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Ingestion

A

The act of taking food, liquid, or other substances into the body in preparation for digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chyme

A

A semifluid mass of digested food is passed from the stomach to the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Duodenum

A

Part of the small intestine resides between the stomach and the jejunum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Jejunum

A

Part of the small intestine resides between the duodenum and the ileum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Ileum

A

The final section of the small intestine, located between the jejunum and the cecum and leads to the large intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What term refers to the complex group of anatomical structures that function to break down, process, and absorb the food we eat?

A

The digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The process of nutrients being taken into the body’s cells. The term is used for the passage of already-digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building.

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The muscle action of the GI system that pushes food through the body

A

Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A multistep process that describes the passage of food through the body

A

Digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The process whereby the oral muscles and teeth break down food

A

Mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?

A

Increased heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?

A

Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?

A

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is directly responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction; whereas, the parasympathetic nervous system would decrease heart conduction when activated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?

A

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

A

Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is end-systolic volume?

A

The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?

A

The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?

A

Ilieum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is cardiac output?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?

A

Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?

A

Right ventricle?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?

A

Left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What anatomical heart structure is referred to as “the pacemaker of the heart”?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Atrioventricular Node

A

The atrioventricular node delays the impulse from the sinoatrial node before allowing it to pass to the ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?

A

A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

A

Right Atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs?

A

Respiratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?

A

Right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is end-systolic volume?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?

A

Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

A

Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?

A

Increased ventricular filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?

A

Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Human Movement System (HMS)

A

The collective components and structures that work together to move the body are the muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Kinetic chain

A

A concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform the movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Regional interdependence model

A

The concept describes the integrated functioning of multiple body systems or regions of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Biomechanics

A

The science is concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Kinesiology

A

Study of movement as it relates to anatomy and physiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Anatomic position

A

The position with the body erect, the arms at the sides, and the palms forward. It is the position of reference for anatomic nomenclature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Anatomical terms

A

Medial, lateral, contralateral, ipsilateral, anterior, posterior, proximal, distal, inferior, and superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Medial

A

Midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Lateral

A

Side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Contralateral

A

Opposite leg with opposite hand, for example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Toe to hand (same side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Superior

A

Top of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Anterior

A

In front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Posterior

A

back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What concept describes how the function of one segment of the body can impact other areas?

A

The regional interdependence model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Inferior

A

Below an identified reference point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Osteokinematics

A

Movement of a limb that is visible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A system of 3 imaginary planes

A

Sagittal, frontal, + transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Multiplanar

A

Movement patterns take the body through motions in more than one plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Sagittal plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Flexion

A

A bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Extension

A

a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Hyperextension

A

the extension of a joint beyond the normal limit or
range of motion (ROM) and may result in injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Flexion occurring at the ankle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Extension occurring at the ankle. Pointing the foot downwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Flexion + extension

A

In many joints in the body, including the spine, shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee, foot, and hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Frontal plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves. Movement in the frontal plane includes abduction, adduction, and side-to-side motions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Abduction

A

A movement in the frontal plane AWAY from the midline of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Adduction

A

Movement in the frontal plane back TOWARD the MIDLINE of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Lateral flexion

A

Bending of the spine from SIDE to SIDE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Eversion

A

A movement in which the inferior calcaneus (heel bone) moves laterally. The bottom of foot faces outward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Inversion

A

A movement in which the inferior calcaneus (heel bone) moves medially. Bottom of the foot faces inward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Transverse plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Internal rotation

A

Rotation of a body segment toward the middle of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

External rotation

A

Rotation of a body segment away from the middle of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Horizontal abduction

A

Movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from an anterior position to a lateral position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Horizontal adduction

A

Movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Radioulnar pronation

A

Inward rotation of the forearm from a palm-up position to a palm-down position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Radioulnar supination

A

Outward rotation of the forearm from a palm-down position to a palm-up position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Pronation of the foot

A

Multi-planar movement of the foot and ankle complex consisting of eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction; associated with force reduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Supination of the foot

A

Multi-planar movement of the foot and ankle complex consisting of inversion, plantar flexion, and ankle adduction; is associated with force production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Gait

A

The biomechanical motion of the lower extremities during walking, running and sprinting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Pronation of the foot

