Ch43 Neuro Fxn Flashcards

0
Q

Name the 3 structures of the Brainstem and the function of each.

A

1) Midbrain - Motor coordination, visual reflex and auditory relay center.
2) Pons - Regulates respiration (breathing)
3) Medulla Oblongata - Controls HR, respiration, blood vessel diameter, sneezing, swallowing, vomiting, and coughing.

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1
Q

What are the 4 lobes of he Cerebral Cortex and which functions are each responsible for?

A

1) Frontal Lobe - Broca’s area for speech, morals, emotions, reasoning and judgement, concentration, memory, and abstract thought.
2) Parietal Lobe - Taste, pain, touch, temp, pressure, spatial perception.
3) Temporal Lobe - Hearing, Wernicke’s area for speech, and long term memory.
4) Occipital Lobe - Vision

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2
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordinates smooth muscle movement, posture, equilibrium, and muscle tone.

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3
Q

What is Stereogenesis and in which lobe of the brain is this sense processed?

A

Stereogenesis - The ability to perceive an object using the sense of touch (processed in the parietal lobe).

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4
Q

What is the normal for CSF pressure?

A

10 to 15 mmHg. Pressures greater than 20 mmHg indicate increased ICP.

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5
Q

Define Rhinorrhea and Otorrhea.

A

1) Rhinorrhea - Leakage of CSF fluid via the nose as a result in the Cribriform plates of the Anterior Cranial Fossa.
2) Otorrhea - Leakage of CSF fluid via the ears as a result of fractures in the Basilar Skull.

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6
Q

Besides Rhinorrhea and Otorrhea, which two other signs are the result of a skull fracture and CSF leakage?

A

1) Raccoon Eyes - Bruising around the eyes.

2) Battle Sign - Ecchymosis of the mastoid process of the temporal bone.

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7
Q

List the first 3 Cranial Nerves, their type (sensory, motor or both) and the function they perform.

A

1) Cranial Nerve I/Olfactory (Sensory) - Smell
2) Cranial Nerve II/Optic (Sensory) - Visual Acuity
3) Cranial Nerve III/Oculomotor (Motor) - Eyelid elevation, pupillary constriction, and all eye movements except down and inward (trochlear); and lateral (abducens).

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8
Q

List Cranial Nerves 4 through 6, their type (sensory, motor or both) and the function they perform.

A

4) Cranial Nerve IV/Trochlear (Motor) - Moves eye down and inward.
5) Cranial Nerve V/Trigeminal (Both) - Facial sensation, corneal reflex, and chewing.
6) Cranial Nerve VI/Abducens (Motor) - Moves eye laterally.

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9
Q

List Cranial Nerves 7 through 9, their type (sensory, motor or both) and the function they perform.

A

7) Cranial Nerve VII/Facial (Both) - Facial symmetry smiling, raising eyebrows, puffs out cheeks and keeps eyes and lips closed while you try to open them.
8) Cranial Nerve VII/Acoustic (Sensory) - Hearing
9) Cranial Nerve IX/Glossopharyngeal (Both) - Control of the pharynx and tongue and swallowing.

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10
Q

List Cranial Nerves 10 through 12, their type (sensory, motor or both) and the function they perform.

A

10) Cranial Nerve X/Vagus (Both) - Controls gag reflex, voice quality (hoarseness or nasal quality) and swallowing.
11) Cranial Nerve XI/Acessory Spinal (Motor) - Shrugs shoulders, turns head from side to side and controls symmetry of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
12) Cranial Nerve XII/Hypoglossal (Motor) - Tongue strength

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11
Q

Identify the Cranial Nerve responsible for the following dysfunctions:

1) Tongue Weakness
2) Slurred speech
3) Dysphagia
4) Ptosis
5) Double Vision
6) Absence of Nasolabial folds and ⬇ tasting

A

1) Tongue Weakness - CN XII (Hypoglossal)
2) Slurred speech - CN X (Vagus)
3) Dysphagia - CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
4) Ptosis - CN III (Oculomotor)
5) Double Vision - CN VI (Abducens)
6) Absence of Nasolabial folds and ⬇ tasting - CN VII (Facial)

