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Paramedic Phase 1 Test 2 > Chap 4,6,7,8 > Flashcards

Chap 4,6,7,8 Flashcards

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0
Q

The physiology of disordered function is?

A

Pathophysiology

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1
Q

The study of disease and its causes?

A

Pathology

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2
Q

Cellular adaptions

A

Atrophy

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

Metaplasia

Dysplasia

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3
Q

A decrease in cell size resulting from a decreased workload is?

A

Atrophy

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4
Q

An increase in cell size resulting from an increased workload is?

A

Hypertrophy

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5
Q

Enlargement

A

Dilation

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6
Q

An increase in the number of cells resulting from cell division caused by an increased workload is?

A

Hyperplasia

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7
Q

Cell division with division of the nucleus; each daughter cell contains the same number of chromosomes as the mother cell. ________ is the process by which the body grows?

A

Mitosis

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8
Q

Replacement of one type of cell by another type of cell that is not normal for that tissue is?

A

Metaplasia

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9
Q

A change in cell size, shape, or appearance caused by an external stressor is?

A

Dysplasia

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10
Q

Forms of cellular injury are?

A

Hypoxia

Chemicals

Infectious agents

Inflammatory reactions

Physical agents

Nutritional factors

Genetic factors

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11
Q

Oxygen deficiency is?

A

Hypoxia

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12
Q

A blockage in the delivery of oxygenated blood to the cells is?

A

Ischemia

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13
Q

As the cell becomes progressively more ischemic, the intracellular metabolism becomes?

A

Anaerobic ( without oxygen )

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14
Q

With anaerobic metabolism, there is a marked decrease in cellular ATP production and an increase in the production of harmful acids ( ketoacids ), primarily ?

A

Lactic acids

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15
Q

If oxygen is supplied to the cell in time, the injury is reversible true or false?

A

True

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16
Q

The result of cellular and tissue death is called?

A

Infarction

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17
Q

A microorganism capable of producing infection or disease is?

A

Pathogen

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18
Q

Constructive or building up phase of metabolism is?

A

Anabolism

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19
Q

The destructive or breaking down phase of metabolism is?

A

Catabolism

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20
Q

Response in which an injured cell releases enzymes that engulf and destroy itself; one way the body destroys and rids itself of damaged and dead cells.

A

Apoptosis

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21
Q

Cell death

A

Necrosis

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22
Q

Excess fluid in the interstitial space?

A

Edema

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23
Q

The liquid part of the blood is?

A

Plasma

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24
Q

Red blood cells which contain hemoglobin which transport oxygen to the cells is?

A

Erythrocytes

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25
Q

White blood cells which play a key role in the immune system and inflammatory ( infection fighting ) response?

A

Leukocytes

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26
Q

Platelets which are important in blood clotting?

A

Thrombocytes

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27
Q

An iron based compound that binds with oxygen and transports it to the cells is?

A

Hemoglobin

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28
Q

The percentage of the blood occupied by erythrocytes is?

A

Hematocrit

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29
Q

Intravenous fluids with the ability to transport oxygen is?

A

Hemoglobin-based oxygen-carrying solutions (HBOCs)

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30
Q

Substances, such as proteins or starches consisting of large molecules or molecule aggregates that disperse evenly within a liquid without forming a true solution is?

A

Colloids

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31
Q

A protein commonly present in plant and animal tissues?

A

Albumin

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32
Q

Substances capable of crystallization.

A

Crystalloids

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33
Q

A patient having a heart attack should be thought of as having_______?

A

Myocardial ischemia.

• Myocardial infarction is irreversible and we hope to intervene before this occurs.

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34
Q

__________ have electrolyte composition similar to the blood plasma?

A

Isotonic solutions

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35
Q

________Have a higher concentration than cells?

A

Hypertonic solutions

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36
Q

________ have a lower solute concentration than the cells.

A

Hypotonic solutions

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37
Q

_________ is an isotonic solution of sodium chloride, potassium chloride, calcium chloride, and sodium lactate in water.

A

Lactated Ringer’s

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38
Q

________ is an electrolyte solution of sodium chloride in water?

A

Normal Saline

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39
Q

_________ is a hypotonic glucose solution used to keep a vein open and to supply calories necessary for cell metabolism?

A

D5W

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40
Q

What two solutions are used for fluid replacement, because their administration causes an immediate expansion of the circulatory volume?

