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Challenge Bowl > Challenge Bowl > Flashcards

Challenge Bowl Flashcards

1
Q

3 Classes of drugs that can be used for PUD

A

PPI
H2RA
Sucralfate

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2
Q

The existence of this Hep requires the coexistence of Hep B

A

Hep D

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3
Q

2 different test to dx bacterial ulcer disease

A

Urea breath test and Stool antigen

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4
Q

Rash w/herald patch and christmas tree distribution

A

Pityriasis Rosea

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5
Q

1st line treatment for AOM for bilateral w/o otorrhea in 5 mo old

A

Amoxicillin 80-90mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses and pain management (APAP/ibuprofen)

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6
Q

Define CO

A

HR*SV

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7
Q

Toddler with scratch on lips, and now there’s a yellowish golden scalp over the scratch

A

Impetigo

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8
Q

Abdominal pain in RLQ after deep palpation in LLQ

A

Rovsing’s Sign

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9
Q

H. pylori regimen

A

> 2 antibiotics and antisecretory drug (PPI/H2RA)

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10
Q

Study of action of drugs on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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11
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Dependent collapse of the alveolar sac

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12
Q

Define a heave

A

Pulsation felt due to a distention of an underlying structure

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13
Q

Most sensitive instument for detection of gallstones

A

US

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14
Q

3 parenteral routes of drug administration

A

IV, IM, sublingual, SQ, transdermal, rectal, intranasal

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15
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

A clot that is formed at the site in the vessels

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16
Q

What % of body is burnt in anterior chest and entire left arm?

A

27%

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17
Q

Clear and consice reason for a pt seeking care is what?

A

Chief complaint

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18
Q

Which generation of Cephs has the best gram - coverage?

A

3/4th generation

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19
Q

What FQ has the best activity against Pseudomonas?

A

Cipro

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20
Q

Common complaint with varicella is pruritus? T/F

A

True

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21
Q

Bradycardia is definedd as a HR < how many beats?

A

<60

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22
Q

Which skin cancer is the most likely to metastasize

A

Melanoma

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23
Q

What initial therapy is recommended when sinusitis begins?

A

Antipyretic, Analgesics, nasal irrigation, hydration, +/- intranasal corticosteriod

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24
Q

Which lab test is best used to monitor for long term nutritional status?

A

Albumin

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25
Q

What should you instruct your patient to take w/each dose of metamucil and why?

A

8oz. of water so it doesn’t get impacted

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26
Q

Name on organism that causes walking pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasm

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27
Q

When treating anaphylaxis which med has fastest onset of action?

A

EPI, middle is antihistamine, slowest is corticosteriod

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28
Q

On which structure is an acoustic neruoma located?

A

CN VIII (8)

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29
Q

What two advantages do 2nd generation antihistamines have over 1st generation antihistamines?

A

Less sedation and less anticholinergic effects

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30
Q

Two most common nutrition vitamin deficiencies with ETOH dependence?

A

Thiamine and Vit B12, Vit K, folic acid

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31
Q

Why do you need to use caution when prescribing cimetidine in a patient on other medications?

A

CYP Inhibitor - will increase the serum levels of other medications

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32
Q

Listening to pt heart sound, suspicious for aortic stenosis; what would happen to heart sound if you listen when the patient stands up?

A

It gets softer

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33
Q

What is the treatment recommendation for uncomplicated HTN?

A

Thiazide diuretic

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of death following an MI

A

Arryhthmia

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35
Q

What can be used to treat AOM with ammoxicillin allergy?

A

Ceftriaxone, cefdinir, cefuroxime, ceptidoxine

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36
Q

What are 2 of the 3 core competencies that you can bring to a pt as a provider

A

Empathy, Genuine, Respect

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37
Q

What is the most effective drug tx for tx of persistent or moderate allergic rhinitis

A

Intranasal corticosteriod

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38
Q

The rash of rubella starts on which part of the body?

A

Head or face

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39
Q

Proclorperazine and metoclopromide can cause what type of side effect

A

EPSE

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40
Q

Is erosion a primary or secondary lesion when describing derm findings?

