Ch.6 Ethical and Legal Issues Flashcards

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1
Q

What are ethics?

A

The branch of philosophy concerned with the distinction between right and wrong on the basis of a body of knowledge, not only on the basis of opinions.

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2
Q

What are ethical Codes?

! Are these codes legally binding?

! = pyramid point

A

Ethical codes provide broad principles for determining and evaluating client care.

These codes are not legally binding, but the board of nursing has authority in most states to reprimand nurses for unprofessional conduct that results from violation of the ethical codes.

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3
Q

! ADVOCATE

What is an advocate?

What do they represent?

What does an advocate avoid?

A

An advocate is a person who speaks up for or acts on the behalf of the client, protects the client’s right to make his or her own decisions, and upholds the principle of fidelity.

An advocate represents the client’s viewpoint to others.

An advocate avoids letting personal values influence advocacy for the client and supports the client’s decision, even when it conflicts with the advocate’s own preferences or choices.

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4
Q

ETHICS COMMITTIEES

What are they?

What is good to know about ethics committies?

A

These committees develop and establish policies and procedures to facilitate the prevention and resolution of dilemmas.

Its good to know that whatever they decide its only a recomendation to the family.

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5
Q

! NURES PRACTICE ACTS

What are they?

What standards do the practice acts set?

What are we supposed to know about the practice acts?

A

A nurse practice act is a series of statutes that have been enacted by each state legislature to regulate the practice of nursing in that state.

All nurses are responsible for knowing the provisions of the act of the state or province in which they work.

Practice acts are diffrent in each state.

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6
Q

What is the standard of care?

A

Standards of care are guidelines that identify what the client can expect to receive in terms of nursing care.

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7
Q

! If you walk out on a short staffed stressfull night what can happen to you?

A

Charges of abandonment may be made against nurses who “walk out” when staffing is inadequate.

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8
Q

What is floating?

A

Floating is an acceptable practice used by health care facilities to alleviate understaffing and overstaffing.

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9
Q

! Can a nurse legally refuse to float?

A

Legally, the nurse cannot refuse to float unless a union contract guarantees that nurses can work only in a specified area or the nurse can prove lack of knowledge for the performance of assigned tasks.

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10
Q

When floating the nurse should make sure that they dont?

A

Nurses in a floating situation must not assume responsibility beyond their level of experience or qualification.

Nurses who float should inform the supervisor of any lack of experience in caring for the type of clients on the new nursing unit.

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11
Q

Define liable?

A

Responsible.

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12
Q

!What is Negligence?

A

Negligence is conduct that falls below the standard of care.

Negligence can include acts of commission and acts of omission.

The nurse who does not meet appropriate standards of care may be held liable.

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13
Q

! What is malpractice? How do we determine mal practice in nursing?

A

Malpractice is negligence on the part of the nurse.

Malpractice is determined if the nurse owed a duty to the client and did not carry out the duty and the client was injured because the nurse failed to perform the duty.

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14
Q

! How do we prove the liablity of a nurse?

A

Duty: At the time of injury, a duty existed between the plaintiff and the defendant.

Breach of duty: The defendant breached duty of care to the plaintiff.

Proximate cause: The breach of the duty was the legal cause of injury to the client.

Damage or injury: The plaintiff experienced injury or damages or both and can be compensated by law.

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15
Q

What are the good samaritan laws?

A

These laws encourage health care professionals to assist in emergency situations and limit liability and offer legal immunity for persons helping in an emergency, provided that they give reasonable care.

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16
Q

What is good to know about controlled substances?

A

It takes to nurses to waste.

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17
Q

! What is assault?

A

Assault occurs when a person puts another person in fear of a harmful or offensive contact.

The victim fears and believes that harm will result because of the threat.

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18
Q

What is battery?

A

Battery is an intentional touching of another’s body without the other’s consent.

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19
Q

What is invasion of privacy?

A

Invasion of privacy includes violating confidentiality, intruding on private client or family matters, and sharing client information with unauthorized persons.

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20
Q

What are some times that false impriosonment happens?

A

False imprisonment occurs when a client is not allowed to leave a health care facility when there is no legal justification to detain the client.

False imprisonment also occurs when restraining devices are used without an appropriate clinical need.

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21
Q

When can a patient sighn out agaianst medical advice(AMA)? What should the nurse do?

A

A client can sign an Against Medical Advice form when the client refuses care and is competent to make decisions.

The nurse should document circumstances in the medical record to avoid allegations by the client that cannot be defended.

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22
Q

What is defamation?

A

Defamation is a false communication that causes damage to someone’s reputation, either in writing (libel) or verbally (slander).

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23
Q

! What is fraud?

A

Fraud results from a deliberate deception intended to produce unlawful gains.

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24
Q

When dealing with a psych patient and the thought of restraints might be an option what should we do?

A

The nurse should use the least restrictive methods initially, but then use interventions such as restraint if the client’s behavior indicates the need for this intervention.

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25
Q

! What is the clients bill of rights?

A

The document provides a list of the rights of the client and responsibilities that the hospital cannot violate ; all health care agencies are required to have a Client’s Bill of Rights posted in a visible area.