A

Lactated Ringer’s and Normal saline

•however as was noted, due to the movement of electrolytes and water, 2/3’s of either of these solutions is lost into the interstitial space within 1 hour.

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41
Q

Acidity caused by abnormal retention of carbon dioxide resulting from impaired ventilation is?

A

Respiratory acidosis

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42
Q

Alkalinity caused by excessive elimination of carbon dioxide resulting from increased respirations is?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

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43
Q

Acidity caused by an increase in acid, often because of increased production of acids during metabolism or from causes such as vomiting, diarrhea, diabetes or medication is?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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44
Q

Alkalinity caused by an increase in plasma bicarbonate resulting from causes including diuresis, vomiting, or ingestion of too much sodium bicarbonate is?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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45
Q

An agent that increases urine secretion and elimination of body water is?

A

Diuretic

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46
Q

Inadequate pump (cardiogenic)

Inadequate fluid (hypovolemic)

Inadequate container (distributive/neurogenic)

Are all signs of ?

A

Physiological classifications of shock

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47
Q

Two characteristics of impaired cellular metabolism in any type of shock are ?

A

Impaired oxygen use and impaired glucose use

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48
Q

At the simplest level, shock is inadequate?

A

Tissue perfusion

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49
Q

The second stage of metabolism requiring the presence of oxygen in which the breakdown of glucose yields a high amount of energy is? ( aerobic means “with oxygen” )

A

Aerobic metabolism

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50
Q

The first stage of metabolism which does not require oxygen, in which the breakdown of glucose produces pyruvic acid and yields very little energy is ?
( anaerobic means “without oxygen” )

A

Anaerobic metabolism

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51
Q

Early stage of shock during which the body’s compensatory mechanisms are able to maintain normal perfusion is?

A

Compensated shock

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52
Q

Advanced stages of shock when the body’s compensatory mechanisms are no longer able to maintain normal perfusion is ? Also called progressive shock

A

Decompensated shock

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53
Q

Shock that has progressed so far that no medical intervention can reverse the condition and death is inevitable is?

A

Irreversible shock

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54
Q

Shock caused by insufficient cardiac output is?

A

Cardiogenic shock

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55
Q

Types of shock

A 
•Cardiogenic
•Hypovolemic  
•Neurogenic
•Anaphylactic
•Septic
( Alternative classifications of shock: ) 
 • Cardiogenic 
 • Hypovolemic 
 • Obstructive 
 • Distributive
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56
Q

The hallmark of Decompensated shock is ?

A

Fall in blood pressure

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57
Q

Most patients with Cardiogenic shock have a normal or _____________ blood pressure?

A

Increased

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58
Q

Shock caused by a loss of intravascular fluid volume is?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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59
Q

Greatly increased urination and dehydration due to high levels of glucose that cannot be reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules, causing a loss of water into the urine is?

A

Osmotic diuresis

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60
Q

Shock resulting from brain or spinal cord injury that causes an interruption of nerve impulses to the arteries with loss of arterial tone, dilation, and relative Hypovolemia is?

A

Neurogenic shock

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61
Q

A life threatening allergic reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis also called ( Anaphylactic Shock )

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62
Q

Shock that developed as the result of infection carried by the bloodstream eventually causing dysfunction of multiple organ systems is ?

A

Septic shock

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63
Q

The study of drugs and their actions on the body is?

A

Pharmacology

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64
Q

what are the 4 different types of drug names?

A
  • Chemical
  • Generic
  • Official
  • Brand
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65
Q

Components of a Drug Profile

A
  • Names
  • Classifications
  • Mechanism of action
  • Indications
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Side affects / adverse reactions
  • Routes of administration
  • Contraindications
  • Dosage
  • How supplied
  • Special consideration
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66
Q

Six Rights of Medication Administration:

A
  • Right person
  • Right drug
  • Right dose
  • Right time
  • Right route
  • Right documentation
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67
Q

How a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted is ?(how drugs are transported into and out of the body)

A

Pharmacokinetics

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68
Q

How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effects is?

