Ch14 Flashcards

1
Q

relationship in which both members benefit from their interaction

A

Mutualism

eg: termites and protozoa that break down the cellulose with the help of bacterial enzymes that live in protozoa
eg: bacteria in human colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many more bacterial cells are living on humans than human cells

A

10 times more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

relationship in which one member of the relationship benefits without significantly affecting the other.

A

Commensalism

eg: Staphylococcus epidermis living on human skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Relationship in which the host is harmed and the recipient (pathogen-cause diseas) benefits

A

Parasitism

eg: Tuberculosis bacteria in human lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three types of symbiotic relationships

A

1) Mutualism
2) Commensalism
3) Parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Over time, what will parasitism eventually lead to

A

“Coevolution” towards commensalism or mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sites that are free of any microbes

A

axenic

eg: mother’s uterus, alveoli of lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Microbes that colonize the surfaces of the body without normally causing disease

A

Normal microbiota or normal flora/indigenous microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two main types of normal microbiota

A

1) Resident microbiota

2) Transient microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

remain a part of the normal microbiota of a person throughout life, found on the skin, mucous membranses of digestive tract, upper respiratory tract, distal portion of the urethra, and vagina

A

Resident Microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T of F , most of the resident microbiota are commensal

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Remain in the body for only a few hours, days, or months before disappearing

A

Transient Microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does your normal microbiota begin to develop?

A

during the birthing process, microbes entered nose and mouth via the birth canal, first breath established microbiota in respiratory tract, first meal for your colon, staphylococcus on skin from hospital staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Review resident microbiota

A

table 14.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 conditions in which normal microbiota become “opportunistic pathogens-opportunists”

A

1) Introduction of a memeber of the normal microbiota into an unusual site in the body
2) Immune suppression
3) Changes in the normal microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is E coli’s normal microbiota, where does it become an opportunistic pathogen

A

normal microbiota is in the colon, it becomes opportunistic pathogen in the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The term used to describe carriers of disease that are asymptomatic and infective for years.

A

“Carriers”- eg: Tuberculosis, syphilis, and AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the term used to describe when a microbe overcomes body’s external defenses, multiplies, and becomes established in the body-successfully invades body

A

“infection”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

refers to the mere presence of microbes in or on the body

A

contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The sites at which pathogens enter the body

A

“Portals of entry”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the three major Portals of entry

A

1) the skin
2) the mucous membranes
3) the placenta
4) parenteral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which portal of entry do pathogens find more hospitable and easier portals of entry

A

mucous membranes

eg: respiratory tract is the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens (whooping cough, diphtheria, pneumonia, strep throat, meningitis
eg: prions enter via oral mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does skin become a portal of entry

A

1) hair follicles
2) sweat glands
3) cuts, abrasions (parenteral route)
4) parasitic worms that burrow thru skin
5) fungi that digest outer layer skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are forms of the parenteral route-

A

punctures by a nail, thorn, or hypodermic needle, cuts, bites, stab wounds, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chemicals that either harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage.

A

Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

two types of toxins

A

1) Exotoxins-secreted by microbes that are central to their pathogenicity in that they destroy host cells or interfere with metabolism (More lethal than Endotoxin)
2) Endotoxin-lipid A (portion of membrane’s lipopolysaccharide)…released when “Gram negative bacteria” divide, die naturally, or are digested by phagocytic cells such as macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Virulence factors related to the evasion of phagocytosis

A

Antiphagocytic Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are two antiphagocytic factors which bacteria use to evade phagocytosis

A

1) Capsules- composed of chemicals normally found in the body including polysaccharides-does not stimulate host’s immune response, they are slippery too
2) Antiphagocytic Chemicals-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Source of exotoxins

A

Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are types of Antiphagocytic chemicals

A

1) M protein- made by Streptococcus pyogenes , resists phagocytosis and thus increases virulence
2) leukocidins-chemicals capable of destroying phagocytic white blood cells outright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chemical nature of exotoxins

A

It’s a protein or short peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Toxicity of exotoxins

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Exotoxins affect on host

A

It is variable depending on source maybe cytotoxin neurotoxin enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are exotoxins fever producing

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Anti-genicity of exotoxins

A

It is strong stimulates antitoxin (anti-body) production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anti-genicity of endotoxins

note: anti genitcity mean ability of a chemical to trigger a specific immune response

A

Weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Representative diseases for exotoxins

A

Botulism ,tetanus, gas gangrene, Diphtheria, cholera , plague staphylococcal food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the source of endotoxins

A

Gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the chemical nature of endotoxins

A

Lipid portion of Lipopolysaccharide(lipid A)of outer cell wall membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Toxicity of endotoxins

A

Low, but maybe fatal in high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Endotoxins affect on host

A

Fever, lithargy, malaise, shock ,blood Coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Do endotoxins cause fever

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Antigenicity of endotoxins

A

Weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Toxoid formation for immunization of endotoxins

A

Not feasible because endotoxins are stable at 121°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Representative diseases for endotoxins

A

Typhoid fever, tularemia , endotoxic shock , urinary tract infections , meningococcal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What makes up innate immunity?