A

A multi-planar movement consisting of the combination of eversion, dorsiflexion, + ankle abduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Supination of the foot

A

the combination of inversion, plantar flexion, and ankle adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Gait

A

(walking and running), the foot and ankle complex moves between pronation during force reduction (when the foot lands) and supination during force production (when the foot pushes off the ground) with every step.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Scapular retraction

A

Adduction of scapulae; shoulder blades move toward the midline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Scapular protraction

A

Abduction of scapulae; shoulder blades move away from the midline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Scapular depression

A

Downward (inferior) motion of the scapulae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Scapular elevation

A

Upward (superior) motion of the scapulae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

3 planes (Multi-planar)

A

Transverse, sagittal, frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Sagittal plane

A

Forward, backward + up and down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Frontal plane

A

Side to side movements (abduction + adduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Transverse plane

A

Rotational movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Scapular retraction

A

when the shoulder blades come closer together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Scapular protraction

A

when the shoulder blades move further away from each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Scapular depression

A

when the shoulder blades move downward

160
Q

Scapular elevation

A

when the shoulder blades move upward toward the ears

161
Q

Elasticity

A

The ability of soft tissues to return to resting length after being stretched.

162
Q

Ligament

A

A fibrous connective tissue that connects bone to bone.

163
Q

Flexibility

A

The normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of motion of a joint.

164
Q

Hypermobility

A

A state where a lack of neuromuscular support leads to a joint having more range of motion than it should, greatly increasing the risk of injury at that joint. Excessive range of motion (ROM) at a joint.

165
Q

Hypo-mobility

A

When the range of motion at a joint is limited.

166
Q

What is the imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides?

A

The sagittal plane

167
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Extension occurring at the ankle

168
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Flexion occurring at the ankle

169
Q

Adduction

A

Movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body

170
Q

Abduction

A

Movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body

171
Q

Eversion

A

A movement in which the heel bone moves laterally

172
Q

Isotonic

A

Force is produced, muscle tension is developed, and movement occurs through a given range of motion. Isotonic muscle actions are subdivided into concentric and eccentric muscle actions. Either eccentric or concentric for lowering + lifting phases of resistance training exercises.

173
Q

Isometric

A

Muscle tension is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint.

174
Q

Isokinetic

A

The speed of movement is fixed, and resistance varies with the force exerted.

It requires sophisticated training equipment often seen in rehabilitation or exercise physiology laboratories.

175
Q

Eccentric muscle action

A

A muscle action occurs when a muscle develops tension while lengthening. This is when a muscle develops tension while lengthening.

176
Q

Motor Units

A

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.

177
Q

Eccentric motion

A

synonymous with deceleration and can be observed in many movements, such as landing from a jump or lowering weights during a resistance exercise.

178
Q

Eccentric vs. Concentric

A

Eccentric muscle actions are able to resist more weight than concentric actions. During the eccentric phase, resistance can be lowered more slowly than they are lifted to increase the time under tension for better strength improvements.

179
Q

Concentric muscle action

A

When the contractile force (force developed within the muscle) is greater than the resistive force, resulting in a visible shortening of the muscle.

180
Q

Isometric muscle action

A

Occurs when the contractile force is equal to the resistive force, leading to no visible change in the muscle length.

181
Q

Core

A

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC); (e.g., plank exercise with an isometric contraction of muscles), including the lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint.

182
Q

Isometric muscle action

A

When a muscle is exerting a force equal to the force being placed on it leading to no visible change in the muscle length.

183
Q

Concentric muscle action

A

A muscle action occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a SHORTENING of the muscle.

184
Q

Muscle action spectrum

A

every exercise consists of an eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle action to complete one repetition (e.g., dumbbell curl)

185
Q

What are the three overarching types of muscle actions?

A

Isotonic, isometric, + isokinetic

186
Q

Agonists

A

muscles that act as the prime movers for a joint motion; in other words, they are the muscles most responsible for generating the primary forces for a particular movement.

187
Q

Synergist

A

muscles create forces to assist prime movers but are not intended as the primary force producer for a given joint motion.

