Ch2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following databases support read replicas?

MariaDB
MySQL
PostgreSQL
All of the above

A

D. MariaDB, MySQL, PostgreSQL supports READ replica. Oracle, Aurora dont.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about an RDS read replica configuration? (Choose two.)

Only three read replicas can be set up for a single primary database instance.
Only MariaDB, MySQL, and Aurora are supported.
A read replica replicates all databases in the primary instance.
A read replica can exist in a different region than the primary instance.

A

CD. You can have up to five read replicas at a time for a single instance

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3
Q
  1. You have a primary database set up to use read replicas running on an instance in US East 1. You have three read replicas also in US East 1 and two additional replicas in US West 2. You are trying to create a new replica in EU West 1 and are getting an error. What do you need to do to resolve this error and successfully create a new read replica in EU West 1?

Turn on the Multi-AZ option for your primary instance.
You can’t create the replica in EU West 1. Instead, create the replica in another US region to avoid regulations about read replicas in the EU.
Contact AWS about raising the number of read replicas allowed from 5 to 8.
Turn off one of the read replicas in US East 1 and then you can create the instance in EU West 1.

A
  1. D?. a read replica setup only allows for five read replicas. This is not a limit that can be raised by AWS either.暂时发现的唯一一个不能提ticket升的service
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4
Q
  1. Which of the following are true about a read replica setup? (Choose two.)

Backups are configured by default when you set up read replicas.
They provide a highly scalable solution for your on-premises databases.
They can exist within a single AZ, cross-AZ, or cross-region.
A read replica can be promoted to a stand-alone database instance.

A

CD。Read replicas are focused on performance, 跟disaster recovery无关。read replica 可以跨region

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following are true about a read replica setup? (Choose two.)

Automated backups are taken from the read replicas rather than the primary instance.
The database engine on all instances is active.
Each read replica instance can upgrade its database engine separate from the primary instance.
Replication is synchronous.

A

BC。No backups are taken from any instance automatically, including the primary instance,

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are false? (Choose two.)

Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations ensure that you have database instances in multiple availability zones.
Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations provide disaster recovery options for your primary instance.
A single database can both have a read replica and be part of a Multi-AZ setup.
A read replica can be promoted to be a stand-alone database instance.

A

AB

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?

A Multi-AZ setup is aimed at fault tolerance, while a read replica setup is aimed at scalability.
Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations are aimed at fault tolerance.
A Multi-AZ setup is aimed at scalability, while a read replica setup is aimed at fault tolerance.
Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations are aimed at scalability.

A

A

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8
Q
  1. Does a read replica provide any assistance at all in creating a fault-tolerant database setup?

Yes, it provides automated backups to the read replicas.
Yes, if the primary instance fails, one of the replicas can be manually promoted to a stand-alone database instance.
Yes, if the primary instance fails, one of the replicas will be automatically promoted to a stand-alone database instance.
No

A

B.While you get no automated backups or failover (A or C), you can manually promote a read replica instance to a stand-alone instance if you have to.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid reasons to use read replication? (Choose two.)

You have customers in a region geographically distant from your primary instance and want to improve their read performance when they access your applications hosted in regions closer to them.
Your current database instance is showing memory saturation with current traffic loads.
Your boss has asked for an automated backup solution that takes advantage of AWS managed services.
You need to perform additional OLTP queries and want to improve the performance of those queries.

A

AB

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10
Q
  1. How are automated backups related to read replicas?

They are not; read replicas and automated backups have no relationship at all.
Read replicas do not create automatic backups, but the primary database instance must have automatic backups enabled to create read replicas.
Read replicas cause the primary database instance to automatically begin backing up.
Each read replica is automatically backed up after an initial read from the primary database instance.

A
  1. B? read replicas are not a backup strategy, nor do they cause automatic backups to be set up. However, you must turn on automatic backups for the primary database instance to enable read replicas.
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11
Q
  1. Can a database instance be a read replica of one database and the source instance for another read replica?

Yes, as long as the source and replicant database are not the same instance.
No, a database cannot be both a read replica and a source database.
Yes, as long as the source and replicant database are in the same availability zone.
Yes, as long as you enable circular replication on both databases.

A

A. it is absolutely permissible for one database to replicate another database and then be the source for a third database.

