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OMA chapters > CH8 Operating Procedures > Flashcards

CH8 Operating Procedures Flashcards

0
Q

You are below CNR and during approach ATC advises RFFS has fallen to category 3.

A

OMA states: The commander may decide to land at an aerodrome regardless of RFFS category if it is considered safer to do so than to divert.

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1
Q

RFFS required for departure / destination?

A

RFFS category 6 is normally required.

RFFS category 5 may be permitted for certain aerodromes which experience low volumes of commercial traffic (OFP).

RFFS category 4 is permitted. Temporary downgrade notified by ATC, NOTAM, ATIS etc for a period of time not exceeding 72 hours.

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2
Q

Which altitude corrections are there?

A
  • Low temperature corrections to be made when surface temp is -10 degrees or below.
  • Pressure correction 30’ per hPA below 1013 hPA.
  • Correction for terrain and wind.
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3
Q

What can be said about isolated aerodromes and easyJet operations.

A

Isolated aerodromes are not considered adequate for easyJet operations.

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4
Q

When is a take-of alternate required?

A

A take-off alternate is required when performance or meteorological conditions preclude a return to the departure aerodrome.

Need to consider one engine inoperative ops or dispatch under MEL conditions (CAT3A or no autoland).

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5
Q

Weather minima for a take-off alternate?

A

The applicable minima for the expected instrument approach e.g. 200m for a CAT3A approach.

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6
Q

Weather minima for destination?

A

The applicable minima for the expected instrument approach.

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7
Q

Take-off alternate shall be located within …

A

One hour still air flight time at the one engine inoperative cruising speed. OMB: Take-off alternates, if required, must be within 320NM.

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8
Q

Weather minima for the destination are forecast to be below the applicable minima for the expected instrument approach. Can you still dispatch?

A

Yes. You need two destination alternates with fuel for the furthest.

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9
Q

There is no meteorological information available for the destination. Can you still dispatch?

A

Yes. You need two destination alternates with fuel for the furthest.

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10
Q

Your destination has had some snowfall. The runways are contaminated and the landing performance requirements cannot be assured. Can you still dispatch?

A

Yes. You need two destination alternates with fuel for the furthest.

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11
Q

You have applicable minima and planning minima. How are they being applied?

A

Applicable minima –> Take-off alternate and destination.

Planning minima –> Destination alternate and ENR alternate aerodromes.

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12
Q

Ceiling shall be taken into account, in addition to RVR/visibility, for … and … approaches.

A

non-precision, circling

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13
Q

Planning minima?

A

CAT 2/3 —> CAT1 minima (RVR)
CAT 1 —> NPA minima (localizer only approach)
NPA —> NPA minima +200’ / 1000m
Circling —> Circling

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14
Q

You are payload/performance limited. What are your options?

A

Apply the alternative flight planning procedures:

1) Plan without a destination alternate (minimum additional fuel = holding for 15 min at 1500’ above AD elev. in ISA).
2) Reduction of contingency fuel to 3%.

You need to get a revised OFP

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15
Q

How many different aerodrome categories?

A

CAT A. Non-complex.
CAT B. Aerodrome briefing (CCI) or audio visual brief.
CAT B restricted. Specified restrictions.
CAT C. Special crew qualification required.

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16
Q

Passenger classification?

A

Adults: 12 years and above.

Children: 2 years and above but who are less than 12 years of age.

Infants: less than 2 years of age.

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17
Q

Dipsticks have to be used only in case of … failure.

A

FQI (dispatch under MEL)

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18
Q

Standard masses for crew members, passengers and baggage.

A 
Flight crew 85 kg.
Cabin crew 75 kg.
Adults male 93 kg.
Adults female 75 kg.
Children 35 kg.

Baggage domestic 11 kg.
Baggage within EU 13 kg.

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19
Q

Weights used (guidance purposes) for guide/assistance dog or cello?

A

Guide/assistance dog = 35 kg

Cello = 10 kg

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20
Q

Why is it important not to print OFP’s too early?