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13
Q

What are the Sympathetic Effects of the following anatomical structures and functions:

1) Peristalsis
2) Muscular sphincters of digestive tube
3) Salivary secretions
4) Digestive secretions
5) Conversion of Glycogen to Glucose

A

1) Peristalsis - ⬇
2) Muscular sphincters of digestive tube - Contracted
3) Salivary secretions - Thickens
4) Digestive secretions - ⬇
5) Conversion of Glycogen to Glucose - ⬆

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14
Q

What are the Sympathetic Effects of the following anatomical structures and functions:

1) Bladder muscles
2) Urinary sphincter
3) Uterine muscles
4) Sweat secretion
5) Pilomotor muscles
6) Blood Vessels of the External genitalia muscles

A

1) Bladder muscles - Relax
2) Urinary sphincter - Contract
3) Uterine muscles - Contract
4) Sweat secretion - ⬆
5) Pilomotor muscles - Contracted
6) Blood Vessels of the External genitalia muscles - Dilate

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15
Q

Differentiate between Upper Motor Neurons and Lower Motor Neurons.

A

1) Upper Motor Neurons originate in either the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or Brainstem where the cross over and descend throughout the spinal tract. Their fibers are located only in the CNS and modulate activity of the lower motor neurons.
2) Lower Motor Neurons (LMN) are located in either the anterior horn of the spinal cord gray matter or within the cranial nerve nuclei in the Brainstem. Axons of the LMNs extend through peripheral nerves and terminate in skeletal muscles. LMNs are located in both the CNS and PNS.

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16
Q

Describe the 4 Clinical Features of Lesions in the Upper and Lower Motor Neurons.

A
UPPER MOTOR NEURONS
1) Loss of voluntary control
2) Increased muscle tone
3) Muscle spasticity 
4) No muscle atrophy
5) Hyperactive and abnormal 
LOWER MOTOR NERONS
1) Loss of voluntary control
2) Decreased muscle tone
3) Muscle flaccidity and paralysis
4) Muscle atrophy
5) Absent of ⬇ reflexes
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27
Q

What are the Sympathetic Effects of the following anatomical structures:

1) Pupils
2) Heartbeat
3) Heart and Skeletal muscle blood vessels
4) Abdominal viscera and skin blood vessels
5) Bronchioles
6) Breathing

A

1) Pupils - Dilate
2) Heartbeat - ⬆ rate and force of beat
3) Heart and Skeletal muscle blood vessels - Dilated
4) Abdominal viscera and skin blood vessels - Constricted
5) Bronchioles - Dilate
6) Breathing - ⬆ rate

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28
Q

Disorders due to lesions of the basal ganglia include which 3 diseases?

A

1) Parkinson’s
2) Huntington’s
3) Spasmodic Torticollis

29
Q

The acuity of taste buds along with an altered olfactory sense decreases with age, how does this affect weight?

A

Decreased acuity of taste buds and an altered olfactory sense may cause a decreased appetite and subsequent weight loss.

30
Q

Differentiate between Delirium and Dementia in the elderly.

A

Delirium is an acute change in mental status attributable to a treatable medical problem and must be differentiated from dementia, which is a chronic and irreversible deterioration in cognitive status.

31
Q

How is Eye Opening scored on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
4 = Spontaneous
3 = To speech
2 = To pain
1 = No response
32
Q

How is Motor Response scored on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
6 = Obeys verbal commands
5 = Localizes pain 
4 = Non-purposeful movement
3 = Abnormal flexion
2 = Abnormal extension
1 = No response
33
Q

How is Verbal Response scored on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
5 = Oriented
4 = Confused/disoriented
3 = Inappropriate speech
2 = Incomprehensible sounds 
1 = No response
34
Q

What are the 5 components of a neurological assessment?

A

1) Cerebral function
2) Cranial nerves
3) Motor system
4) Sensory system
5) Reflexes

35
Q

Describe the 4 types of Aphasia and the area of brain involved with each one.

A

1) Auditory Receptive - Temporal lobe
2) Visual Receptive - Parietal-occipital area
3) Expressive Speaking - Inferior posterior frontal areas
4) Expressive writing - Posterior frontal area

36
Q

Define Spasticity and Ridgidity and Flacid in regards to muscle tone.