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26
Q

What is the Mental Health Systems ACT?

A

The Mental Health Systems Act created rights for mentally ill people.

The Joint Commission has developed policy statements on the rights of mentally ill people.

Psychiatric facilities are required to have a Client’s Bill of Rights posted in a visible area.

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27
Q

! How old do you have to be to donate an organ?

A

18.

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28
Q

! If you are unsure of who can provide consent for organ donation where can you work?

A

The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act provides a list of individuals who can provide informed consent for the donation of a deceased individual’s organs.

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29
Q

! Who sets the criteria for organ donations?

A

The United Network for Organ Sharing.

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30
Q

! Can all organs be donated?

A

Some organs, such as the heart, lungs, and liver, can be obtained only from a person who is on mechanical ventilation and has suffered brain death, whereas other organs or tissues can be removed several hours after death.

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31
Q

! What can a organ donor not be?

A

A donor must be free of infectious disease and cancer.

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32
Q

! When it comes to family concerns about funeral delay due to organ donation what do we say?

A

Donation of organs does not delay funeral arrangements; no obvious evidence that the organs were removed from the body shows when the body is dressed; and the family incurs no cost for removal of the organs donated.

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33
Q

What does the catholic church say about organ donation?

A

Organ donation and transplants are acceptable.

34
Q

What does the Orthodox Church say about organ donation?

A

Church usually discourages organ donation.

35
Q

What does the Islam (Muslim) community feel about organ donation?

A

Body parts should not be removed or donated for transplantation.

36
Q

How do jehova witnesses feel about organ donation?

A

An organ transplant may be accepted, but the organ must be cleansed with a nonblood solution before transplantation.

37
Q

How do Orthodox juws feel about organ donation?

A

All body parts removed during autopsy must be buried with the body because it is believed that the entire body must be returned to the earth; organ donation may not be considered by family members.

Organ transplantation may be allowed with the rabbi’s approval.

38
Q

! What are consents?

A

Consents, or releases, are legal documents that indicate the client’s permission to perform surgery, perform a treatment or procedure, or give information to a third party.

39
Q

What are some of the diffrent types of consent?

A

Admission Agreement

Admission agreements are obtained at the time of admission and identify the health care agency’s responsibility to the client.

Immunization Consent

An immunization consent may be required before the administration of certain immunizations; the consent indicates that the client was informed of the benefits and risks of the immunization.

Blood Transfusion Consent

A blood transfusion consent indicates that the client was informed of the benefits and risks of the transfusion. Some clients hold religious beliefs that would prohibit them from receiving a blood transfusion, even in a life-threatening situation.

Surgical Consent

Surgical consent is obtained for all surgical or invasive procedures or diagnostic tests that are invasive. The primary health care provider, surgeon, or anesthesiologist who performs the operative or other procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure, its risks and benefits, and possible alternative options.

Research Consent

The research consent obtains permission from the client regarding participation in a research study. The consent informs the client about the possible risks, consequences, and benefits of the research.

Special Consents

Special consents are required for the use of restraints, photographing the client, disposal of body parts during surgery, donating organs after death, or performing an autopsy.

40
Q

! What is informed consent?

A

Informed consent indicates the client’s participation in the decision regarding health care. It is the client’s approval (or that of the client’s legal representative) to have their body touched by a specific individual.

41
Q

! With obtaining informed consent what must the client be told?

A

The client must be informed, in understandable terms, of the risks and benefits of the surgery or treatment, what the consequences are for not having the surgery or procedure performed, treatment options, and the name of the HCP performing the surgery or procedure.

42
Q

! When must all the question about the surgery be asked?

A

Before giving consent, if they ask question after then the doctor needs to be notified.

43
Q

What is the nurses role during the consent? What is the doctors?

A

The nurse can witnness the consent. But it is the doctor who needs to do all the education and answering all the patients questions.

44
Q

Can somone who was just given a drug of any kind give consent?

A

Not really.

45
Q

At what age can you sighn your own consent form?

A

18.

46
Q

After a client gives consent can they withdraw it?

A

A client may withdraw consent at any time.

47
Q

What is a minor?

A

Anyone under the age of 18.

48
Q

What are the only situations when you dont need a minors partenal consent for there treatment?

A

Parental or guardian consent should be obtained before treatment is initiated for a minor except in the following cases: in an emergency; in situations in which the consent of the minor is sufficient, including treatment related to substance abuse, treatment of a sexually transmitted infection, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) treatment, birth control services, pregnancy, or psychiatric services; the minor is an emancipated minor; or a court order or other legal authorization has been obtained.

49
Q

What is an emancipated minor?

A

An emancipated minor has established independence from his or her parents through marriage, pregnancy, or service in the armed forces, or by a court order.

An emancipated minor is considered legally capable of signing an informed consent.

50
Q

! What is HIPPA?

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) describes how personal health information (PHI) may be used and how the client can obtain access to the information.

51
Q

What are the rights of the client according to HIPPA?

A
  1. Inspect a copy of PHI.
  2. Ask the health care agency to amend the PHI that is contained in a record if the PHI is inaccurate.
  3. Request a list of disclosures made regarding the PHI as specified by HIPAA.
  4. Request to restrict how the health care agency uses or discloses PHI regarding treatment, payment, or health care services, unless information is needed to provide emergency treatment.
  5. Request that the health care agency communicate with the client in a certain way or at a certain location; the request must specify how or where the client wishes to be contacted.
  6. Request a paper copy of the HIPAA notice.
52
Q

What is a description of confidentuality/ information security?

A

Clients have a right to privacy in the health care system.

A special relationship exists between the client and nurse, in which information discussed is not shared with a third party who is not directly involved in the client’s care.

53
Q

! Can clients request copies of there medical record?

A

yes copies but not the oruginal one.

54
Q
A
55
Q

Information technology/computerized medical records best practices?

A

Health care employees should have access only to the client’s records in the nursing unit or work area.

Confidentiality/information security can be protected by the use of special computer access codes to limit what employees have access to in computer systems.

The use of a password or identification code is needed to enter and sign off a computer system.

A password or identification code should never be shared with another person.

Personal passwords should be changed periodically to prevent unauthorized computer access.

56
Q

! What is an occurance report?

A

The occurrence report is used as a means of identifying risk situations and improving client care.

57
Q

! Where do we put the occurance report?

A

The report form should not be copied or placed in the client’s record.

58
Q

Should you chart you made out an occurance report?

A

nope.

59
Q

!Where is the best place to put patient belongings?

A

Client’s valuables should be given to a family member or secured for safekeeping in a stored and locked designated location, such as the agency’s safe; facility security may handle the safeguarding of valuables. The location of the client’s valuables should be documented per agency policy.

60
Q

What can we do with a clients wedding band if they feel the need to keep it?

A

Tape it down.

61
Q

We must carry out the health care providers prescription, when dont we have to?

A

Except when the nurse believes a prescription to be inappropriate or inaccurate.

62
Q

If you as the nurse carryout an inaccurate doctor prescription who is in trouble?

A

The nurse carrying out an inaccurate prescription may be legally responsible for any harm suffered by the client.

63
Q

How do we do telephone prescriptions?

A

▪ Date and time the entry.

▪ Repeat the prescription to the primary health care provider (PHCP), and record the prescription.

▪ Sign the prescription; begin with “t.o.” (telephone order), write the PHCP’s name, and sign the prescription.

▪ If another nurse witnessed the prescription, that nurse’s signature follows.

▪ The PHCP needs to countersign the prescription within a time frame according to agency policy.

64
Q

What are the 6 componets of a medication prescription?

A

▪ Date and time prescription was written

▪ Medication name

▪ Medication dosage

▪ Route of administration

▪ Frequency of administration

▪ Primary health care provider’s signature

65
Q

! What is a good thing to know about documentation?

A

Documentation is legally required by accrediting agencies, state licensing laws, and state nurse and medical practice acts.

66
Q

! What is the patient self determination act?

A

The Patient Self-Determination Act is a law that requires clients be provided with information about their right to have written directions about the care that they wish to receive in the event that they become incapacitated and are unable to make health care decisions.

67
Q

What are the two basic types of advance directives?

A

The two basic types of advance directives include instructional directives and durable power of attorney for health care.

68
Q

What are instructional directives?

A

Lists the medical treatment that a client chooses to omit or refuse if the client becomes unable to make decisions and is terminally ill.

69
Q

What is a durable power of attorney?

A

Appoints a person (health care proxy) chosen by the client to make health care decisions on the client’s behalf when the client can no longer make decisions.

70
Q

What is a big rolse for a nurse with advance directives?

A

The nurse needs to ensure that the client has been provided with information about the right to identify written directions about the care that the client wishes to receive.

71
Q

What are two things that nurses have to report if they see it?

A

Nurses are required to report certain communicable diseases or criminal activities such as child or elder abuse or domestic violence; dog bite or other animal bite, gunshot or stab wounds, assaults, and homicides; and suicides to the appropriate authorities.

72
Q

What should you do if you suspect that a coworker nurse is impaired?

A

If the nurse suspects that a coworker is abusing chemicals and potentially jeopardizing a client’s safety, the nurse must report the individual to the nursing supervisor/nursing administration in a confidential manner. (Client safety is always the first priority.)

73
Q

What is OSHA?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

OSHA requires that an employer provide a safe workplace for employees according to regulations.

Employees can confidentially report working conditions that violate regulations.

An employee who reports unsafe working conditions cannot be retaliated against by the employer.

74
Q

What is autonomy?

A

Autonomy: Respect for an individual’s right to self-determination

75
Q

What is nonmaleficence?

A

The obligation to do or cause no harm to another.

76
Q

What is beneficence?

A

The duty to do good to others and to maintain a balance between benefits and harms; paternalism is an undesirable outcome of beneficence, in which the health care provider decides what is best for the client and encourages the client to act against his or her own choices

77
Q

What is justice?

A

The equitable distribution of potential benefits and tasks determining the order in which clients should be cared for

78
Q

What is veracity?

A

The obligation to tell the truth.

79
Q

What is fidelity?

A

The duty to do what one has promised.

80
Q
A