188
Q

Stabilizer

A

muscles contract isometrically to support and stabilize the joints, while the prime movers and synergists move through the entire muscle action spectrum to perform a movement.

189
Q

Feed-forward activation

A

When a muscle is automatically activated in anticipation of a movement.

190
Q

Antagonists

A

Muscles on the opposite side of a joint are in direct opposition to agonist muscles.

191
Q

Muscles

A

Movers

192
Q

Muscle functions

A

Allows for the manipulation of forces placed to on the body to either produce, stabilize, or resist movement.

193
Q

While moving, each muscle is…

A

an agonist, synergist, stabilizer, or antagonist

194
Q

Agonist example

A

The Gluteus maximus is the agonist for hip extension; or, and quadriceps are the agonist for knee extension; or, the anterior deltoids are the agonist for shoulder flexion; or, biceps brachii is the agonist for elbow flexion, + triceps brachii UI is the agonist for elbow extension.

195
Q

Closed-chain activities

A

Weight-bearing. Push-ups, squats, pull-ups, or lunges.

196
Q

Open-chained movements

A

Distal segments (hands + feet) are not fixed, free to move in space. Exercises include: lat pulldown, biceps curl, bench press, leg curl, + leg extension exercises.

197
Q

Open vs closed chain

A

Classify exercises with one of these two - muscle recruitment patterns, degree of weight bearing, + the number of joints involved.

198
Q

Closed chain movements

A

Weight-bearing (mostly), legs fixed on a stable surface. Eg., the push-up is a closed-chain exercise while the hands are fixed on the floor.

199
Q

Distal segments

A

Hands + feet

200
Q

Open chain movements

A

Distal segments, i.e., hands + feet are not fixed and are free to move in space

201
Q

Share knowledge

A

Provide a plethora of knowledge

202
Q

Antagonist

A

Perform the opposite action of the prime mover

203
Q

Agonists

A

Muscles that act as the prime movers for a joint motion

204
Q

Stabilizer

A

Contract isometrically to support and stabilize the joints

205
Q

Synergist

A

Create forces to assist prime movers but are not intended as the primary force producer

206
Q

The primary characteristic of closed-chain movements is that the distal segments, such as the person’s hands or feet, are not fixed and are able to move freely.

A

FALSE

207
Q

Length-tension relationship

A

association of the resting length of a muscle & the amount of internal tension it can produce at that resting length.

208
Q

Actin + myosin filaments

A

Within the sarcomere includes the greatest degree of overlap

209
Q

Force

A

The interaction between two entities or bodies results in either the acceleration or deceleration of an object.

210
Q

Length-tension relationship

A

The association between the resting length of a muscle and the amount of internal tension it can produce at that resting length.

211
Q

Within the sarcomeres

A

Actin + myosin filaments have the greatest degree of overlap

212
Q

Resting length

A

The length of a muscle when it is not actively contracting or being stretched.

213
Q

Actin

A

The thin, stringlike, myofilament acts along with myosin to produce a muscular contraction.

214
Q

Myosin

A

The thick myofilament acts along with actin to produce a muscular contraction.

215
Q

Sarcomere

A

The structural unit of a myofibril is composed of actin and myosin filaments between two Z-lines.

216
Q

Muscle balance

A

Length-tension relationships relate closely to this. They will hold that joint in an optimal position for the most efficient movement.

217
Q

Altered length-tension relationship

A

creates imbalance around the joint, where one side is contracted and pulling more than it should be and the other side is allowed to be pulled into a lengthened state with reduced actin/myosin overlap, putting the joint into a suboptimal resting position

218
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

The nervous system’s role in the contract-relax relationship between agonists and antagonists

219
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

When an agonist muscle chronically receives an activation signal causing the function antagonist to chronically receive the inhibitory signal.

220
Q

Muscle imbalance

A

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

221
Q

Neutral position

A

The optimal resting position of a joint allows it to function efficiently through its entire normal range of motion.

222
Q

Stretch-shortening cycle

A

A term used to describe a loaded eccentric muscle action that prepares muscles + tendons for a rapid concentric contraction.

223
Q

Series elastic component

A

The stored energy of muscle + tendon

224
Q

Amortization phase

A

After energy is stored, the contractile tissue releases this elastic energy during the concentric phase. The storage and release of this elastic energy increase force production if the time between the eccentric and concentric phases is rapid.