A

OFPs may be altered by OCC without notification until thirty minutes prior to crew report. After this time, OCC will make positive contact with the flight crew to ensure that any amended OFPs are correctly retrieved.

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21
Q

When must you complete a journey log?

A

ACARS inop.

When commander’s discretion is used to extend FDP by more than 2 hours or to reduce minimum rest by more than 1 hour.

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22
Q

Absolute minimum RVR for take-off?

A

125/125/125. LIDO AOI (Airport Operational Information) might give take-off minima which are more restrictive (state minima).

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23
Q

Relevant RVR for take-off?

A

RVR for that part of the runway used to accelerate to V1 followed by a rejected take off and deceleration down to a speed of approximately 60 knots.

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24
Q

Relevant RVR for landing?

A

RVR for that part of the runway used during the high speed phase of the landing run down to a speed of approximately 60 knots.

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25
Q

The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling. If reported and relevant, the mid point and stop end RVR shall also be controlling. The minimum RVR value for the midpoint shall be … m or the RVR required for the touchdown zone if less, and … m for the stop end. For aircraft equipped with a roll-out guidance or control system, the minimum RVR value for the mid point shall be … m.

A

125m, 75m, 75m

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26
Q

Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV. In which cases are you not allowed to use this?

A

Crew must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV conversion is not used for take-off, for calculating any other required RVR minimum less than 800m, or when reported RVR is available.

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27
Q

Preparing a CAT3B NO DH approach. ATC reports that the centreline lights are u/s?

A

OMA Table 8.8 Effect of failed or downgraded ground equipment. This table is also in the QRH SI Low visibility operations - Landing. You find that the minimum day RVR is now 200m.

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28
Q

The minimum RVR for straight-in visual approach?

A

800m

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29
Q

The minima for a visual circuit?

A

visibility 5 km, ceiling 2500’

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30
Q

CAT3B company. CAT3A company. What does it mean?

A

NO DH. 50’ RA.

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31
Q

The approach charts only give CAT3B minima. Can you fly a CAT3A approach?

A

Yes. CAT3A is not depicted when CAT3B is published - CAT3A is allowed with 200 m RVR and 50’ RA.

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32
Q

Describe easyJet’s Fuel policy?

A

easyJet’s fuel policy is to carry the minimum amount of fuel necessary to safely and efficiently complete the flight while meeting regulatory requirements and maintaining operational flexibility.

There must be a specific purpose for all EXTRA fuel or it should not be carried.

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33
Q

Which components make up the block fuel?

A 
Taxi
Trip
(min) cont
ALTN
FIN RES
ADDNL
Extra fuel
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34
Q

Contingency Fuel shall be the higher of …

A

1) 5% of planned trip fuel

2) An amount of fuel to fly for 5 min at holding speed at 1500’ above the destination aerodrome in std. conditions.

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35
Q

Minimum additional fuel?

A

Holding for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions, when the flight is operated without a destination alternate

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36
Q

Penalty for carriage of extra fuel?

A

3.0% of extra fuel per hour of flight

37
Q

Trip Fuel Reduction?

A

4 kg per NM

38
Q

Special categories of passengers (SCPS)

A

1) Persons with reduced mobility (PRM)
2) Infants and unaccompanied children
3) Deportees, inadmissible passengers or prisoners in custody

39
Q

Infants under .. weeks of ago will not be accepted for travel.

A

two

40
Q

No more than .. infants per accompanying person are allowed.

A

two

41
Q

under no circumstances must another passenger be asked to accept responsibility during flight of an … …

A

unaccompanied minor

42
Q

Expectant mothers may travel as passengers up to the end of the .. week for single pregnancies and up to the end of the .. week when expecting more than one baby.

A

35th, 32nd.

Medical certification is not required. You have to believe them on their word.

44
Q

Carriage of aircraft spare parts?

A

We can carry them under the following conditions:

1) For easyJet aircraft ONLY
2) Dangerous goods not permitted (oxygen generators)
3) Max. weight of an individual item is 60 KG
4) Carriage of spares to/from Switzerland not permitted

Important to deliver them to an engineer. If no engineer available contact OCC.

45
Q

Policy on carriage of cargo?

A

easyJet does not carry cargo except aircraft spare parts and FDM data.

46
Q

Where can you find marshaller and emergency signals?

A

Table 8.14 and 8.15 and LIDO

47
Q

Emergency signals. Fire fighter recommends an evacuation.

A

beckoning arm motion

48
Q

Emergency signals. Fire fighter recommends evacuation to be halted.

A

Arms in front of head. Crossed at wrists.

49
Q

Emergency signals. Fire fighter –> Emergency contained.

A

Arms extended outward and down at a 45 degree angle.

50
Q

Emergency signals. Engine fire. Brake fire.

A

Fanning motion

51
Q

Approved de-icing and anti-icing fluids on easyJet aeroplanes?

A

Types I, II or IV fluids.

52
Q

What about the use of heated water as a de-icing fluid?

A

Only as part of a two-step process

53
Q

Describe the characteristics of a Type I fluid.

A

High glycol content and low viscosity.
De-icing performance of the fluid is good, however due to its low viscosity it provides only limited anti-icing protection. This is why it’s normally only used when precipitation has stopped.

Predominantly used for removing frozen deposits from aircraft surfaces.
Colour: clear or light orange.

54
Q

Describe the characteristics of a Type II fluid.

A

Is thickened (pseudo plastic thickening agent). High viscosity which allows the fluid to remain on the aircraft.

Usually straw coloured.

55
Q

Describe the characteristics of a Type IV fluid.

A

Similar to Type IV fluid. Has got advanced thickening systems and provides more holdover time than Type II fluids.

Usually coloured green.

56
Q

Hold over times are provided as a guide. The shortest time represents protection that may be available for … levels precipitative and the longest for … precipitation.

A

medium, light.

57
Q

Name of few factors which can shorten the holdover time?

A
  • Precipitation and melting deposits which dilutes the fluid.
  • High winds.
  • Jet blasts.

Rain on a cold soaked wing is the worse you can have.

58
Q

What is the story regarding unaccompanied minors?

A

children aged 13 years or younger.

They must be accompanied by an adult who is at least 16 years old and who will take full responsibility for them.

59
Q

What is the story regarding deceased passengers?

A

Not permitted on board.

60
Q

Policy on escorted prisoners?

A

In special circumstances easyJet will authorise the carriage of escorted prisoners.

61
Q

What is the difference between a deportee and an inadmissible passenger?

A

Deportee is someone who is not accepted by the state of his/her intended destination (illegal act). An inadmissible passenger is someone who has not committed an illegal act, but for some reason immigration does not let the passenger through (incorrect visa)

62
Q

Difference in treatment between a deportee and an inadmissible passenger?

A

Inadmissible passengers can keep their own travel documents with them and can disembark without an escort with the rest of the passengers on arrival. Deportees need to be escorted and their travel documents retained by the SCCM during the flight.

63
Q

Maximum number of unescorted passengers?

A

In order to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft, passengers and crew, the number of unescorted passengers to be carried should be restricted to two.

64
Q

Carriage of aircraft spare parts?

A
  • For EZY aircraft ONLY
  • Not dangerous goods
  • Max. weight individual item = 60 KG unless …
  • Carriage of spares to/from Switzerland not permitted

Make sure an engineer comes to collect the spares if not call OCC!

65
Q

ATC advisory service. What can you expect?

A

TBA

66
Q

VFR policy?

A

Generally not allowed except when authorized by the Duty Pilot

67
Q

Describe the different noise abatement departure procedures.

A

1) Distant noise abatement profile (NADP2).
Maintain V2 +10-20 until 1000’ AAL. Set CL thrust and accelerate + clean-up.

2) Close-in noise abatement profile (NADP1). Set CL thrust at 1000’ AAL. Maintain V2 +10-20 until 3000’ AAL then accelerate + clean-up.

68
Q

What is the standard noise abatement profile?

A

NADP2. Distant noise abatement profile. (steeper climb gradient)

69
Q

For which four navigation specifications do we hold approval?

A

B-RNAV —> RNP 5. En route and terminal airspace above MFA
P-RNAV —> RNP 1. Terminal airspace below MFA
RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) approach RNP 0.3
RNP AR RNP 0.3 These approaches require special aircraft and aircrew authorization.

70
Q

RVSM airspace? Advantages?

A

From FL290 until FL410. Vertical separation between aircraft is 1000’ instead of 2000’.

Increase route capacity and reduce fuel consumption (closer to optimum levels).

71
Q

Where to find equipment required for RNAV ops and RVSM?

A

FCOM PRO-SPO (special operations)

72
Q

Primary altimeter tolerance whilst operating within RVSM airspace?

A

200’

When they disagree by more than this —> ATC call “Unable RVSM due equipment”.

73
Q

Equipment required at entry into RVSM airspace?

A

1) Two primary altimeters
2) Autopilot with altitude hold capability
3) One altitude-alerting system
4) One SSR transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the primary in use for altitude keeping

74
Q

You experience severe turbulence (deviate > 150’) and the altitude is all over the place. Call to ATC?

A

“EZY …. unable RVSM due turbulence”

After the encounter: “Ready to resume RVSM”.

75
Q

With regards to RVSM ops. The FO is PF and transponder 2 fails. What would you do?

A

Switch to transponder 1 and engage to AP1.

76
Q

Altimeter setting procedures. SBY altimeter.

A

After take-off climbing through MSA it is to be set to standard.

Destination QNH will be set before passing FL200 in descent.

77
Q

Policy on in-flight fuel checks.

A

Fuel check at TOC. Written check at intervals not exceeding 1 hour and a verbal check made at 30 minute intervals.

78
Q

When you declare MINIMUM FUEL what does this tell ATC.

A

This is not an emergency but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.

79
Q

TAFs are issued every .. hours.

A

6 hours (0000, 0600, 1200, 1800)

80
Q

Name a few hazards associated with thunderstorms.

A

Turbulence, icing, hail, lightning, engine water ingestion (flame out).

81
Q

Name a few hazards associated with thunderstorms.

A

Turbulence, icing, hail, lightning, engine water ingestion (flame out), microbursts.

82
Q

How many turbulence classifications are there?

A

Four. Light, moderate, severe and extreme.

83
Q

TAFs are issued every .. hours.

A

6 hours (0000, 0600, 1200, 1800)

84
Q

Conditions for a (morning) temperature inversion to develop?

A

Low wind conditions and clear skies at night. You need stable weather conditions.

85
Q

Regarding wake turbulence separation minima on final approach. Following a heavy how much separation are you expecting ATC to apply?

A

5 NM

86
Q

Regarding wake turbulence separation minima on final approach. Following a A380 how much separation are you expecting ATC to apply?

A

7 NM

87
Q

Regarding wake turbulence separation minima on final approach. Following a MEDIUM how much separation are you expecting ATC to apply?

A

Separation for wake turbulence reasons alone is not necessary. 3 NM or 2.5 NM depending on the ground based radar installation.

88
Q

Controlled rest on flight deck policy key details?

A

Maximum 45 min (to limit actual sleep to 30 min and avoid deep sleep). 20 min recovery period. Should terminate at least 30 min before TOD. A fatigue report form must be completed.

89
Q

Policy on the use of the flight deck jump seat?

A

Basically not allowed except by duty positioning crew and commuters when no seat is available in the passenger compartment. For all other cases you need a cockpit permit.

90
Q

Automation policy?

A

easyJet basic policy is to make use of the highest level of automation appropriate to the phase of flight and the airspace in which the flight is being conducted.

The need to maintain proficiency in manual flight is recognised. It is permitted, and encouraged, for Flight Crew to fly the aeroplane manually on a regular basis.

OMA chapters (13 decks)

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