A

Secondary

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41
Q

What is the treatment of choice for acute constipation in adults

A

Bisacodyl

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42
Q

The atrial rate in a flutter is approx between how many BPM

A

250-300

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43
Q

Which lipid lowering agents lowers LDL and TG, increases HDL, and often causes flushing

A

Nicotinic Acid

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44
Q

What is the MC sx associated with MVP

A

Asymptomatic

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45
Q

What labs are used to monitor warfarin and UFH?

A

Warfarin: INR
UFH: aPPT

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46
Q

What are the 2 pleural linings called?

A

Visceral and Parietal

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47
Q

How many half lives does it take to reach steady state

A

5

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48
Q

What is the major intracellular cation

A

K+

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49
Q

2 Minor Jones criteria for endocarditis (rheumatic)?

A

Fever, prolonged PR interval, arthralgia, increased CRP, ESR, evidence of +strep culture, antigen test, elevated antibody titer

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50
Q

How much K+ should be in IV fluid for 50kg pt?

A

?

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51
Q

COPD, pneumovac, when should she be revaccinated?

A

Pneumovac at age of diagnosis, revaccinated at age 65; older than 65 if it has been greater than 5 years since last dose

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52
Q

Pathologic process for acute appendicitis?

A

Obstruction of lumen. (fecolith)

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53
Q

What med should a pt with persistent asthma be on

A

ICS, SAB2A PRN

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54
Q

Massive hemoptysis w/advance liver disease is most likely assoc with what condition

A

Esophageal varicies

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55
Q

Recommended tx for moderate acne

A

PO antibiotics +/- Benzoyl peroxide

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56
Q

Psoriasis MC affects the flexor surfaces of elbows and knees? T/F?

A

False

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57
Q

What 3 bacterial should be treated with more than one abx

A

H.pylori, pseudomonas, enterococcus

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58
Q

What would be the percussion note heard over the area of a consollidation in the lung?

A

Dullness

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59
Q

Which lipid lowering agent lower TG substantially, increase HDL?

A

Fibric acid

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60
Q

List 3 possible causes of chronic cough

A

Asthma, GERD, PND, ACEI

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61
Q

Scopolimine and anticholinergic agents are suspected to show what type of AE

A

Anti SLUD: dry eyes, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation

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62
Q

What is the drug tx of choice for pityriasis rosea

A

Symptomatic, no drug

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63
Q

Which generation of FQ has the best gram + coverage

A

4th generation (respiratory FQ)

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64
Q

What is herpatic whitloe?

A

Herpatic infection of the finger

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65
Q

Name the drug classes used to treat GERD from least to most aggressive:

A

Least: Antacid, H2RA
Most: PPI

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66
Q

Which common GI diagnostic procedure should not be used with pts with acute diverticulitis

A

conoscopy

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67
Q

what is necessary after a long term of topical corticosteroids

A

Taper

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68
Q

What is an appropriate first line tx w/paroxysysmal ventricular tachycardia

A

Valsalva or carotid sinus massage

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69
Q

What is the recommended tx for anticipatory N/V?

A

Lorazepam (Benzo)

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70
Q

what are 3 conditions that cause symmetric enlargement of the abdomen?

A

Gas, fat, fluid

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71
Q

Three possible AE of topical corticosteroids

A

Acne, striae, atrophy, purpura

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72
Q

Two modifiable risk factors for heart disease

A

Exercise and diet, smoking, ETOH, decrease cholesterol, HTN

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73
Q

Which class of medication decreases gastric acid secretion the most?

A

PPI

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74
Q

What physical exam finding would you expect to hear auscultating the heart of the pt who you suspected to have an atrial septal defect?

A

A fixed split S2

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75
Q

What should the maintenance IV fluid rate be in an otherwise healthy euvolemic patient?

A

90ml/hr

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76
Q

Which lab test confirms active infection and infectivity of Hep B virus?

A

Hep B surface antigen

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77
Q

What is the recommended drug treatment for COPD management for a pt in group B?