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12
Q
  1. How quickly can you make changes to the backup window used by your RDS instance?

Changes to the window via the console take place within 1 hour; changes made via the API take place immediately.
Changes to the window take place after the next complete backup occurs.
Changes to the window via the API take place within 1 hour; changes made via the console take place immediately.
Changes to the window take place immediately.

A

D.There is no difference in response to a change in the backup window based on how that window is changed (API, console, etc.). All changes take place immediately.

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13
Q
  1. What is the longest backup retention window that Amazon RDS allows?

30 days
35 days
45 days
365 days

A

B? Amazon RDS backups can be retained for up to 35 days, and no longer.

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14
Q
  1. You have an Oracle installation using a custom geospatial plug-in. You also want to ensure the maximum throughput for database operations once those operations are begun by the plug-in. How would you set up Oracle to meet these requirements?

Set up Oracle using RDS with provisioned IOPS.
Set up Oracle using RDS with magnetic storage.
Install Oracle on an EC2 instance with a provisioned IOPS EBS volume.
Install Oracle on an EC2 instance with a magnetic EBS volume.

A

C

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15
Q
  1. In what scenarios would you install an Oracle database on an EC2 instance rather than using RDS? (Choose two.)

You want to use an ALB to support multiple instances and round-robin request distributions.
Your database size is greater than 80% of the maximum database size in RDS.
You have custom plug-ins that will not run in RDS.
You want to ensure that your database is only accessible through your private subnet in a VPC.

A

BC

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16
Q
  1. You launch an EC2 instance that has two volumes attached: a root and an additional volume, both created with default settings. What happens to each volume when you terminate the instance?

The root volume is deleted and the additional volume is preserved.
Both volumes are deleted.
Both volumes are preserved.
The instance is unable to terminate until the root volume is deleted.

A

A? root volumes are terminated on instance deletion, and by default, additional EBS volumes attached to an instance are not

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17
Q
  1. How many S3 buckets can you add to an account?

100
100 by default, but this can be increased by contacting AWS.
It depends on the default set for the new account by AWS.
It depends on how the account is configured at account creation.

A

B? The default for all new accounts is 100 allowed S3 buckets;

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18
Q
  1. What type of replication occurs in a Multi-AZ RDS setup?

Sequential replication
Synchronous replication
Asynchronous replication
Synchronous replication for full backups and asynchronous replication for incremental backups

A

B.Replication occurs synchronously from a primary instance to a secondary instance in a Multi-AZ setup.

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19
Q
  1. What type of replication occurs in a read replica RDS setup?

Sequential replication
Synchronous replication
Asynchronous replication
Synchronous replication for full backups and asynchronous replication for incremental backups

A

C? Replication occurs asynchronously from a primary instance to the various read replicas in a read replica setup

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols and routing approaches does a classic load balancer support? (Choose two.)

IPv4
IPv6
HTTP/2
Registering targets in target groups and routing traffic to those groups

A

AB. Classic load balancers support both IPv4 and IPv6. They support HTTP/1 and HTTP/1.1, but only application load balancers support HTTP/2. Further, you must register individual instances, rather than target groups, with classic load balancers; registering target groups is a functionality only available with application load balancers.

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21
Q
  1. How many elastic IP addresses can you create per region by default in a new AWS account?

5
10
20
There is no preset limit.

A

A. AWS accounts allow you five elastic IP addresses per region by default.

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22
Q
  1. To how many EBS volumes can a single EC2 instance attach?

1
2
27
Unlimited

A

C.Officially, instances can have up to 28 attachments. One of those attachments is the network interface attachment, leaving 27 attachments available for EBS volumes

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following provide ways to automate the backup of your RDS database? (Choose two.)

Automated snapshots
S3 lifecycle management policies
Automated backups
Data pipeline

A

AC. RDS provides two (and only two) methods for backing up RDS databases at this point: automated backups and automated snapshots

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24
Q
  1. Your web-based application uses a large RDS data store to write and read user profile information. The latest marketing campaign has increased traffic to the application by an order of magnitude. Users are reporting long delays when logging in after having signed up. Which solutions are valid approaches to addressing this lag? (Choose two.)