A

1) Ridgidity - Increase in muscle tone at rest characterized by increased resistance to passive stretch.
2) Spasticity - Sustained increased in tension of a muscle when it is passively lengthened or stretched.
3) Flaccidity - A lack of muscle tone; limp or floppy.

37
Q

Define Ataxia

A

A lack of coordination of voluntary muscle action, particularly the muscle groups used to walk and reach for things.

38
Q

Describe the Romberg Test

A

A test for cerebellar dysfunction requiring the orient to stand with feet together, eyes closed, and arms extended; inability to maintain the position with either significant stagger or sway, is a positive test.

39
Q

Describe the following gradings of deep tendon reflexes:

1) 0
2) 1+
3) 2+
4) 3+
5) 4+

A

1) 0 - No response
2) 1+ - Diminished (hypoactive)
3) 2+ - Normal
4) 3+ - Increased (may be interpreted as normal)
5) 4+ - Hyperreflexia with clonus (hyperactive)

40
Q

(T/F) A positive pronator drift is associated with upper motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord that control voluntary movement.

A

True

41
Q

Define Clonus

A

Clonus - Abnormal movement marked by alternating contraction and relaxation of a muscle occurring in rapid succession.

42
Q

Why is the patient instructed to relax and breathe normally during a Lumbar Puncture?

A

Because hyperventilation may lower an elevated pressure

43
Q

What are the 5 Common Complications of of a Lumbar Puncture?

A

1) Headache
2) Voiding difficulties
3) ⬆ Temp
4) Backache or spasms
5) Neck stiffness

44
Q

What are the 4 Rare Complications of of a Lumbar Puncture?

A

1) Herniation of intracranial contents
2) Spinal epidural abscess
3) Spinal epidural hematoma
4) Meningitis

45
Q

What is the normal CSF pressure of the patient in the lateral recumbent position?

A

70 - 200 mm H2O

46
Q

Describe the difference between Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas of speech in the brain.

A

1) Broca’s (Expressive Speech) - Located in the frontal lobe and controls the movements required to produce speech (motor aspect of speech).
2) Wernicke’s (Receptive Speech) - Located in the parietal lobe and controls sensory aspect of speech (helps to understand speech and use correct words to express thoughts).

47
Q

What are he 2 types of Cells in the Nervous system?

A

1) Neurons (Function)

2) Neuroglials (Structure)

48
Q

What are the 5 different types of Neuroglial Cells?

A

1) Oligodendraocytes - Produce myelin sheath in the CNS
2) Schwaan Cells - Myelinate nerve fibers in the periphery (degradation of Schwaan cells can cause Myasthenia Gravis)
3) Astrocytes - Maintains the BBB
4) Ependymal Cells - Aid in secretion of CSF
5) Microglia - Phagocytes

49
Q

What structures are included in the Limbic System and what function does it control?

A

1) Structures - Hippocampus an Amygdala

2) Functions - Emotions, fight or flight response, motivation, learning and memory.

50
Q

Where is CSF mostly (95% of CSF) produced?

A

In the Choroid Plexus of the Lateral Ventricles.

51
Q

What are the 9 factors that affect level of consciousness?

A

1) Alcohol
2) Epilepsy
3) Insulin
4) Overdose
5) Uremia
6) Trauma
7) Infections
8) Poison/Psychosis
9) Syncope

52
Q

What are the 4 limitations to the Glasgow Coma Scal that were mentioned in class?

A

1) Eye Opening cannot be assessed in patients with periorbital swelling.
2) Verbal response cannot be assessed in patients who are incubated
3) Neuro deterioration that that affects one side of the body is not reflected in the GCS score.
4) A systolic BP of 80-90 or greater is needed to adequately perform the GCS

53
Q

Describe Kernig’s Sign and Brudzinki’s Sign

A

1) Kernig’s Sign - Pain in the lower back and resistance to straightening the leg at the knee is a positive sign indicating meningeal irritation.
2) Brudzinki’s Sign - Involuntary flexion of the hip and knee is a positive sign for meningeal irritation.