A

SA + LA + influenza and pneumococcal vaccine

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78
Q

What are the major jones criteria

A

Carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, nodules and erythema mirginata

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79
Q

Tx of choice for highly chemo induced N/V

A

Zofran, dexamethasone

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80
Q

3 sxs of end organ damage from HTN

A

ventricular hypertrophy, AV nicking, rental failure, carotid disease, TIA

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81
Q

Which GI drug is CI in pregnancy and why?

A

Misoprostol b/c its a prostaglandin and it induces labor and causes uterine contractions

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82
Q

2nd heart sound is caused by the closer of what valves

A

Aortic and pulmonic valves

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83
Q

What should you start at the same time you prescribe a narcotic analgesic?

A

Fluids, physical activity and my need Bisacodyl (stimulate)

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84
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance causes flattening of the T waves on the EKG

A

K+

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85
Q

What is the LD goal for a pt with DM

A

<70

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86
Q

You are assessing the pt for problem drinking, you describe to them that the normal amt of alcohol in one drink is?

A

1.5 oz in a single mixed drink

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87
Q

What outcomes do ACEI have in heart failure treatment

A

Slow the progression, ventricular remodeling (BB reverse remodeling)

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88
Q

What is the name of the criteria used to predict morbidity and mortality in pancreatitis?

A

Ranson’s criteria

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89
Q

What agen can be used in diabetic gastroparesis and GERD?

A

Metocloperamide

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90
Q

What tests assess the % of bound Hgb on the RBCs?

A

O2 sat

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91
Q

What is the tx of choice for Cdiff?

A

Metronidazole

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92
Q

What are osler nodes?

A

Lesions on the hand in endocarditis

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93
Q

What are the most likely bacterial pathogens in CAP?

A

C, M, S pneumo, Legionella

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94
Q

Which ENT condition is a true emergency?

A

Epiglottitis

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95
Q

What is the recommended therapy for pregnancy induced N/V?

A

Pyridozine and Doxylamine

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96
Q

Which part of the artery do atherosclerotic lesions form

A

Intima

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97
Q

What is used to treat sever recalcitrant acne?

A

Isotretinoin

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98
Q

Which two viral Hep agents are usually transmitted by annoculation of blood?

A

B, C

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99
Q

What are the 3 MC causes of PUD?

A

MC to least: H. pylori, NSAID, Stress induced

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100
Q

Ludwigs angina is an infection of what area?

A

Between hyoid bone and floor of mouth

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101
Q

One month hx of pain and tinging in index finger. What maneuvers would you perform?

A

Tinnels, Phalens

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102
Q

Excess DA sxs?

A

Hallucination, confusion, GI (N/V), orthostasis

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103
Q

How long can sutures be left on the face?

A

3-5 days

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104
Q

Chronic back pain, decreased proprioception. What part of the spinal cord is most likely affected?

A

Posterior columns

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105
Q

Total duration of abx for complicated pyelo

A

Inpt: 14 days
Outpt: 7-10 days

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106
Q

Function of the lens

A

Focus light on retina

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107
Q

Right sided eye pain, blurred. Dendritic ulcer on Right cornea. Most likely diagnosis?

A

Herpes opthalmicus

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108
Q

What class of migraine treatment can cause chest pain in some pts

A

Triptan

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109
Q

4 risk factors for stroke?

A

HTN, age, Afib, smoking

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110
Q

Hernia MC in females

A

Direct

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111
Q

Class used to treat open angle can cause bradycardia

A

BB (Tenolol)

112
Q

Cause of legal blindness >65 yrs in the US?

A

Macular degeneration

113
Q

Features of the Smith Fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement of the distal fracture.

114
Q

what non opoid analgesic has analgesic and antipyretic effects

A

APAP

115
Q

Decreased production vs increase distruction?

A

Reticulocyte count

116
Q

T or F. Digital rectal exam has been known to reduce mortality and morbidity in colon CA

A

False

117
Q

What meds used to shorten acute MS exacerbation

A

Prednisone (corticosteroid)

118
Q

3 common sxs of lower UTI

A

Suprapubi pain, urgency, frequency

119
Q

2 test of evaluting meningial irritation?