Set up a Multi-AZ configuration for your RDS and round-robin requests between the two RDS instances to spread out traffic.
Employ ElastiCache to cache users’ credentials after their initial visit to reduce trips to the database from the web application.
Set up a read replica configuration for your RDS and round-robin requests between all the replicas to spread out traffic.
Increase the number of EC2 instances allocated to your Auto Scaling group to spread out traffic on the web application tier.

A

BC

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25
Q
  1. In which of the following situations would you recommend using a placement group?

Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high disk IO.
Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput across two availability zones.
Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput within a single availability zone.
Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput to S3 buckets.

A

C. A placement group is concerned primarily with network throughput and reducing latency among EC2 instances within a single availability zone.

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true about cluster placement groups? (Choose two.)

All instances in the group must be in the same availability zone.
Instances in the group will see lowered network latency in communicating with each other.
Instances in the group will see improved disk write performance when communicating with S3.
Instances in the group must all be of the same instance class.

A

AB

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true about spread placement groups? (Choose two.)

All instances in the group must be in the same availability zone.
Instances in the group will see lowered network latency in communicating with each other.
You can have up to seven instances in multiple availability zones in the group.
AWS provisions the hardware rather than having you specify the distinct hardware for the group.

A

bc? Spread placement groups can span availability zones and support up to seven instances per zone

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28
Q
  1. Where is data stored when placed into S3-IA? (Choose two.)

In the region specified at bucket creation
In a special AWS “global” region for S3 storage
In at least three availability zones
In a single availability zone within at least three regions

A

ac? All S3 and S3-IA data is stored in a single region and within at least three availability zones within that region.

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29
Q
  1. You need to perform a large amount of OLAP. Which AWS service would you choose?

DynamoDB
RDS Aurora
Redshift
Oracle installed on EC2 instances

A

C

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30
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable RDS volume size when using provisioned IOPS storage?

8 TB
16 TB
12 TB
1 PB

A

b? All the major databases supported by RDS—MariaDB, SQL Server, MySQL, Oracle, and PostgreSQL—allow up to 16 TB of storage for a provisioned IOPS volume.

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a cold HDD EBS volume?

You need a performant solid-state drive.
You are trying to choose the lowest-cost EBS volume possible.
You are performing data warehousing using the volume.
You need an inexpensive boot volume.

A

b? A cold HDD is not available to be used as a boot volume.

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following are available to use as an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.)

General SSD
Cold HDD
Throughput optimized HDD
Provisioned IOPS

A

ad? HDD不能做boot volumes

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a General Purpose SSD EBS volume? (Choose two.)

You need to support large database workloads.
You want a blend of a performant SSD and a cost-sensitive SSD volume.
You are performing data warehousing using the volume.
You have low-latency apps and want to run them on a bootable volume.

A

BD

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a provisioned IOPS EBS volume? (Choose two.)

You want a low-cost option for your EBS volume.
You need to support a large MongoDB database workload.
You need massive performance and throughput for your applications.
You have applications that need a bootable environment but can fail from time to time and be re-created.

A

BC

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of SSD-backed volumes? (Choose two.)

Transactional workloads
Streaming workloads
Small I/O size
Throughput-focused

A

AC.An SSD volume is best for transactional workloads (A) with a large number of small I/O sized read/write operations.

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of HDD-backed volumes? (Choose two.)

Transactional workloads
Streaming workloads
Small I/O size
Throughput-focused

A

BD.An HDD-backed volume is best for streaming workloads where throughput needs to be maximized over IOPS.

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37
Q
  1. You are charged with installing Oracle on a fleet of EC2 instances due to custom Java-based plug-ins you need to install along with Oracle. Which EBS volume type would you choose to best support your Oracle installation?

Magnetic
Throughput-optimized HDD
Provisioned IOPS SSD
General SSD

A

C

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38
Q
  1. You are the solutions architect for a company installing a web application on a set of EC2 instances. The application writes a small amount of user profile data to attached EBS volumes, and accesses that data an average of once every five minutes if the user is still using the web application. Additionally, because of the high cost of the application’s RDS instance, you would like to minimize your EBS volume costs. Which EBS volume type would you choose to support these applications?

Magnetic
Throughput-optimized HDD
Provisioned IOPS SSD
General SSD

A

A

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following can be an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.)

Magnetic
Throughput-optimized HDD
Provisioned IOPS SSD
Cold HDD

A

ac. You can boot an EC2 instance off any SSD type, as well as the magnetic type.