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.

225
Q

Stretch reflex

A

A rapid amortization phase requires both contractile tissue storage of energy and the neurological

226
Q

Integrated performance paradigm

A

The more rapidly a client can move through the amortization phase, the more powerful the concentric contraction will be.

227
Q

Stretch-shortening cycle

A

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.

228
Q

Series elastic component

A

Springlike non-contractile component of muscle and tendon that stores elastic energy.

229
Q

Stretch reflex

A

A neurological signal from the muscle spindle causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

230
Q

Integrated performance paradigm

A

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

231
Q

Tendon

A

A fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.

232
Q

Force-couple relationship

A

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.

233
Q

Joint support systems

A

Muscular stabilization systems are located in joints distal of the spine.

234
Q

Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)

A

Muscles of the lower leg, hamstrings, and lower back region

235
Q

Posterior oblique subsystem (POS)

A

Made up of the latissimus dorsi, thoracolumbar fascia (connective tissue of the lower back), & contralateral gluteus maximus.

236
Q

Sacroiliac joint

A

A joint between the sacrum + the ilium bones

237
Q

Anterior Oblique Subsystem (AOS)

A

On the anterior side of the body. Includes, obliques, the adductor (inner) thigh muscles, + hip external rotators.

The AOS and POS work together as a global force-couple in enabling rotational force production in the transverse plane.

238
Q

Lateral subsystem (LS)

A

made up of the lateral hip (gluteus medius) + medial thigh muscles (adductors) + the contralateral quadratus lumborum - movement in the frontal plane.

239
Q

Torque

A

a measurement of the amount of force that can cause an object to rotate around an axis.

Relies on the force, the length of the lever arm, and the angle between the force application and the lever arm.

240
Q

Rotary motion

A

Movement of the bones around the joints.

241
Q

Torque

A

A force that produces rotation; a common unit of measurement is the Newton meter (Nm).

242
Q

What does the term force refer to?

A

The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration

243
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen

244
Q

Altered length-tension relationship

A

When a muscle’s resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce

245
Q

Muscle imbalance

A

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships

246
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

When an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist

247
Q

The muscles of the lower leg, hamstrings, and low back region make up which of the following global muscular subsystems?

A

Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)

248
Q

Motor behavior

A

the HMS response to internal and external environmental stimuli.

249
Q

Motor control

A

the ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements and involves mechanisms used by the central nervous system to assimilate and integrate sensory information with previous experiences

250
Q

Motor learning

A

the use of these processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in one’s capacity to produce skilled movements. Anytime a new physical skill is learned and practiced, motor learning is occurring.

251
Q

Motor development

A

the cumulative changes in motor behavior, over time, throughout the life span

252
Q

Motor control

A

segmental control is an integrated process involving neural, skeletal, and muscular components to produce appropriate motor responses.

253
Q

Muscle synergies

A

One of the most important concepts in motor control is that muscles are recruited by the nervous system in groups

254
Q

Motor control

A

How the central nervous system integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response.

255
Q

Motor learning

A

Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior.

256
Q

Motor development

A

Change in skilled motor behavior over time throughout the life span.

257
Q

Muscle synergies

A

Groups of muscles that are recruited simultaneously by the central nervous system to provide movement.

258
Q

Squat

A

Agonists: quadriceps, gluteus maximus
Synergist: hamstrings complex
Stabilizer: transverse abdominis

259
Q

Shoulder press

A

Agonists: deltoids
Synergist: triceps brachii
Stabilizers: rotator cuff

260
Q

Bench press

A

Agonist: pectoralis major
Synergists: triceps brachii, anterior deltoid
Stabilizer: rotator cuff

261
Q

Seated row

A

Agonist: latissimus dorsi
Synergists: posterior deltoid, biceps brachii
Stabilizers: rotator cuff

262
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

Collectively feed the nervous system with a form of sensory information known as proprioception.

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

263
Q

Proprioception

A

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

264
Q

Sensorimotor integration

A

the ability of the nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information and to select and execute the proper motor response

the nervous system ultimately dictates movement.

265
Q

Feedback

A

the use of sensory information and sensorimotor integration to aid the HMS in developing permanent neural representations of motor patterns.