A

Brudzinski and kernig

120
Q

Antidiabetes decreses hepatic production and rarely causes lactic acidosis

A

Metformin. Class biguanide

121
Q

Abbreviation TTP stand for?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopeic purpura

122
Q

MC ortopedics dx for joint treatment in primary care

A

OA of the knee

123
Q

Anemia of chronic renal failure tx with what agent? MC AE?

A

EPO, causes HTN

124
Q

Normal fasting BG rate?

A

70-100

125
Q

Tx maneuver for BPPV

A

Epiley maneuver. (Hallpike to dx)

126
Q

Opthalmic corticosteroid? What do you need to monitor?

A

IOP

127
Q

How is a TIA different from a stroke?

A

Duration, transiet. Resolved <24 hrs (Some say 2 hrs)

128
Q

Feature of a colle’s fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement

129
Q

AED causes hirsutism, ataxia, nystagmus?

A

Phenytoin (PHT)

130
Q

Causes of epididymitis in men <35 vs older men?

A

Men whores :)

STI’s

131
Q

Pt suffers trauma to the knee, laxity of valgus stress. What injury likely to sustain?

A

MCL tear

132
Q

What 3 things are recommended to slow the progression of diabetic neuropathy.

A

ACEI, BP control, BG control

133
Q

T or F. Varicose veins may results as a complication of DVT.

A

True

134
Q

What are considered first line treatment for urge incontinence?

A

Antispasmotics and oxybutynin

135
Q

What is the MC organism causing a UTI

A

E. coli

136
Q

What is the onset of typical cases of food poisoning?

A

1-8 hours after ingestion

137
Q

What is the recommended treatment for anemia, high TIBC, low ferritin, low serum iron

A

200mg elemental iron PO in 2-3 divided doses.

325mg PO TID

138
Q

Name the two coagulation pathways

A

Intrinsic and Extrinsic

139
Q

After satisfactory surgical repair of any hernia how long is traditionally recommeded to avoid heavy lifting

A

4-6wks

140
Q

Pharm therapy for obesity should be considered for patients with a BMI of what?

A

> 27 with greater than 2 obesity related risk factors or >30

141
Q

Single most important factor in obesity

A

Genetics

142
Q

Macular degeneration looses sight in what area of vision

A

Central

143
Q

Bacterial meningitis what empiric tx is recommended in 1mo to 50yo?

A

Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin

144
Q

Define thrombocytopenia

A

Low platelet count (nl 150,000-450,000)

145
Q

What % of men with elevated PSA levels are ultimately diagnoses with prostate cancer?

A

30%

146
Q

What drug class is recommended BPH when prostate is over 30 grams and when will it start to work?

A

5 alpha reducatse inhibitor (Finasteride); 6 months

147
Q

What is the danger in testicular torsion

A

Losing a testicle; infarction

148
Q

T or F. Verbal orders are commonly used and are acceptable.

A

False, 25% of error

149
Q

Name the insulin with the longest action

A

Glargine

150
Q

What is the goal of tx fo all movement D/Os

A

To restor normal function and improve QOL

151
Q

Name 4 symptoms of concussion

A

N/V/HA/amnesia, fogginess, difficulty concentrating, easily confused, difficulty remembering, lack of energy, dizziness, balance difficulties, mood changes, irritability

152
Q

What class of antidiabetic delays carbohydrate absorption and helps with posprandial hyperglycemia

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

153
Q

Leading worldwide cause of microcytic anemia in children

A

Iron deficiency due to parasitic infections

154
Q

MC presenting sign of hodgkins dz

A

Painless lymphadenopathy

155
Q

Which type of NSAID decreases GI AE?