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be used as an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.)

General SSD
Throughput-optimized HDD
Cold HDD
Magnetic

A

BC

41
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid Elastic Load Balancing options? (Choose two.)

ELB
MLB
ALB
VLB

A

ac. An ELB is an elastic load balancer and generally refers to a classic load balancer. An ALB is an application load balancer.

42
Q
  1. At what level of the TCP stack does a network load balancer operate?

Level 1
Level 4
Level 7
Level 8

A

B

43
Q
  1. At what levels of the TCP stack does a classic load balancer operate? (Choose two.)

Level 1
Level 4
Level 7
Level 8

A

bc. Classic load balancers operate at both the connection (Level 4) and the request (Level 7) layer of the TCP stack.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid reason to use an application load balancer?

You want your applications to automatically scale.
You want to balance load across your applications, which reside in containers.
You want to achieve better fault tolerance for your applications.
All of the above

A

D

45
Q
  1. You are an architect working on adding scalability to an application based on EC2 instances within a public-facing VPC. You want the maximum amount of flexibility in weighting and load balancing options, as you plan to experiment with various routing types to see which handles load most evenly. Which type of load balancer should you use?

Classic ELB
Application load balancer
Network load balancer
Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

A

B

46
Q
  1. You have a host of EC2 instances all with dedicated IP addresses serving results from complex computations. You want to load balance across these instances, each of which receives hundreds of thousands of requests a second currently. Which load balancer would you employ?

Classic ELB
Application load balancer
Network load balancer
Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

A

c. Network load balancers can handle the extremely high request load mentioned in the question as well as route between static IP addressed instances.

47
Q
  1. You have a fleet of web-hosting EC2 instances. Currently, you have SSL certificates installed for each EC2 instance, but the cost of maintaining these certificates and installing new ones has become higher over recent years. You want to architect a solution for SSL termination that doesn’t involve multiple certificates. Which load balancer would you suggest?

Classic ELB
Application load balancer
Network load balancer
Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

A

b. An ALB offers SSL termination and makes the SSL offload process very simple through tight integration with SSL processes. While an ELB will handle SSL termination, it does not offer the management features that ALBs do.

48
Q
  1. You need a load balancer that supports SSL termination. Which type of load balancer would you choose?

Classic ELB
Application load balancer
Network load balancer
Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

A

d? both ELBs and ALBs are correct when considering just SSL termination.

49
Q
  1. How many domains can you register and manage with Route 53?

50
100
There is no limit.
There is a limit of 50, but it can be raised upon request.

A

D. Route 53 supports up to 50 domain names by default, but this limit can be raised if requested.

50
Q
  1. Are zone apex records supported by Route 53?

Yes
No
Yes, as long as they point to AWS resources.
Not by default, but you can request support by AWS and then support them.

A

A. Route 53 does support zone apex (naked) domain records.

51
Q
  1. Which of the following do you need to handle when setting up ElastiCache?

Patching
Backups
Monitoring
None of the above

A

d? ElastiCache, when used through AWS, handles all of these tasks and more: hardware provisioning, software patching, setup, configuration, monitoring, failure recovery, and backups.

52
Q
  1. For which of the following would ElastiCache offer performance improvements? (Choose two.)

Gaming
ElastiCache can improve any application’s performance when used properly.
Financial services
A and C

A

BD

53
Q
  1. Which of the following would you use to interact with a CloudFront distribution?

CloudFormation
The AWS CLI
The AWS REST APIs
Any of these

A

d? CloudFront allows interaction via CloudFormation, the AWS CLI, the AWS console, the AWS CLI, the AWS APIs, and the various SDKs that AWS provides.

54
Q
  1. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.)

An ALB
DynamoDB
AWS Shield
An Oracle RDS instance

A

AC. CloudFront can front a number of AWS services: AWS Shield, S3, ELBs (including ALBs), and EC2 instances. NO Dynamo, NO RDS. NO Redshift.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.)