266
Q

2 different forms of feedback

A

internal (or sensory) feedback and external (or augmented) feedback.

267
Q

Internal feedback

A

the process whereby the body uses sensory information to reactively monitor movement and the environment.

268
Q

External feedback

A

refers to the information provided by an external source, including a Certified Personal Trainer, video recording, mirror, or heart rate monitor, to help supplement internal feedback to produce more efficient motor learning.

269
Q

Neuromuscular efficiency

A

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

270
Q

Motor Development

A

How skilled motor behavior changes over time throughout the life span

271
Q

Motor Control

A

How the central nervous system integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response

272
Q

Motor Behavior

A

How the human movement system responds to internal and external stimuli

273
Q

Motor Learning

A

How repeated practice and experience of motor control processes lead to a relatively permanent change in skilled motor behavior

274
Q

One of the most important concepts in motor control is that muscles are recruited by the nervous system in groups. What are these groups called?

A

Muscle synergies

275
Q

Open versus close chain exercises

A

Closed-chain are more likely to RECRUIT multiple muscle groups + joints; open-chain movements are more likely to ISOLATE a particular joint or muscle.

276
Q

3 planar dimensions

A

Sagittal, frontal, + transverse

277
Q

Osteokinematics

A

Observable movement of a limb

278
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

The movement taking place at the joint itself

279
Q

Sagittal plane

A

an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides.

Movements in the sagittal plane include flexion and extension and plantar flexion and dorsiflexion of the foot and ankle.

280
Q

The frontal plane

A

Bisects the body to create front and back halves.

Movements in the frontal plane include abduction and adduction of the limbs (relative to the trunk), lateral flexion of the spine, and eversion and inversion at the foot and ankle complex.

281
Q

Transverse plane

A

bisects the body to create upper and lower halves.

Movements in the transverse plane include internal rotation and external rotation for the limbs, right and left rotation for the head and trunk, horizontal abduction and horizontal adduction of the limbs, and radioulnar pronation and supination.

282
Q

Motions of the scapulae

A

include scapular retraction, scapular protraction, scapular depression, and scapular elevation.

283
Q

Muscle actions

A

isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic.

284
Q

Isotonic

A

broken down into concentric and eccentric phases.

285
Q

Muscles can play the role of…

A

agonist, synergist, stabilizer, or antagonist depending on the movement being performed.

286
Q

Closed vs Opened Chain movements

A

Closed-chain movements anchor the body to the ground or immovable object, whereas open-chain movement involves the distal limb moving freely in space.

287
Q

Stretch shortening cycle 3 phase proces

A

the eccentric phase, amortization phase, and concentric phase.

288
Q

Global muscle system

A

the deep longitudinal, posterior oblique, anterior oblique, and lateral subsystems.

289
Q

Lever systems

A

first, second, and third class. Third-class levers are the most predominate levers in the human body.

290
Q

Proprioception

A

the intrinsic awareness of movement and bodily position in space.

291
Q

Motor learning

A

the integration of motor control processes, with practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements.

292
Q

Feedback

A

can come from internal or external sources and aids the process of motor learning.

293
Q

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?

A

Quadriceps

294
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?

A

Rapid amortization phase

295
Q

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?

A

Erector spinae. The global muscular system is comprised of larger muscles that initiate movements and tend to function across one or more joints.

296
Q

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?

A

First Class

297
Q

What is the most accurate description of motor control?

A

The ability to initiate & correct purposeful controlled movements

298
Q

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?

A

Stretch Shortening Cycle

299
Q

Eccentric Contraction Phase

A

Lengthening (bending down), - i.e., preparing to jump. Where the tendon is stretched.

300
Q

Concentric Contraction Phase

A

Shortening (jumping up), - i.e., jumping in the air. Tendon recoils back during this phase

301
Q

Amortization Phase

A

Between eccentric + concentric phase. Strength + power + speed

302
Q

Static vertical jump

A

Tip for clients: Throw your arms down faster during the eccentric contraction phase to gain a few inches higher during the amortization phase

303
Q

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?

A

Arthrokinematic movements

304
Q

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action?

Occurs during the eccentric action & is released during…

A

Concentric action

305
Q

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?