A

Cox 2

156
Q

What is the tx of type 1 and 2 AC separations

A

RICE, immobilization, pain management

157
Q

MC type of kidney stone associated with proteal infections

A

Struvate

158
Q

What commonly used AED is eliminated renally and does not have significant drug intx

A

Gabapentin

159
Q

What is the most serious dz assoc with painless jaundice

A

Pancreatic Cancer

160
Q

What is the recommended dash daily intake for a normal healthy individual

A

<2gm

161
Q

What is the antidote for the following 4 congested toxins: opiates, iron, TCA, APAP

A

Opiates: Naloxone
Iron: Desfuroxime
TCA: Bicarb
APAP: Acetylcistine

162
Q

What is the term used to describe a HA that wakes you from sleep, assoc w/tearing

A

Cluster HA

163
Q

3 AED that are cytochrome P450 Inducers?

A

PB
CBZ
PHT

164
Q

What is the name of class of heminopsia confined to one visual quadrant

A

Quadrantopsia

165
Q

What is the tx of subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

Watch and wait

166
Q

Cornea something….exudates

A

Refer to optho

167
Q

MC AE of interferons used to tx MS

A

HA, myalgia, flu like sxs, injection site rxn, depression

168
Q

Sickle shape collection of blood on a head CT is consistent w/what type of traumatic head injury

A

Subdural hematoma

169
Q

What is the name of the deformity seen with progressive RA with hyperextension of the PIP, with flexion of the DIP

A

Swan neck deformity

170
Q

AED for status epilipticus

A

Lorazepam first, phenytoin second

171
Q

What is a greenstick fx

A

Incomplete fracture found in children with a portion of the periosteum remaining intact

172
Q

A hospital H&P should be completed within how long?

A

24 hrs of admission

173
Q

What are the Hgb A1C, LDL, BP goals for a pt with DM

A

LDL <7%

174
Q

12 yo child is accused of starring off into space a lot?

A

Absence seizures

175
Q

Interpret the visual acuity score of 20/40

A

They can see at 20 feet what a normal person can see at 40

176
Q

MC opoid AE and most severe

A

NVC are most common, respiratory depression most severe (Pts dont develop tolerance to Constipation)

177
Q

2 possible causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12, Folate

178
Q

2 diagnostic tests for ataxia

A

Tandem gait, RAM, finger taps, toe taps

179
Q

3 classes of meds MC used for migraine prophylaxis

A

BB, TCA, AED

180
Q

Presence of Bence Jones proteins in urine

A

Multiple Myeloma

181
Q

If an athlete has physiologic anisicoria, what should be done and why

A

Document! incase they have a concussion/injury later on. (>0.5mm and reactive to light)

182
Q

Drug for tx of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Cipro and TMP/SMX but it depends on E coli resistance patters. <20% use TMP/SMX

183
Q

What are the major cellular targets of HIV

A

CD4+ cells and Tcells

184
Q

What is the name of sensorineuro hearing loss assoc with aging

A

Presbycussys

185
Q

How long does aspirin inhibit platelet function

A

Life of a platelet (7-10 days)

186
Q

The first 3 months following a TIA, what % will progress onto having a stroke?

A

15%

187
Q

Which toxidrome is characterized by pinpoint pupils?

A

Opioid

188
Q

T or F. Hot nodules in thyroid signifies malgignancy.

A

False

189
Q

Name 2 classes of meds that work well in the tx of chronic neuropatic pain

A

TCA, AED

190
Q

What is the best test to evaluate a patient for gallstones

A

US

191
Q

3 sxs that suggest psycogenic erectile dysfunction

A

morning wood, early ejaculation, erection with visual stimuli, intermittent occurrence, able to obtain erection with masturbation

192
Q

Differentiate dizziness with vertigo?

A

Dizziness has no motion, vertigo is the room spinning

193
Q

Name 2 conditions that petechia may be suggestive of?

A

ITP, thrombocytopenia

194
Q

3 agents to tx hyperthyroidism

A

BB, Iodine, antithyroid (PTU, methimazole) K+ iodine, surgery

195
Q

Veravax (Varicella vaccine) in CI in who?