DynamoDB
A fleet of EC2 instances
S3 buckets
RedShift

A

BC

56
Q
  1. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.)

Lambda@Edge
A static website on S3
Aurora on RDS
ElastiCache instances

A

AB

57
Q
  1. Which of the following two are advantages of using a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.)

Performance
Fault tolerance
Integration with AWS managed services
Disaster recovery

A

AC

58
Q
  1. How does CloudFront increase the security of content at the edge? (Choose two.)

Required HTTPS at all edge locations
Integration with AWS WAF (if configured)
Automatic client keys encrypted with KMS
Automatic deployment of AWS Shield

A

BD. CloudFront automatically provides AWS Shield (standard) to protect from DDoS, and it also can integrate with AWS WAF and AWS Shield advance. HTTPS is not required

59
Q
  1. Choose the true statements about edge locations. (Choose two.)

There are fewer edge locations than regions.
There are more edge locations than regions.
There are fewer edge locations than availability zones.
There are more edge locations than availability zones.

A

BD? Edge locations number more than both regions and availability zones.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following can you do with CloudFront? (Choose two.)

Quickly deploy a global network for your content without contracts or startup requirements.
Quickly create websites that are dynamic and low latency.
Distribute content with low latency and high data transfer rates.
Provide storage for static files that are frequently accessed.

A

AC

61
Q
  1. Which domain name should you use to take advantage of CloudFront?

The domain name registered to your S3 buckets in Route 53
The domain name registered in CloudFront as the origin for your static and dynamic content
The domain name registered in your ALB or ELB pointing to your content
The domain name from the AWS console for your CloudFront distribution

A

B.When you create a CloudFront distribution, you register a domain name for your static and dynamic content. This domain should then be used by clients.

62
Q
  1. Which of the following might occur when content is requested from a CloudFront edge location? (Choose two.)

Cached content at the edge location is returned.
The request is passed directly to an origin server without CloudFront processing.
A request is made to an origin server for the requested content.
A redirect is returned to the client.

A

AC? CloudFront will always handle requests that it receives. It will either return the requested content if cached (A) or retrieve that content by requesting it from an origin server (C). It will not redirect the client (D), nor will it pass the request on directly (B).

63
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about CloudFront are not true? (Choose two.)

CloudFront edge locations are geographically distributed across the world.
CloudFront maintains persistent connections with origin servers.
A request will be routed by CloudFront to the nearest edge location to the origin server, which will serve that request.
CloudFront can use an RDS instance of PostgreSQL as an origin server.

A

CD. CloudFront maintains persistent connections with origin servers. RDS is not a valid origin server for cf

64
Q
  1. Which of the following are true about both S3 and CloudFront? (Choose two.)

They both store files.
They both support encryption of their content.
They both cache files.
They both provide low-latency distribution of content to clients.

A

AB. S3 stores files and CloudFront stores copies of files, Both also encrypt their files (B) as needed. Only CloudFront caches files

65
Q
  1. Which of the following content types can be served by CloudFront? (Choose two.)

The returned rows from a SQL query
The response from a PHP script
A Lambda function
HTML and CSS

A

BD. CloudFront can store and serve both static (HTML and CSS, option D) and dynamic (PHP, option B) content. not can an actual Lambda function

66
Q
  1. What is an edge location?

A specific node within a worldwide network of data centers that deliver CloudFront content
A virtual cloud of caching stations
A fleet of EC2 instances managed by AWS
An EC2 instance in a remote region from your primary content

A

A

67
Q
  1. What is a CloudFront distribution?

A worldwide network of data centers
A set of origin servers whose content is served by CloudFront via various edge locations
The cached content on CloudFront edge locations at any given time
The cached content from your account stored on CloudFront edge locations at any given time

A

B

68
Q
  1. How long is content cached at an edge location?

24 hours
12 hours
12 hours by default, but this value can be changed.
24 hours by default, but this value can be changed.

A

D

69
Q
  1. What is the shortest expiration period allowed for a CloudFront edge location?

0 seconds
5 seconds
30 seconds
1 minute

A

B

70
Q
  1. You have a CloudFront distribution setup, but you are not seeing any performance benefit to your users. What might be possible causes for the lack of benefit? (Choose two.)

Users do not have CloudFront enabled in their client applications and are therefore not getting the benefits of the CloudFront distribution. Enable CloudFront in their client applications.
The expiration period is set so low that caching is not happening enough to benefit users. Raise the expiration period time.
Your set of origin servers is too small and being flooded by requests from CloudFront. Consider increasing the number or processing power of origin servers.
Users are not close enough to edge locations to see a benefit from CloudFront.