A

The first and second lines of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What makes up the first line of defense

A

External physical barriers to pathogens especially the skin and mucous membranes and their secretions
eg: Tissues and Organs: Barriers, Lymph, Blood, normal microbiota (microbial antagonism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What makes up the second line of defense

A

Is internal ,and is composed of protective cells , blood-borne chemicals, and processes that can inactivate or kill invaders
eg: Cells: Local cells, mast cells, macrophages, tissue, endothelial

   Chemical:  Activators, chemotaxis, growth factors, vasodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What makes up adaptive immunity

A

The third line of defense
Note: Respond against unique species or strains of pathogens and alters the body’s defenses such that they act more effectively upon subsequent infection with the specific strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the role of Normal Microbiota in Innate Immunity (first line of defense)

A
  • normal microbiota help protect the body by competing with potential pathogens
  • activities of normal microbiota make it hard for pathogens to compete
    a) consumption of nutrients unavail to pathogens
    b) create env. unfavorable to other pathogens by changing pH
    c) stimulate bodys second line of defense
    d) promote overall health by providing vitamins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the role of Skin in Innate Immunity I (first line of defense)

A

a) Epidermis-tightly packed cells, few pathogens can penetrate these layers, shedding of dead skin cells remove attached pathogens, epidermal dendric cells phagocytize pathogens
b) Dermis-have collagen (protein)-give strength and pliability to resist abrasions that could introduce microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the role of skin in innate immunity II (first line of defense)

A

Skin has chemicals that defend against pathogens
eg: perspiration secreted by sweat glands:
a) salt-inhibit growth of by drawing water from pathogens cells
b) antimicrobial peptides-sweat glands secrete dermicidins
c) Lysozyme-destroys cell wall of bacteria
Sebum secreted by sebaceous glands(oil)
a) help keep skin pliable and less likely to break
b)lowers pH of skin to a level inhibitory to many bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Number of cell layer in skin

A

many

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cells tightly packed in skin?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cells dead or alive in skin

A

epidermis: dead
dermis: alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mucus present in skin

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Relative water content in skin

A

dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

defensins present in skin?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

lysozyme present in skin

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Sebum present in skin

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cilia present in skin

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Constant shedding and replacement of cells in skin

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

number of cells layers in mucous membrane

A

one to a few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

cells tightly packed in mucous membrane?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

cells dead or alive in mucous membrane?

A

alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mucus present in mucous membrane?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Relative content of water in mucous membrane

A

moist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Defensins present in mucous membrane

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lysozyme present in mucous membrane

A

with some

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sebum present in mucous membrane

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cilia present in mucous membrane

A

not all, present in trachea and uterine tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Constant shedding and and replacement of cells

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what makes goblet cells and ciliated columnar cells

A

Stem cells

74
Q

secrete an extremely sticky mucus that traps bacteria and other pathogens

A

goblet cells

75
Q

has cilia that propel the mucus and its trapped particles and pathogens up from the lungs

A

ciliated columnar cells

76
Q

Where do dendritic cells reside?

A

on the epidermis and below the mucous epithelium to phagocytize invaders

77
Q

Locations of where you can find lysozyme

A

nasal mucous, tears made by the lacrimal apparatus, skin

78
Q

how does the lacrimal apparatus rid itself of irritants

A

it floods the eyes with tears

79
Q

how is the second line of defense different from the first line of defense

A

has no barriers associated with it

80
Q

What line of defense is contained in or originate in the blood

A

Second line of defense

81
Q

What is the second line of defense composed of

A

phagocytes (cells), antimicrobial chemicals(peptides, complement, interferons), processes (inflammation, fever)

82
Q

What are the plasma proteins of the second line of defense

A

Complement proteins (serum)

83
Q

a process where blood stem cells located in the bone marrow of large bones produce three types of formed elements

A

hematopoesis

84
Q

what are the three main types of formed elements

A

1) Erythrocytes
2) Platelets
3) Leukocytes

85
Q

what is the most numerous among the formed elements

A

erythrocytes

86
Q

a formed element Involved in the clotting of blood

87
Q

What are the two groups leukocytes are divided into

A

1) granulocytes

2) agranulocytes

88
Q

Have large granules in their cytoplasm that stain different colors

A

Granulocytes

89
Q

it’s cytoplasm appear uniform when viewed under a light microscope, named for not having granules but in actuality, they have them