A

Immunocomprimized, prego

196
Q

Which pts are at high risk for a GI bleed with NSAIDS

A

> 60, ASA use, antiplatelet use, Clopidogrel, bisphosphonates, corticosteriod, hx ulcers, SSRIs, chronic use

197
Q

4 main sxs of parkinson’s dz

A

Tremor, bradykinesia, ataxia, pill rolling

198
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis in men with a low risk of STI

A

Cipro, levo, TMP/SMX for 10-14 days

199
Q

Dx of hodgkins dz is based on what diagnostic procedure

A

Lymph node biopsy

200
Q

Which specific lab tests are required for participation in sports in MN

A

None

201
Q

What is the single greatest risk factor for hip fx

A

Age

202
Q

Which radiographic view is most useful in evaluating the cervical spine

A

Lateral

203
Q

Lateral C-spine xray detects what % of injury

A

70%

204
Q

Name 3 abx that can be used to tx a UTI in a prego pt

A

TMP, nitrofurantoin, cephalexin, Augmentin

205
Q

Lump and tightness of throat unrelated to swelling

A

globus

206
Q

Which toxidrome is characterized by dilated pupils, diaphroesis, elevated temp, elevated BP

A

Sympathomimetics (Stimulants)

207
Q

What is the MC etiology of duodenal ulcers

A

H pylori

208
Q

19 yo pt comes in to ER after a car accident in a C collar and spine board. PE reveals no midline tenderness, GCS of 15, not intoicated, complans of his knee which is sore with any movement.

A

Cannot take of C collar due to distracting injury

209
Q

What empiric abx tx is recommended for epiditimitis for men <35

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg x1 IM and doxy 100mg PO BID 10-14 days

210
Q

On the exam of a prego pt you notice a bluish purple discoloration of the cervix

A

chadwick’s sign

211
Q

A potentailly life threatening complication of an antipsychotic therapy, altered LOC, rigidity, and fever

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

212
Q

What are the manes of the specific physical exam findings in carpel tunnel syndrome

A

Tinnel’s and Phalen’s

213
Q

Which class of commonly used asthma medicatioon has the most rapid onset of action and the slowest

A

Shortest is SAB2A and the longest is ICS. LAB2A and oral prednisone are inbetween

214
Q

3 drug classes that can be used to slow the ventricular rate in A fib

A

BB, CCB (Nondihydropyridine) Dilt/verap and DIgoxin

215
Q

What is the name given to avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in children

A

Leg calve perthes

216
Q

A woman has been on the same oral contraceptive and complains of early to mid cycle break through bleeding and has been on it for 4 months

A

increase estrogen, check adherence

217
Q

Two categories or classes of drugs used to treat an acute mainic episode in a pt with bipolar disorder

A

VPA, lithiu, (mood stabilizers) and SGA

218
Q

In a prego pt, where would you expect to find the fundus at 12 and 20 wks

A

12 wks: just outside the pelvis; 20 wks: at level of umbilicus

219
Q

1st line tx for GAD

A

SSRI

220
Q

Distant heart sounds, mid line trachea and difuse hyperresonnance to percussion indicative of

A

COPD

221
Q

Prego woman develops DVT, what should she be D/C on

A

LMWH or UFH

222
Q

During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, which hormones are affecting the endometrium

A

Progesterone and estrogen

223
Q

3 yr old boy seen in office with 5 days of fever, edema of hands and feet, rash over body, fissuring and erythema of lips and cervical adenopathy. Throat and ASA titer is negative

A

Kawasaki?

224
Q

3 risk factors for developing PE

A

Immobility, hypercoagulable state, vascular injury

225
Q

3 clinical uses of TCA

A

Depression, migraine prophylazis, neuropathic pain

226
Q

MC finding on EKG of person w/longstanding HTN

A

LVH

227
Q

T or F. Starting ibuprofen will cause someone on warfarins’s INR to increase

A

False. Just will increase bleeding risk

228
Q

4 IADLs

A

phone use, cooking, shopping, paying bills

229
Q

Which condition is prostatic massage CI and why

A

Acute prostatitis, risk of bacteremia

230
Q

3mo old infant, single red macular nodular rash on back, causes child no problem Dx/

A

Hemangioma, watch it and it will resolve on its own

231
Q

Gestational diabetes is treated with what?

A

Insulin

232
Q

10 yo obese boy pain in left knee, slight limp, displaced femoral head. likely dx?

A

SCIFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

233
Q

Hernia at internal inguinal ring?