A

Pharmacodynamics

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69
Q

Most drugs travel through the body by means of?

A

Passive transport

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70
Q

Diffusion and osmosis are forms of ?

A

Passive transport

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71
Q

______ requires the use of energy to move a substance?

A

Active transport

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72
Q

The body absorbs most drugs faster when they given __________ than when they are given ___________?

A
  1. Intramuscularly

2. Subcutaneously

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73
Q

The amount of a drug that is still active after it reaches its target tissue is?

A

Bioavailability

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74
Q

The body’s breaking down chemicals into different chemicals is?

A

Metabolism

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75
Q

The liver’s partial or complete inactivation of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation is?

A

First- pass effect

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76
Q

Delivery of a medication through the gastrointestinal tract is?

A

Enteral route

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77
Q

Delivery of a medication outside of the gastrointestinal tract, typically using needles to inject medications into the circulatory system or tissue is?

A

Parenteral route

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78
Q

Force of attraction between a drug and a receptor is their?

A

Affinity

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79
Q

A drug’s pharmacodynamics also involve its ability to cause the expected response , or?

A

Efficacy

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80
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor and causes it to initiate the expected response is?

A

Agonist

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81
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor but does not cause it to initiate the expected response is?

A

Antagonist

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82
Q

Unintended response to a drug is?

A

Side effect

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83
Q

The time from administration until a medication reaches its minimum effective concentration?

A

Onset of action

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84
Q

Minimum level of drug needed to cause a given effect is?

A

Minimum effective concentration

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85
Q

Length of time the amount of drug remains above its minimum effective concentration until it is eliminated from the body is?

A

Termination of action

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86
Q

Drug that best demonstrates the class’s common properties and illustrates its particular characteristics is?

A

Prototype

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87
Q

Nerve Cell?

A

Neuron

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88
Q

Medication that relieves the sensation of pain is?

A

Analgesic

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89
Q

The absence of the sensation of pain is?

A

Analgesia

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90
Q

The absence of all sensations is?

A

Anesthesia

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91
Q

Medication that induces a loss of sensation to touch or pain is?

A

Anesthetic

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92
Q

State of decreased anxiety and inhibitions?

A

sedation

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93
Q

Instigation of sleep?

A

Hypnosis

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94
Q

The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary actions?

A

Autonomic nervous system

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95
Q

Space between the nerves?

A

Synapse

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96
Q

Chemical messenger that conducts a nervous impulse across a synapse

A

neurotransmittter

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97
Q

Pertaining to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine?

A

Cholinergic

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98
Q

Pertaining to the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?

A

Adrenergic

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99
Q

drug or other substance that causes effects like those of the parasympathetic nervous system ( also called cholinergic )

A

Parasympathomimetic

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100
Q

drug or other substance that blocks or inhibits the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system ( also called anticholinergic )

A

Parasympatholytic

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101
Q

drug or other substance that causes effects like those of the sympathetic nervous system ( also called adrenergic )

A

sympathomimetic

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102
Q

drug or other substance that blocks the actions of the sympathetic nervous system ( also called antiadrenergic )

A

sympatholytic

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103
Q

drug used to treat and prevent abnormal cardiac rythms

A

antidysrhythmic

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104
Q

drug used to treat hypertension

A

antihypertensive

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105
Q

_______ is effective in the management of angina pectoris as it decreases cardiac work

A

Nitroglycerin

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106
Q

The stoppage of bleeding

A

hemostasis

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107
Q

drug that decreases the formation of platelet plugs

A

antiplatelet

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108
Q

drug that interrupts the clotting cascade

A

anticoagulant

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109
Q

drug that acts directly on thrombi to break them down ; also called thrombolytic

A

fibrinolytic

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110
Q

drug used to treat high blood cholesterol

A

antihyperlipidemic

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111
Q

agent that kills or decreases the growth of bacteria

A

antibiotic

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112
Q

Measures to decrease your risk of exposure to blood and body fluids

A

Standard precautions

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113
Q

A condition free of pathogens

A

Asepsis

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114
Q

Limited to one area of the body

A

Local

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115
Q

Throughout the body

A

Systemic

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116
Q

Free of all forms of life

A

Sterile

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117
Q

Cleansing agent that destroys or inhibits pathogenic organisms and is also toxic to living tissue is?