A

The development of muscle tension during the lengthening of the contractile tissue.

306
Q

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

A

Hip Abductors

307
Q

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?

A

This can be addressed through stretching of the plantar flexor muscle and may be accommodated during a squat by placing a small weight or board under the heels.

308
Q

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) - The Body’s Energy Currency

A

Serves as the main form of energy in the human body. How energy is supplied, which energy systems are used during exercise, + how quickly energy can be supplied, + how cells generate ATP.

309
Q

Bioenergetics

A

The study of how energy is transformed through various biochemical reactions.

310
Q

Metabolism

A

All the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself.

311
Q

Main sources of chemical energy

A

Carbohydrates, fats, + protein

312
Q

Exercise metabolism

A

Refers to the examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiological changes + demands placed on the body during exercise.

313
Q

Chemical waste

A

CO2, H2O

314
Q

Metabolism

A

All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body maintain themselves.

315
Q

First law of Thermodynamics

A

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, only recycled or converted from one form into another. Known as the concept of energy balance.

316
Q

Macronutrients

A

Food substances required in large amounts to supply energy + include protein, carbohydrate, + fat

317
Q

Tip: Energy consumed

A

All of the energy a person consumes is either used to perform bodily functions or stored within the body - often as body fat.

318
Q

Per the first law of thermodynamics…

A

A body’s mass increases when it consumes more energy than it uses because that energy must be physically contained within the molecular bonds of carbon-based organic matter.

Simply put, if energy isn’t used, it is stored away for later, and there can be no energy stored away for later without the accompanying increase in carbon-based body mass to contain that energy.

319
Q

Metabolism converts food + bodily stores

A

Glycogen + fat to ATP for use, CO2 is formed as the main waste product

320
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients are used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

Dietary food provides energy to sustain life + support physical activity, but not directly. It can be broken down by the digestive system into smaller by-products.

321
Q

Glucose

A

The simplest form of carbohydrate is used by the body for energy.

One of the main sources of energy, particularly for brain function + higher intensity activity.

322
Q

Glycogen

A

Glucose is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrates.

Stored in the liver + muscle cells that can be broken down rapidly to provide energy when there is not enough free glucose in the blood.

323
Q

Ventilatory Threshold 1 (VT1) (Metabolic marker)

A

As activity intensity increases, the usage of carbohydrates as an energy source becomes 50%, and the usage of fat becomes 50%.

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrates and fat as fuel sources.

324
Q

Ventilatory Threshold 2 (VT2)

A

The point where activity is so intense that glucose is providing virtually all of the energy for the activity, as fats metabolize too slowly to keep up with maximal demands.

The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity.

325
Q

Tip: Depleted glucose w/an attempt to switch to fat

A

If the supplies of glucose and glycogen run out, a person would not be able to continue exercising at a maximal intensity and he or she will have to reduce the effort to a point where fat usage is once again possible, commonly referred to as hitting a wall. This is part of why some athletes use “energy gels” and other carbohydrate supplements during prolonged strenuous training and in competition.

326
Q

Fats (lipids)

A

Two types: saturated + unsaturated fats

Energy source is particularly important during rest and lower-intensity activity

327
Q

Triglyceride (free fatty acids)

A

The chemical (or substrate) form in which most fats exist in food (as well as in the body

328
Q

Free fatty acids

A

In the bloodstream, derived directly from fats contained in foods & are made by the body to store excess energy when more food is consumed than is needed to support activity.

329
Q

Amino Acids (Protein)

A

Long chains of “building block” substances called amino acids

330
Q

Essential amino acids (EAA)

A

9 of 20 amino acids; the body cannot synthesize them on its own + they must be consumed in the diet.

Amino acids must be obtained through the diet as the body does not make them; there are nine essential amino acids.

331
Q

Nonessential amino acids

A

Amino acids can be synthesized by the body and do not, under normal circumstances, need to be obtained in the diet.

They can be synthesized by the body (from consumed carbohydrates or fat substrates) as long as overall nutrition intake is adequate.

332
Q

Negative energy balance

A

When calorie intake is lower than the number of calories expended.

Amino acids are used to assist in energy production & can come from protein that was eaten or from the breakdown of the muscle tissue itself in extreme cases, like starvation or when exercising at extremely high intensities for long periods of time.