A

indirect hernai

234
Q

MC cause of CAP in kids >5yo

A

S. pneumo, Mycoplsma (MC for atypical pneumonia)

235
Q

Endocrine AE for SGA

A

weight gain, hyperglycemia, increased TG, increase BP, BMI

236
Q

3 main components of advanced directives

A

Living will, health care agent, DNR/DNI order

237
Q

40 yo female, multiple painful ulcerative lesions on labia? Dx

A

Herpes

238
Q

Child with sore throat, small vesicles and punched out lesions in mouth and circular rash on palm and sole.

A

Hand foot mouth: coxacki

239
Q

Moro reflex disappears in

A

3-6 months

240
Q

3 HTN meds that cause hyperkalemia

A

ACE, ARB, spironolactone

241
Q

PE specific for acute pericarditis

A

Pericardial friction rub

242
Q

2 drugs that cause kernicterus in neonate

A

TMP/SMX and Ceftriaxone

243
Q

TCA with high anticholinergic effects. What are the effects

A

Anti-SLUD

244
Q

Organism causing botulism

A

Clostridium botulininum

245
Q

Agent to tx obesity decreases dietary fat absorption

A

Orlistat

246
Q

Skin condition is greasy yellowish scalp involving eyebrows and eye folds?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis (Cradle cap)

247
Q

Which aminoglycoside works agains Pseudomonas

A

Tobramycin

248
Q

How to remove a tick

A

Use tweezer and pull straight up

249
Q

Translucent papules with keratotic plug and umbilication

A

Molluscum contagiosum

250
Q

2 phases of roseola infantum

A

Fever for 3-5 days, rash on neck and trunk

251
Q

Which class of med should not be used to tx parkinson’s in pts >60

A

Anticholinergics

252
Q

How many dtaps and polios should be received by age 7

A

5dtaps and 4 polio

253
Q

Recommended tx for osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonate, calcium 1500mg, vit d 800IU, wt bearing exercise

254
Q

4 PE findings in Kawaskai disease

A

fever, erythema and edema of hands and feet, desquamation of hands and feet, cervical lymphadenopathy, fissuring tongue and strawberry tongue

255
Q

Most signicant thing different in pharmacotherapy for older aldults

A

Decreased renal clearance

256
Q

Coryza, conjunctival injection, cough, koplik spots, elevated temp

A

Measles

257
Q

What type of dementia has step wise decline in cognition

A

vascular

258
Q

3 yo bitten by black widow spider

A

Antivenom

259
Q

Only indication for oral vanco

A

C diff

260
Q

Neonates eyes treated at birth for what

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

261
Q

Tx for pt with sever MS exacerbation

A

Oral or IV prednison

262
Q

Why is polyuria seen in uncontrolled DM

A

Due to osmotic diuresis

263
Q

Grasp reflex disappears

A

3-6mo

264
Q

Which AED is renally eliminated

A

Gabapentin

265
Q

Pain and laxity to knee on valgus stress

A

MCL

266
Q

4 risk factors for pressure ulcer

A

Decreased mobility, nutrition, moisutre, incontinence, friction, age, decreased arteral or blood pressure

267
Q

Colonoscopy findings in Chron’s dz

A

Cobblestonning, skip lesions, rectal sparring

268
Q

Appropriate 1st line tz for smoking cessation

A

Nicotine replacement, buproprion, wellbutrin, behavioral therapy

269
Q

What does the macula provide in regards to vision

A

Central vision acutiy, color, night vision

270
Q

3 components of human balance system

A

biomechanical, sensory, neuromotor

271
Q

MC head trauma in elderly

A

Subdural hematoma

272
Q

PUD with Hpylori tx

A

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and tinidazole with PPI

273
Q

Swan neck deformity associated with what autoimmune contion

A

RA

274
Q

What med should a pt with persistent asthma be on

A

ICS and SABA

275
Q

MC extra hepatic source of an elevated alk phose

A

Bone, placenta

276
Q

What is the endocrine condition mainifested by anorexia, wt loss, increased pigmentation

A

Addisons disease

Challenge Bowl (1 decks)

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