A

Disinfectant

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118
Q

Cleansing agent that destroys or inhibits pathogenic organisms but is not toxic to living tissue is?

A

Antiseptic

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119
Q

Needle handling precautions:

A
  • Minimize tasks in a moving ambulance.
  • Properly dispose of all sharps
  • Recap needles only as a last resort
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120
Q

You must record all information concerning the patient and the medication including:

A
  • indications for drug administration
  • dosage and route delivered
  • patient response to the medication - both + and -
121
Q

Percutaneous medications are applied and absorbed through?

A

The skin and mucous membranes

122
Q

Absorbed through the skin?

A

Transdermal

123
Q

Percutaneous Routes:

A
  • Transdermal

* Mucous membrane

124
Q

Mucous Membrane Medication Sites:

A
  • Tongue
  • Cheek
  • Eye
  • Nose
  • Ear
125
Q

Beneath the tongue

A

Sublingual

126
Q

Between the cheek and gums

A

Buccal

127
Q

Sources of drug information:

A
  • United states Pharmacopeia (USP)
  • Physicians’ Desk
  • Drug information
  • Monthly Prescribing Reference
  • AMA Drug Evaluation
128
Q

The way in which a drug causes its effects; its pharmacodynamics

A

Mechanism of Action

129
Q

Conditions that make administration of the drug appropriate ( as approved by the Food and Drug Administration).

A

Indication

130
Q

Conditions that make it inappropriate to give the drug.

A

Contraindications

( a contraindication means that a predictable harmful event will occur if the drug is given in this situation )

131
Q

Drugs given _________ must first survive the digestive process before being absorbed across the mucosa of the gastrointestinal system.

A

Orally ( enterally )

132
Q

Once a drug has entered _________, it must be distributed throughout the body?

A

Bloodstream

133
Q

Most drugs will pass easily from the bloodstream, through the ________, into target cells.

A

Interstitial spaces

134
Q

Some drugs however, will bind to _________ found in the blood, commonly ___________, and remain in the body for a prolonged time.

A
  1. protein

2. Albumin

135
Q

Changing the bloodstream’s _______ can affect the protein-binding action of a drug.

A

pH

136
Q

Drugs are metabolized, or broken down into different chemicals

A

Metabolites

137
Q

The special name given to the metabolism of drugs is?

A

biotransformation

138
Q

This ______________ is why some drugs cannot be given orally but instead must be given intravenously to bypass the GI tract and prevent first-pass hepatic metabolism.

A

first-pass effect

139
Q

Most drugs ( toxins and metabolites ) are excreted in the _______. Some are excreted in the feces or in expired air.

A

Urine

140
Q

Enteral Routes:

A
  • Oral (PO)
  • Orogastric/nasogastric tube (OG/NG)
  • Sublingual (SL)
  • Buccal
  • Rectal (PR)
141
Q

Parenteral Routes:

A
  • Intravenous (IV)
  • Endotracheal (ET)
  • Intraosseus (IO)
  • Intramuscular (IM)
  • Subcutaneous (SC, SQ, SubQ)
  • Inhalation/nebulized
142
Q

Drug forms: Solid form

A
  • pills
  • powders
  • tablets
  • suppositories
  • Capsules
143
Q

Drug Forms: Liquid drugs

A
  • Solutions
  • Tinctures
  • Suspensions
  • Emulsions
  • spirits
  • Elixirs
  • Syrups
144
Q

A drug’s pharmacodynamics also involve its ability to cause the expected response or ________

A

efficacy

145
Q

length of time the amount of drug remains above its minimum effective concentration?

A

duration of action

146
Q

controls voluntary, or motor functions?

A

somatic nervous system

147
Q

controls involuntary or automatic functions, is further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system

148
Q

The prototype opioid drug is?

A

Morphine

149
Q

As a group tend to cause respiratory, central nervous system (CNS) and cardiovascular depression?

A

Anesthetics

150
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents such as _________ are used to induce paralysis.

A

Succinylcholine

151
Q

The gaseous anesthetics given by inhalation incude, halothane, enflurane and?

A

Nitrous oxide

152
Q

widely used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, has a very low therapeutic index?