A

B, C. The most obvious culprit is a very low expiration period (B). Ensure that time is not close to 0. Beyond that, it’s possible that—especially in conjunction with a very low expiration period—your compute resources or storage resources are getting flooded with requests. Consider using additional origin servers.

71
Q
  1. Which of the following immediately removes an object from all edge locations?

Removing the object from all origin servers
Removing all CloudFront edge locations with the object cached
Removing the object using the invalidation API
Invalidating the CloudFront distribution

A

C. The invalidation API is the fastest way to remove a file or object, although it will typically incur additional cost. (CloudFront)

72
Q
  1. Which of the following storage classes has the lowest first byte latency?

S3
S3-IA
S3 One Zone-IA
They are all identical.

A

D

73
Q
  1. Which of the following storage classes provides the fastest data retrieval speeds?

S3
S3-IA
S3 One Zone-IA
They are all identical.

A

D.With the exception of Glacier, retrieving data from the various S3 storage classes should be virtually identical (network issues notwithstanding). The classes differ in availability, but not in how fast data can be accessed.

74
Q
  1. How long does a typical Glacier data retrieval take?

1 hour
1–3 hours
3–5 hours
5–10 hours

A

C. Glacier data retrieval, using the standard class, takes 3–5 hours on average.

75
Q
  1. Why would you choose S3-IA over S3?

You want to save money and don’t need your data as quickly.
You want to save money and don’t need your data as frequently.
You want to save money and don’t need data in multiple availability zones.
You want to save money and don’t need fault tolerance of your data.

A

B. data in S3-IA is stored redundantly

76
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are not true? (Choose two.)

There are more edge locations than availability zones.
An edge location is separate from an availability zone.
An RDS instance can be an origin server.
The default expiration period is 12 hours.

A

CD?. An edge location is separate from an AZ.

77
Q
  1. What does AWS call a collection of edge locations?

CloudFront
An edge zone
Lambda@Edge
A distribution

A

D. A collection of edge locations is a distribution.A collection of edge locations is a distribution.

78
Q
  1. What type of distribution should you use for media streaming?

Web distribution
Media distribution
RTMP distribution
Edge distribution

A

C

79
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid media distributions for CloudFront? (Choose two.)

Web distribution
Media distribution
RTMP distribution
Edge distribution

A

AC

80
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid direct operations on an edge location? (Choose two.)

Read an object.
Write an object.
Delete an object.
Update an object.

A

AB? You can read and write objects directly to an edge location.

81
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid use cases for using ElastiCache? (Choose two.)

Real-time transactions
Offline transactions
Record storage
Business intelligence

A

AD. ElastiCache is ideal for high-performance and real-time processing as well as heavy-duty business intelligence.

82
Q
  1. Which of the following can ElastiCache be used for? (Choose two.)

Web server
Database cache
Object storage
Message broker

A

BD

83
Q
  1. Which of the following can ElastiCache be used for? (Choose two.)

Ephemeral storage
Long-term storage
Message Queue
Logging store

A

AC

84
Q
  1. What is an ElastiCache shard?

A collection of multiple nodes that make up a cluster
A collection of clusters in an ElastiCache distribution
A collection of edge locations in an ElastiCache distribution
A single node in a cluster

A

A. ElasticCache uses shards as a grouping mechanism for individual redis nodes

85
Q
  1. Which of the following provides low latency access to most frequently accessed data while storing all data in the cloud?

Storage gateway – snapshot
Storage gateway – virtual tape library
Storage gateway – stored volume
Storage gateway – cached volume

A

D. A storage gateway using cached volumes will cache frequently accessed data while storing the entire dataset on S3 in AWS.

86
Q
  1. Which of the following provides low latency access to all data while still storing the dataset in the cloud?

Storage gateway – snapshot
Storage gateway – virtual tape library
Storage gateway – stored volume
Storage gateway – cached volume

A

C. A storage gateway using stored volumes will store all data locally while backing up the data to S3 in AWS as well.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following provides the fastest access to a customer dataset?

S3 with Transfer Acceleration
Storage gateway – virtual tape library
Storage gateway – stored volume
S3 standard

A

C

88
Q
  1. Which of the following provides access to frequently accessed data at top speeds while still maintaining disaster recovery options?