333
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, they are further broken down and then recombined into either glucose through THIS process

334
Q

Ketogenesis

A

The formation of ketone bodies from nonfat sources, such as certain amino acids. Ketone bodies through this process.

335
Q

Ketone bodies

A

Water-soluble molecules are produced in the liver as a result of fatty acid oxidation. They can then be oxidized in the mitochondria to produce adenosine triphosphate.

The name is collectively used to refer to three molecules—acetone, acetoacetic acid, and beta-hydroxybutyric acid—that can be anaerobically metabolized similarly to glucose.

336
Q

Ketosis

A

A state of carbohydrate depletion where the liver manufactures ketone bodies to meet energy demands that free fatty acid oxidation cannot support.

During this metabolic state. Ketone levels can increase in the human body in several ways:
By restricting overall calories to very low levels
By following very low-carbohydrate diets (e.g., ketogenic diet)
By consuming exogenous ketones
When there is a lack of insulin produced (type 1 diabetes) or substantial insulin resistance (type 2 diabetes)

337
Q

Nutritional Ketosis

A

When humans engage in the previous dietary habits 1–3, their ketone levels can increase to approximately 0.5–1.5 millimoles per liter (mmol/L) of blood

338
Q

Ketoacidosis

A

Occurs in diabetic individuals. For most people, ketones make up a small portion of the energy-producing substrates in the human body, even in nutritional ketosis.

339
Q

Exogenous ketones

A

Isolated ketone bodies are usually consumed in supplement form.

340
Q

Insulin resistance

A

The inability of the cells to respond to insulin; occurs in type 2 diabetes.

341
Q

Ketoacidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis is induced by very high levels of ketone bodies such as seen in type 1 diabetes or severe insulin resistance.

342
Q

What term refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself?

A

Metabolism

343
Q

Of the 20 amino acids used by the human body, how many are called essential amino acids?

A

9

344
Q

For conversion purposes, how many calories equals 1 pound (about 0.5 kilograms) of body fat?

A

3,500 calories

345
Q

Mechanical Work

A

The body needs fuel - this is broken down through a series of chemical reactions to provide energy. The only way the new energy enters the earth’s ecosystem is from the sun.

NOTE: Plants convert the sun’s energy to food and food provides animals (including humans) with energy to perform cellular and mechanical functions

346
Q

ATP - Adenosine Triphosphate

A

The primary energy-providing molecule in the human body. A complex molecule is made up of a nitrogenous base (adenine), a sugar molecule (ribose), + 3 phosphates together.

347
Q

ADP - Adenosine Diphosphate

A

When these chemical bonds are broken, energy from one of the phosphates is released for mechanical work (such as performing muscle contraction), leaving behind another molecule & an extra phosphate group.

348
Q

Phosphorylation - 3 metabolic pathways

A

ATP-PC System, Glycolytic system (glycolysis), & Oxidative system (oxidative phosphorylation)

The addition of a phosphate group to a molecule, such as in the transfer of a phosphate group to adenosine diphosphate creates adenosine triphosphate.

349
Q

ATP-PC System

A

An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10–15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism.

350
Q

Anaerobic

A

Processes relating to the absence of oxygen. provides energy for primarily high-intensity, short-duration bouts of activity. This can be seen in strength and power forms of training in which very heavy loads are used with only a few repetitions or during short sprinting efforts.

351
Q

Glycolysis

A

Takes place in the cytoplasm of an animal cell. Anaerobic glycolysis refers to when this process occurs in the absence of oxygen.

352
Q

Lactic Acid

A

As pyruvate accumulates in an anaerobic environment, it is quickly converted to lactate, releasing a free hydrogen ion in the process.

353
Q

Oxidative system

A

A process that uses oxygen to convert food substrates into ATP

354
Q

Oxidative Phosphorylation

A

An aerobic process because it needs oxygen to complete the reactions.

355
Q

3 Substrates in the Oxidative System

A

Free fatty acids, the pyruvate created during glycolysis, + amino acids that have undergone deamination.

356
Q

Mitochondria

A

The first reaction is called the citric acid cycle (CAC) = Krebs cycle leading to the creation of a few ATP molecules + the waste product of carbon dioxide.