A

Lithium

153
Q

Medications that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system are?

A

sympathomimetics

154
Q

Medications that inhibit the sympathetic nervous system are called?

A

sympatholytics

155
Q

The sympathetic nervous system releases ___________ from the postganglionic end terminals and ___________ from the adrenal medulla.

A
  1. norepinephrine

2. epinephrine

156
Q

________ is also called adrenalin because of its release from the adrenal medulla.

A

Epinephrine

157
Q

The primary clinical purpose for medications that stimulate alpha 1 receptors is?

A

vaso-constriction

158
Q

alpha 1

A
  • constriction - arterioles
  • constriction - veins
  • Mydriasis - eye
  • Ejaculation - penis
159
Q

Beta 1

A
  • increased heart rate
  • increased conductivity
  • increased automacity
  • increased contractility
  • renin release
160
Q

Beta 2

A
  • bronchodilation - Lungs
  • dilation - arterioles
  • inhibition of contractions - uterus
  • tremors - skeletal muscles
161
Q

drug administered through the mucous membranes of the eye

A

Ocular medication

162
Q

drug administered through the mucous membranes of the nose

A

nasal medication

163
Q

drug administered through the mucous membranes of the ear and ear canal

A

aural medication

164
Q

special medications can be administered into the pulmonary system via?

A

Inhalation or injection

165
Q

drawing of medication into the lungs along with air during breathing

A

inhalation

166
Q

placement of medication in or under the skin with a needle and syringe

A

injection

167
Q

inhalation aid that disperses liquid into aerosol spray or mist

A

nebulizer

168
Q

Pulmonary medication mechanisms

A
  • Nebulizer
  • Metered-dose inhaler
  • Endotracheal tube
169
Q

To administer a drug with a nebulizer, follow these steps:

A
  • Puts medication in reservoir, if medication is not diluted combine with 3 to 5 ml sterile saline solution.
  • Set oxygen source regulator for 5 to 8 L per minute
170
Q

handheld device that produces a medicated spray for inhalation

A

metered-dose inhaler

171
Q

Endotracheal Medications:

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Epinephrine
  • Atropine
  • Naloxone (Narcan)
172
Q

When using an ET tube you must increase conventional IV dosage from?

A

2 to 2 1/2 times

173
Q

The delivery of any medication that is taken by mouth and swallowed into the lower gastrointestinal tract

A

oral drug administration

174
Q

Medications for oral delivery come in a variety of forms, either _______ or _________.

A

solid or liquid

175
Q

contain liquid, dry or beaded medication in a soluble casing

A

Capsules

176
Q

comprised of medicated powder compressed into small,solid disk

A

tablets

177
Q

comprised of medicated powder compressed into small disk, are the same as tablets.

A

Pills

178
Q

liquid medications combined with alcohol or placed in a sweetened fluid

A

Elixirs

179
Q

a liquid that contains small particles of solid medication

A

Suspensions

180
Q

change in a medications chemical composition that occurs in the liver

A

hepatic alteration

181
Q

a liquid bolus of medication that is injected into the rectum

A

enema

182
Q

concentrated mass of medication

A

bolus

183
Q

drug administration outside of the gastrointestinal tract

A

parenteral

184
Q

plastic tube with which liquid medications can be drawn up, stored, and injected

A

syringe

185
Q

a hollow metal tube used with the syringe to administer medications

A

hypodermic needle

186
Q

types of parenteral drug containers include:

A
  • glass ampules
  • single and multidose vials
  • prefilled syringes
  • intravenous medication fluids
187
Q

Ampules usually range in volume from?

A

1 to 5 ml

188
Q

vial with 2 containers, one holding a powdered medication and the other holding a liquid mixing solution

A

nonconstituted drug vial / Mix-o-Vial

189
Q

syringe packaged in a tamper-proof container with the medication already in the barrel

A

prefilled / preloaded syringe

190
Q

parenteral medication packaged in an IV bag and administered as an IV infusion

A

medicated solution

191
Q

within the dermal layer of the skin

A

intradermal

192
Q

___________ injections deposit medication into the dermal layer of the skin

A

intradermal

193
Q

relating to the layer of loose connective tissue between the skin and muscle

A

subcutaneous

194
Q

To administer an intradermal, you will need the following equipment:

A
  • Tuberculin syringe ( 1ml )

* 25 to 27 gauge needle 3/8 to 1 inch

195
Q

To perform a subcutaneous injection you will need the following equipment:

A
  • syringe ( 1 to 3 mL )
  • 24 to 26 gauge hypodermic needle 3/8 to 1 inch long
  • gently pinch a 1- inch fold of skin
  • insert at 45 degree angle
196
Q

Injections deposit medication into the muscle how?

A

intramuscular

197
Q

surgical puncture of a vein to deliver medication or withdraw blood

A

intravenous access ( cannulation )

198
Q

__________ are chemically prepared solutions tailored to the bodys specific needs

A

intravenous fluids

199
Q

intravenous solutions that contain electrolytes but lack the larger proteins associated with colloids

A

crystalloid

200
Q

intravenous solutions containing large proteins that cannot pass through capillary membrranes

A

colloids

201
Q

state in which solutions on opposite sides of a semipermeable membrane are in equal concentration

A

isotonic

202
Q

flexible, clear plastic tubing that connects the solution bag to the IV cannula

A

administration tubing

203
Q

hollow needle used to puncture a vein

A

cannula

204
Q

administration tubing that delivers a relatively small amount of fluid

A

microdrip tubing

205
Q

administration tubing that delivers a relatively large amount of fluid

A

macrodrip tubing

206
Q

Mechanisms that cause Edema:

A
  • decrease in plasma oncotic force
  • increase in plasma oncotic force
  • increase in capillary permeability
  • lymphatic channel obstruction
207
Q

Respirations down CO2 up =

A

Respiratory acidosis

208
Q

Respirations up CO2 down =

A

Respiratory alkalosis

209
Q

When cells don’t get enough oxygen they change from aerobic to?

A

Anaerobic

210
Q

Hypoxic cells start producing?

A

Lactic acids

211
Q

Mechanism of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 1 - IGE mediated allergen reactions

212
Q

L E A N ( pediatrics )

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Epinephrine
  • Atropine
  • Naloxone ( Narcan )
213
Q

N A V E L ( adults )

A
  • Naloxone ( Narcan )
  • Atropine
  • Vasopressin
  • Epinephrine
  • Lidocaine
214
Q

The prototype opioid drug is?

A

Morphine

215
Q

Several of ____________ effects make it useful for clinical practice.

A

Morphine

216
Q

At therapeutic doses , __________ causes analgesia, euphoria, sedation, and miosis (pupil constriction). It also decreases cardiac preload and afterload, which makes it useful in treating myocardial infarction and pulmonary edema.

A

Morphine

217
Q

_______ ________ _______ stimulates specific receptors that decrease the heart rate.

A

Sympathetic nervous system

218
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates specific receptors that ________ the heart rate?

A

Decrease

219
Q

__________ is utilized in the preganglionic nerves of the sympathetic nervous system and in both the preganglionic and postganglionic nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Acetylcholine

220
Q

__________ is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system.

A

Norepinephrine

221
Q

Synapses that use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter are _______ synapse.

A

Cholinergic

222
Q

Synapse that use norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter are ________ synapse

A

Adrenergic

223
Q

The parasympathetic system uses ________ as a neurotransmitter

A

Acetylcholine

224
Q

Medications that stimulate receptors specialized for acetylcholine are termed ________ _________ aka
____________________.

A

Cholinergic receptors

Parasympathomimetics

225
Q

The prototype direct-acting cholinergic is?

A

Bethanechol ( Urecholine )

226
Q

Bethanechol pharmacokinetics make it a good clinical substitute for?

A

Acetylcholine

227
Q

___________ agents oppose the parasympathetic ( cholinergic ) nervous system.

A

Anticholinergic

228
Q

Buccal medications are generally what type?

A

Tablets

229
Q

Equipment for oral administration is:

A
  • soufflé cup
  • medicine cup
  • medicine dropper
  • teaspoon
  • oral syringe
230
Q

A paper or plastic cup to place solid medication in to make it easy to see and minimizes contact with providers hands is?

A

Soufflé cup

231
Q

A plastic or glass cup with volume measurements on the side is?

A

Medicine cup

232
Q

Has markings for measuring liquid volumes, used for special medications and to administer medications to children

A

Medicine dropper

233
Q

Accurately sized to administer liquid medications, normally holds 5 ML of fluid

A

Teaspoon

234
Q

The most accurate way to administer liquid based medications

A

Oral syringe

235
Q

The deltoid muscle is 3 to 4 finger-breadths below the acromial process ( the bony bump on the shoulder) you can deliver up to how much medication into this muscle?

A

2.0 mL

236
Q

The dorsal gluteal muscle or buttock is a common site for intramuscular injections. How much medication can be delivered?

A

5.0 mL or more

237
Q

The Vastus lateralis muscle of the thigh is another common site for intramuscular injection, especially for pediatric patients. How much medication can be delivered?

A

5.0 mL or more

238
Q

The rectus femoris lies over the femur and is closely associated with the Vastus lateralis muscle. How much medication can be delivered?

A

Up to 5.0 mL

239
Q

Over-the-needle Catheter often called the?

A

Angiocatheter

240
Q

Stylet that does not have a Teflon tube but is itself inserted into the vein and secured there is called?

A

Hollow-needle catheter

241
Q

Teflon catheter inserted through a large metal stylet is called?

A

Catheter inserted through the needle ( intracatheter )

242
Q

Never constrict arterial blood flow with the constricting band and never leave it in place longer than ?

A

2 minutes

243
Q

IV trouble shooting

A
  • constricting band still in place?
  • edema at puncture site?
  • cannula abutting vein wall or valve?
  • administration set control valves closed?
  • IV bag to low?
  • completely filled drip chamber?
244
Q

A foreign protein capable of producing fever is?

A

Pyrogen

245
Q

A foreign particle in the blood?

A

Embolus

246
Q

An excess in intravascular fluid volume?

A

Circulatory overload

247
Q

Inflammation of the vein

A

Thrombophlebitis

248
Q

A blood clot?

A

Thrombus

249
Q

Air in the vein is ?

A

Air embolism

250
Q

The sloughing off of dead tissue is?

A

Necrosis

251
Q

A drug that inhibits blood clotting is?

A

Anticoagulant

252
Q

A surgically implanted port that permits repeated access to central venous circulation is?

A

Venous access device

253
Q

A gravity flow device that regulates fluid’s passage through an electromechanical pump is?

A

Infusion controller

254
Q

A device that delivers fluids and medications under positive pressure is?

A

Infusion pump

255
Q

Do not attempt IO placement in the following situations:

A
  • fracture to the tibia or femur on the side of access
  • osteogenesis imperfect a - a congenital disease
  • osteoporosis
  • establishment of a peripheral IV line
256
Q

The presence of gas or air in the pleural cavity

A

Pneumothorax

257
Q

What is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

A

Tongue

258
Q

Removing a tube from a body opening is called what?

A

Extubation

259
Q

What is the most commonly aspirated material?

A

Vomitus

260
Q

Asymmetrical movement in the chest wall is a sign of paradoxical breathing and could suggest what?

A

Flail chest

261
Q

Assymetrical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency is called what?

A

Paradoxical breathing

262
Q

Defect in the chest wall that allows a segment to move freely, causing paradoxical chest wall motion is what?

A

Flail chest

263
Q

Bluish discoloration of the skin is called what?

A

Cyanosis

264
Q

An abnormality of breathing rate, pattern, or effort is what?

A

Dyspnea

265
Q

Oxygen deficiency

A

Hypoxia

266
Q

Forceful exhalation of a large volume of air from the Lungs. Performs a protective function in expelling foreign material from the lungs.

A

Coughing

267
Q

Sudden forceful exhalation from the nose

A

Sneezing

268
Q

Sudden inspiration caused by spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm with spastic closure of the glottis

A

Hiccoughing ( hiccups )

269
Q

Slow, deep, involuntary inspiration followed by a prolonged expiration

A

Sighing

270
Q

Deep, slow or rapid, gasping breathing, commonly found in ketoacidosis

A

Kussmaul’s respirations

271
Q

Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing indicating brainstem injury

A

Cheyne stokes respirations

272
Q

Results from partial obstruction of the upper airway by the tongue

A

Snoring

273
Q

Results from the accumulation of blood, vomitus, or other secretions in the upper airway

A

Gurgling

274
Q

A harsh, high pitched sound heard on inhalation associated with laryngeal edema or constriction

A

Stridor

275
Q

A musical, squeaking or whistling sound heard in inspiration and / or expiration, associated with bronchiolar constriction

A

Wheezing

276
Q

Diminished or absent breath sounds are an ominous finding and indicate a serious problem with the airway, breathing or both

A

Quiet

277
Q

A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration, associated with fluid in the smaller bronchioles

A

Crackles ( rales )

278
Q

A course, rattling noise heard on inspiration, associated with inflammation, mucus or fluid in the bronchioles

A

Rhonchi

279
Q

A measurement of hemoglobin oxygen saturation in the peripheral tissue

A

Pulse oximetry

280
Q

A recording or display of the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide concentrations

A

Capnography

281
Q

An uncuffed tube that follows the natural curvature of the nasopharynx, passing through the nose and extending from the nostril to the posterior pharynx

A

Nasopharyngeal airway

282
Q

Do not use ________ _________ in patients who are predisposed to nose bleeds or who have nasal obstruction. Also, use caution when you suspect a basilar skull fracture, as the tube can inadvertently pass into the cranial vault.

A

Nasopharyngeal airway

283
Q

What is an instrument for lifting the tongue and epiglottis out of the way so that you can see the vocal chords?

A

Laryngoscope

284
Q

What is a flexible, translucent tube open at both ends and available in lengths ranging from 12 to 32 cm with cm markings along its length?

A

Endotracheal tube ( ETT )

285
Q

Scissor style clamps with circular tips

A

Magill forceps

286
Q

Advantages of the endotracheal intubation:

A
  • isolates the trachea and permits complete control of airway
  • impedes gastric distention by channeling air directly into the trachea
  • eliminates the need to maintain a mask seal
  • offers a direct route for suctioning of the respiratory passages
  • permits admin of medicine ( LEAN ) via the ET tube
287
Q

Disadvantages of the ET tube:

A
  • technique requires considerable training and experience
  • requires special equipment
  • requires direct visualization of the vocal chords
  • bypasses the upper airway’s function of warming, filtering and humidifying the inhaled air
288
Q

To blow into

A

Insufflate

289
Q

To avoid hypoxia during intubation, limit each intubation attempt to no more than ________ before reoxygenating the patient.

A

30 sec

290
Q

Esophageal intubation is ________ if nits not recognized immediately

A

Lethal

291
Q

Giving medications to sedate and temporarily paralyze a patient and then performing orotracheal intubation is called what?

A

Rapid-sequence intubation ( RSI )

292
Q

The preferred neuromuscular blocking agent for emergency RSI is what?

A

Succinylcholine

293
Q

Common paralytic agents are:

A
  • succinylcholine
  • Vecuronium
  • Atracurium
  • Pancuronium
294
Q

Guidelines for using succinylcholine include:

A
  • dose 1.5 mg/kg, IV bolus in adults ; 2.0 mg/kg IV bolus in children less than 10 yrs old
  • onset of action: 60 to 90 sec
  • duration: 3 to 5 min
  • contraindications: penetrating eye injuries, pt’s with burns greater than 8 hrs duration, massive crush injuries and neurologic injuries greater than 1 wk out
295
Q

Describes the lengths of onset, duration and termination of action, as well as the drugs minimum effective concentration and toxic levels.

A

Plasma-level profile

296
Q

Primary drug for SVT , had a 1/2 life of 5 to 10 sec, pushed very fast.

A

Adenocard / Adenosine

297
Q

Calcium channel blocker used for SVT

A

Cardizem/ Diltiazem

298
Q

Potassium channel blocker “ indicated “ for SVT & ventricular arrhythmias

A

Amiodarone/ Cordarone

299
Q

Sodium channel blocker “the drug of choice” for V-Tach/V-Fib

A

Lidocaine

300
Q

Increases HR due to Anticholinergic

A

Atropine

301
Q

An inhaled Anticholinergic that relaxes bronchial smooth muscles causing bronchodilaton

A

Atrovent/Ipratropium

Paramedic Phase 1 Test 2 (2 decks)

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