Storage gateway – stored volume
Storage gateway – virtual tape library
S3-IA
S3 standard

A

A

89
Q
  1. You are creating a user data storage system by using an S3 bucket with multiple folders, one folder per user. You want to then tag each folder with the username of the staff member and build IAM permissions based on these tags. Which of the following is a problem with this approach?

S3 buckets cannot be permissioned using IAM.
Folders in an S3 bucket cannot have individual tags associated with them.
Buckets in S3 cannot be tagged with multiple tags.
IAM cannot operate based on individual S3 buckets.

A

B

90
Q
  1. You are in charge of a data migration your company is preparing to undertake. Your company wants to store files on AWS and see if the costs are lower than on-premises storage, but your company is being very cautious. In this first phase, it wants to ensure the lowest possible latency of the majority of the files. Which storage gateway configuration would you recommend?

Cached volumes
Virtual tape library
Snapshot
Stored volumes

A

D

91
Q
  1. Why would you choose to configure read replicas across all available AZs as opposed to configuring them in the same region as your primary database source?

You have a global customer base.
You want to ensure disaster recovery.
You want to maximize network throughput.
You should never configure read replicas outside of the region of the primary database instance.

A

a. read replicas do not increase network throughput; they just spread load out over the replicas, which may or may not desaturate the networks involved.

92
Q
  1. Why would you choose to configure read replicas across all available AZs in the same single region as your primary database instance as opposed to configuring them across all AWS regions?

You have a global customer base.
You want to ensure disaster recovery.
You have a localized customer base close to the target region.
You should never configure all read replicas within the same region of the primary database instance.

A

C

93
Q
  1. All your customers are in a single geographical region, and you have created a database instance and multiple read replicas across the AZs in that region. Is there any value in also creating replicas in additional regions?

No, there is no value in that approach.
Yes, as you gain some disaster recovery benefits from a replica in another region.
Yes, as customers may be routed to different regions when they request data from your databases.
Yes, as S3 buckets are in different regions as well.

A

B

94
Q
  1. Which of the following can be done to a read replica? (Choose two.)

Read from it.
Write to it.
Fail over to it.
Back it up.

A

ac. Read replicas can be backed up manually, and of course read from. However, they effectively become read-only instances, so cannot be written to. You also cannot fail over to a read replica. You can convert it to a stand-alone instance, but that is a manual process that is not a failover.

95
Q
  1. You have a number of large PDF files stored in an RDS instance. These PDFs are accessed infrequently, but when they are accessed, they need to respond quickly to requests. As the user base increases, the load is beginning to overwhelm the database. What suggestions would you make to improve performance? (Choose two.)

Move the PDFs to S3.
Install ElastiCache in front of the database.
Create read replicas of the primary database.
Consider increasing the available memory for the database instance.

A

CD

96
Q
  1. You have a number of large PDF files stored in an RDS instance used by a company’s internal staff, of which 80% are on-site. These PDFs are accessed infrequently, but when they are accessed, they need to respond quickly to requests. As the company’s support staff has increased, the load is beginning to overwhelm the database. What suggestions would you make to improve performance? (Choose two.)

Set up a CloudFront distribution.
Upgrade the instance running the RDS database.
Consider installing a storage gateway with stored volumes at the customer’s on-premises site.
Install ElastiCache in front of the database.

A

BC

97
Q
  1. You have a number of large PDF files stored in an RDS instance used by a company’s geographically distributed user base. These PDFs are accessed infrequently, but when they are accessed, they need to respond quickly to requests. As the company’s user base has increased, the load is beginning to overwhelm the database. What is the best option for improving database performance?

Set up a CloudFront distribution.
Create read replicas across the regions in which the user base accesses the application.
Consider installing a storage gateway with stored volumes at the customer’s on- premises site.
Install ElastiCache in front of the database.

A

B

98
Q
  1. You have a number of large images stored in an RDS instance used by a company’s geographically distributed user base. Each of these images is accessed several thousand times a day and needs to respond quickly to requests. As the company’s user base has increased, the load is beginning to overwhelm the database. What is the best option for improving database performance?

Upgrade the instance running the RDS database.
Create read replicas across the regions in which the user base accesses the application.
Consider installing a storage gateway with stored volumes at the customer’s on- premises site.
Install ElastiCache in front of the database.

A

d. Amazon ElastiCache - Fully managed in-memory data store, compatible with Redis or Memcached.