357
Q

Electrons transport chain (ETC)

A

Electrons are freed for use in the next set of reactions and it uses those electrons to drive a complex series of reactions that create the most ATP.

358
Q

Acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA)

A

Removes the electrons from this molecule and transports the negatively charged electrons along with positively charged hydrogen ions to the ETC.

Produced by the breakdown of carbohydrates through glycolysis and by the fatty acids through beta-oxidation and is the precursor for these substrates to the citric acid cycle.

359
Q

Beta-oxidation

A

To use fat substrates for aerobic energy production, the fat (e.g., triglycerides) must first be converted into free fatty acids and then further broken down to acetyl CoA in a process.

360
Q

Mitochondria

A

The parts of the cell that use nutrients to create energy for the cell; are commonly known as the powerhouses of the cell.

361
Q

Beta-oxidation

A

The first step in the process is to break down fats via oxidative phosphorylation.

362
Q

Ketoacidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis induced by very high levels of ketone bodies

363
Q

Insulin resistance

A

The inability of the cells to respond to insulin

364
Q

Exogenous ketones

A

Isolated ketone bodies usually consumed in supplement form

365
Q

Ketosis

A

A state of carbohydrate depletion where the liver manufactures ketone bodies to meet energy demands

366
Q

What is the primary energy-providing molecule in the human body?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

367
Q

What metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell is responsible for converting glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

A

Glycolysis

368
Q

Steady-state aerobic exercise

A

Aerobic exercise remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

Aerobic exercise performed at a constant pace (intensity). steady-state exercise could be described as walking or jogging at a consistent pace for 1 mile.

369
Q

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

A

The purpose is to produce additional ATP (above & beyond what is needed for recovery) to help reestablish baseline levels of ATP + PC + to assist with clearing metabolic waste products.

370
Q

What term is used to describe the state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise?

A

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

371
Q

Any form of exercise can be defined by what two factors?

A

Intensity + Duration

372
Q

Total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)

A

The total amount of energy expended in one day.

373
Q

Kilocalorie (kcal)

A

One food calorie. Also, the amount of energy needed to raise one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius.

374
Q

Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

A

The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasting and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly.

375
Q

Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)

A

The calories are expended through structured exercise or training.

376
Q

Thermic effect of food (TEF)

A

The energy is required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.

377
Q

Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs.

378
Q

Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)

A

the number of calories that the body uses at complete rest to function (e.g., pumping blood, breathing, fueling the brain, and organ functioning).

Simply put, RMR is the minimum energy expenditure (i.e., # of calories needed) to keep a person alive.

This number can vary considerably among individuals, but people with more muscle mass tend to have a higher RMR because muscle is a more active user of ATP than other bodily tissues.

379
Q

Physical Activity Level (PAL)

A

quantified as the total daily energy expenditure divided by the resting energy expenditure

380
Q

Metabolic Equivalent (MET)

A

One MET is equal to 3.5 mL of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL O2/kg per min), which is the average resting metabolic rate for the greater population.

A moderate-intensity activity might require 5 METs (5 times RMR, or 17–18 mL/kg per min), and a very high-intensity activity might require 9 or more METs (9 times RMR or >30 mL/kg per min).

381
Q

Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

A

The rate at which the body expends energy when fasting and at complete rest.

382
Q

Exercise Activity Thermogenesis (EAT)

A

The calories expended through structured exercise or training

383
Q

Thermic effect of food (TEF)

A

The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed

384
Q

Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise

385
Q

What term is used to describe the number of total calories expended per day divided by the resting metabolic expenditure?

A

Physical Activity Level (PAL)

386
Q

Second law of thermodynamics

A

a physical law based on universal experience concerning heat and energy interconversions.

387
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body?

A

Acetoacetic acid

388
Q

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?

A

Intensity + duration

389
Q

What is bioenergetics?

A

The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

390
Q

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?

A

Glucose

391
Q

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?

A

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

392
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

393
Q

What is the definition of energy balance?

A

When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

394
Q

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?

A

Resting metabolic rate

395
Q

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?

A

Exercise?

396
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?

A

A very low-carbohydrate diet

Chap 5, lesson 4 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions