CHAP 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What measures the return earned on each dollar invested by the firm in assets?

A

Return on asset (ROA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What captures the return generated by a firm’s operating and investing activities, without regard for how these activities are financed?

A

Return on asset (ROA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What roughly measures the average amount of time from when cash enters the process as cost to when it returns as collected revenue?

A

Cash to cash (C2C) cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two important financial measures of supply chain performance that are not recorded in financial statements?

A

Markdowns and lost sales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the logistical drivers?

A

Facilities
Inventory
Transportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the cross functional drivers?

A

Information
Sourcing
Pricing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Do the logistical and cross functions drivers act independently?

A

They DO NOT act independently but interact to determine the overall supply chain performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can vastly improve the supply chain performance on both responsiveness and efficiency?

A

Information but it must be made based on the strategic position supported by the other drivers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be used to attract the right target customer segment?

A

Pricing
Differential pricing can be used to attract customers who value responsiveness as well as customers who want efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

actual physical locations in the supply chain network where product is stored, fabricated, or assembled. What logistical driver is this?

A

Facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two major types of facilities sites?

A

production sites and storage sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Firms can ____responsiveness by_____ the number of facilities, making them more flexible, or increasing capacity

A

Increase; increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Firms must also decide whether to design a facility with a _____ focus or a _____ focus.

A

Product focus or a functional focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Facility performs all functions (e.g., fabrication and assembly) needed for producing a single type of product.What type of facility design is this?

A

product-focused facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

performs a given set of functions (e.g., fabrication or assembly) on many types of products. What type of facility design is this?

A

Functional focused facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Deciding where a company will locate its facilities constitutes a large part of the design of a supply chain. A basic trade-off here is whether to _____ to gain economies of scale or to ______ to become more responsive by being closer to the customer.

A

Centralize; decentralize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A facility with little excess capacity will likely be____ efficient per unit it produces than one with a lot of ___ capacity.

A

More ; unused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

company must make a ____to determine the____ amount of capacity and _____to have at each of its facilities.

A

Trade-off; right; flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Given the location, capacity, and flexibility of facilities, the allocation of geographic markets and products to facilities should be revisited at least _______ as market conditions change.

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What measures the maximum amount a facility can process?

A

Capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What measures the fraction of capacity that is currently being used in the facility?

A

Utlization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What measures the fraction of capacity that is currently being used in the facility. Utilization affects both the unit cost of processing and the associated delays. Unit costs tend to decline (PPET increases) and delays increase with increasing utilization?

A

Processing/setup/down/idle time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

measure the fraction of production lost as a result of defects.

A

Quality losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Quality losses hurt both ______ and ______

A

Financial performance ; responsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

measures the average cost to produce a unit of output. These costs may be measured per unit, per case, or per pound, depending on the product.

A

Production cost per unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

measures the time required to process a unit if there are absolutely no delays at any stage

A

Theoretical flow/cycle time of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what measures the average actual time taken for all units processed over a specified duration, such as a week or a month?

A

Actual average flow/cycle time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The actual flow/cycle time includes the _____time and any ____. This metric should be used when setting due dates for orders

A

Theoretical; delays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What measures the number of products or product families processed in a facility?

A

product variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Processing ___and ____ are likely to increase with product variety.

A

costs; flow times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

measures the fraction of total volume processed by a facility that comes from the top 20 percent of SKUs or customers. An 80/20 outcome, in which the top 20 percent contribute 80 percent of volume, indicates likely benefits from focusing the facility so separate processes are used to process the top 20 percent and the remaining 80 percent

A

Volume contribution of top 20 percent SKUs and customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

measures the average amount produced in each production batch. Large batch sizes will decrease production cost but increase inventories.

A

Average production batch size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

measures the fraction of production orders completed on time and in full.

A

Production service level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What encompasses all raw materials, work in process, and finished goods within a supply chain?

A

Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Material flow time?

A

is the time that elapses between when material enters the supply chain to when it exits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the average amount of inventory used to satisfy demand between receipts of supplier shipments?

A

Cycle inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is inventory held in case demand exceeds expectation; it is held to counter uncertainty?

A

Safety inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is is built up to counter predictable seasonal variability in demand?

A

Seasonal inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Companies using seasonal inventory buildup inventory in periods of ____ demand and store it for periods of ____ demand, when they will not have the capacity to produce all that is demanded

A

Low; high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the fraction of demand that is served on time from product held in inventory?

A

Level of product availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a high-level metric that includes inventories, accounts payable, and receivables?

A

C2C cycle time

42
Q

What measures the average amount of inventory carried?

A

Average inventory

43
Q

Average inventory should be measured in ___, ___ of demand, and ___ value

A

Units, days, financial

44
Q

What measures the number of times inventory turns over in a year. It is the ratio of average inventory to either the cost of goods sold or sales?

A

Inventory turns

45
Q

What identifies the products for which the firm is carrying a high level of inventory?This metric can be used to identify products that are in oversupply or to identify reasons that justify the high inventory, such as price discounts or a product being a very slow mover.

A

Products with more than a specified number of days of inventory

46
Q

What measures the average amount in each replenishment order? The batch size should be measured by SKU in terms of both units and days of demand. It can be estimated by averaging over time the difference between the maximum and the minimum inventory (measured in each replenishment cycle) on hand

A

Average replenishment batch size

47
Q

What measures the average amount of inventory on hand when a replenishment order arrives?

A

Average safety inventory

48
Q

Average safety inventory should be measured by ____in both ____and ____ of demand. It can be estimated by averaging over time the minimum inventory on hand in each replenishment cycle.

A

SKU, UNITS AND DAYS

49
Q

What measures the amount by which the inflow of product exceeds its sales (beyond cycle and safety inventory)?

A

Seasonal inventory

50
Q

Seasonal inventory is built up solely to deal with anticipated spikes in _____.

A

Demand

51
Q

What measures the fraction of orders/demand that is met on time from inventory?

A

Fill rate

52
Q

Fill rate should be averaged not over ___but over a specified number of ___ of ___ (say, every thousand or million).

A

Time, units , demand

53
Q

What measures the fraction of time that a particular SKU had zero inventory?This fraction can be used to estimate the lost sales during the stockout period.

A

Fraction of time out of stock

54
Q

What measures the fraction of inventory older than a specified obsolescence date?

A

Obsolete inventory

55
Q

What entails moving inventory from point to point in the supply chain?

A

Transportation

56
Q

What is the collection of transportation modes, locations, and routes along which product can be shipped?

A

Transportation network

57
Q

What are the transportation modes?

A

air, truck, rail, sea, and pipeline

58
Q

What typically measures the cost of bringing product in to a facility? Ideally, this cost should be measured per unit brought in, but it is often measured as a percentage of sales or COGS. The inbound transportation cost is generally included in COGS. It is useful to measure this cost separately for each supplier.

A

Average inbound transportation cost

59
Q

What measures the average number of units or dollars in each incoming shipment at a facility?

A

Average incoming shipment size

60
Q

What measures the average transportation cost of each incoming delivery? Along with the incoming shipment size, this metric identifies opportunities for greater economies of scale in inbound transportation.

A

Average inbound transportation cost per shipment

61
Q

What measures the cost of sending product out of a facility to the customer? Ideally, this cost should be measured per unit shipped, but it is often measured as a percentage of sales. It is useful to separate this metric by customer.

A

Average outbound transportation cost

62
Q

What measures the average number of units or dollars on each outbound shipment at a facility?

A

Average outbound shipment size

63
Q

What measures the average transportation cost of each outgoing delivery?Along with the outgoing shipment size, this metric identifies opportunities for greater economies of scale in outbound transportation.

A

Average outbound transportation cost per shipment

64
Q

What measures the fraction of transportation (in units or dollars) using each mode of transportation? This metric can be used to estimate whether certain modes are over used or under used.

A

Fraction transported by mode

65
Q

What consists of data and analysis concerning facilities, inventory, transportation, costs, prices, and customers throughout the supply chain?

A

Information

66
Q

What is potentially the biggest driver of performance in the supply chain because it directly affects each of the other drivers?

A

Information

67
Q

important to evaluate the _____ information required to accomplish the desired objectives

A

Minimum

68
Q

What is the process of generating the best estimate of future demand based on historical sales, planned marketing and promotion efforts, and other factors such as the economy and the competition?

A

Demand planning

69
Q

good demand plan must include an estimation of _____.

A

Forecast error

70
Q

What occurs when all stages of a supply chain work toward the objective of maximizing total supply chain profitability based on shared information?

A

Supply chain coordination

71
Q

What is the process of creating an overall supply plan (production and inventories) to meet the anticipated level of demand (sales)?

A

Sales and operations planning (S&OP)

72
Q

What is the goal Sales and operations planning (S&OP)?

A

is to come up with an agreed-upon sales, production, and inventory plan that can be used to plan supply chain needs and project revenues and profits

73
Q

What identifies how far in advance of the actual event a forecast is made?

A

Forecast horizon

74
Q

The forecast horizon must be ____________ to the lead time of the decision that is driven by the forecast.

A

Greater than or equal

75
Q

What identifies how frequently each forecast is updated. The forecast should be updated somewhat more frequently than a decision will be revisited, so large changes can be flagged and corrective action take

A

Frequency of update

76
Q

What measures the difference between the forecast and actual demand?

A

Forecast error

77
Q

The forecast error is a measure of _____ and drives all responses to uncertainty, such as___inventory or ____ capacity.

A

Uncertainty , safety ,excess

78
Q

What identifies the difference between the planned production/inventories and the actual values?These variances can be used to raise flags that identify shortages and surpluses.

A

Variance from plan

79
Q

What measures the standard deviation of incoming demand and supply orders placed?A ratio less than 1 potentially indicates the existence of the bullwhip effect,

A

Ratio of demand variability to order variability

80
Q

What is the set of business processes required to purchase goods and services?

A

Sourcing

81
Q

What is the process of obtaining goods and services within a supply chain?

A

Procurement

82
Q

What measures the number of days between when a supplier performed a supply chain task and when it was paid for that task?

A

Days payable outstanding

83
Q

What measures the average price at which a good or service was purchased during the year? The average should be obtained by weighting each price by the quantity purchased at that price.

A

Average purchase price

84
Q

What measures the fluctuation in purchase price during a specified period?The goal is to identify if the quantity purchased correlated with the price

A

Range of purchase price

85
Q

What measures the average amount purchased per order? The goal is to identify whether a sufficient level of aggregation is occurring across locations when placing an order.

A

Average purchase quantity

86
Q

What measures the quality of product supplied?

A

Supply quality

87
Q

What measures the average time between when an order is placed and when the product arrives?

A

Supply lead time

88
Q

Long lead times ____responsiveness and add to the inventory the supply chain must carry.

A

Reduce

89
Q

What measures the fraction of deliveries from the supplier that were on time?

A

Percentage of on-time deliveries

90
Q

What measures the variability of the supplier’s lead time as well as the delivered quantity relative to plan? Poor supplier reliability hurts responsiveness and adds to the amount of inventory the supply chain must carry.

A

Supplier reliability

91
Q

What measures profit as a percentage of revenue?

A

Profit margin

92
Q

What measures the average time between when a sale is made and when the cash is collected?

A

Days sales outstanding

93
Q

What measures the incremental costs that are independent of the size of the order? These include changeover costs at a manufacturing plant or order processing or transportation costs that are incurred independent of shipment size at a mail-order firm.

A

Incremental fixed cost per order

94
Q

What measures the incremental costs that vary with the size of the order?These include picking costs at a mail-order firm or variable production costs at a manufacturing plant.

A

Incremental variable cost per unit

95
Q

What measures the average price at which a supply chain activity was performed in a given period? The average should be obtained by weighting the price with the quantity sold at that price.

A

Average sale price

96
Q

What measures the average quantity per order? The average sale price, order size, incremental fixed cost per order, and incremental variable cost per unit help estimate the contribution from performing the supply chain activity.

A

Average order size

97
Q

What measures the maximum and the minimum of sale price per unit over a specified time horizon?

A

Range of sale price

98
Q

What measures the maximum and minimum of the quantity sold per period (day/week/month) during a specified time horizon. The goal is to understand any correlation between sales and price and any potential opportunity to shift sales by changing price over time.

A

Range of periodic sales

99
Q

____ affects both the unit cost of processing and the associated delays. Unit costs tend to decline (PPET increases) and delays increase with ____.

A

Utilization; increasing utilization

100
Q

Based on the class lecture PPT cycle inventory is considered to fall under what?

A

Convienience

101
Q

Based on the class lecture PPT, seasonal inventory would fall under?

A

Unstable demand

102
Q

Based on the class lecture, safety inventory would fall under?

A

Randomness