A

Agranulocytes

90
Q

a process of escaping the blood via squeezing between the cells lining capillaries

A

diapedesis

91
Q

are not phagocytic, instead release inflammatory chemicals, an aspect of the second line of defense

92
Q

The only lymphocyte that is considered a part of innate immunity (second line of defense)

A

NK (natural killer) lymphocyte

93
Q

What cells are considered Agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and Monocytes

94
Q

mature into macrophages when they leave the blood via diapedises

95
Q

The two cells that phagocytize pathogens and inform cells of the adaptive immunity that there is a microbial invasions

A

Dendritic cells and Macrophages

96
Q

increase percentage of neutrophils and number of leukocytes are indicative of what type of disease?

97
Q

An increase in the number of lymphocytes are indicative of what type of infection?

A

viral infection

98
Q

What are the six steps of phagocytosis

A

1) chemotaxis
2) adherance
3) ingestion
4) maturation
5) killing
6) elimination

99
Q

What attract phagocytic leukocytes

A

1) microbial components and secretions
2) components of damaged tissues and white blood cells
3) Chemotactic factors
4) chemokines

100
Q

What are chemotactic factors

A

defensins, peptides derived from complement, and chemokines

101
Q

What are chemokines

A

chemicals released by leukocytes already at the site of infection

102
Q

what is defensins

A

They are, and function as, host defense peptides. They are active against bacteria, fungi and many enveloped and nonenveloped viruses

103
Q

The process of covering pathogens with antimicrobial proteins (complement) or specific antimicrobial proteins called antibodies

A

opsonization

104
Q

What are the proteins used to cover pathogens during opsonization called?
note: these types of proteins also increase the number and kinds of binding sites on a microbes surface

105
Q

phagosome

A

vessicle used by phagocytes to contain microbe during phagocytosis

106
Q

contain anttimicrobial substances such as highly reactive toxic forms of oxygen, lipases, proteases, nucleases

A

phagolysosome (lysosome)

107
Q

the elimination of remnants of microbes during the end of phagocytosis

A

exocytosis

108
Q

How do phagocytes destroy only invading pathogens and not self cells

A

1) phagocytes have toll like receptors for various microbial surface components lacking on body’s cells
2) Opsonins such as complement and antibody provide a signal to the phagocyte

109
Q

What cells are responsible for Nonphagocytic Killing

A

1) Eosinophils
2) NK lymphocytes (perforin and granzyme)
3) Neutrophils

110
Q

although it is capable of phagocytosis this cell’s mode of attack is secreting antimicrobial chemicals (extracellular protein toxins onto the surface of the parasite (worms) or the ejecting of mitochondrial DNA is used to kill Gram negative bacteria

A

Eosinophils

111
Q

secretes toxins onto the surfaces of “virally” infected cells and neoplasms (tumors)

A

NK natural killer cells (lymphoctyes) second line of defense “innate immunity”

112
Q

What are the chemical defenses that augment phagocytosis in the second line of defense

A

Lysozyme, defensins, toll like receptors, NOD proteins, interferons, and complement

113
Q

receptors found on phagocytic cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, epithelial cells) to detect molecules shared by bacteria and viral pathogens

A

Toll like receptors (receptors for pathogen associated molecular patterns)

114
Q

Term used to describe pathogenic microbial molecules such as: flagellin, unmethylated pairs of cytosine and guanine nucleotides from bacteria and viruses, double stranded RNA, single stranded viral RNA

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)

115
Q

Which TLRs are found in cytoplasmic membrane

A

TLR 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

116
Q

Which TLRs are found in phagosome membrane

A

TLR 3, 7, 8, 9

117
Q

another set of receptors for pathogen associated molecular patterns , but these are found inside of cell instead of the membrane

A

NOD proteins

118
Q

What are the four attributes of adaptive immunity?

A

1) Memory-
2) Diversity
3) Tolerance- tolerating our own antigens our own body, ability to distinguish ourselves from foreign material (express proteins that don’t belong to body)
4) Specificity

119
Q

What cells do adaptive immunity involve?

A

1) B lymphocytes (B cells) -Humoral immune response

2) T lymphocytes (T cells)-cell mediated immune responses

120
Q

The maturation process of our immune system in which deletion of lymphocytes that respond to self are deleted until those lymphocytes that don’t respond to self and respond to only foreign antigens are left

A

Clonal Deletion

note: this is a Tolerance attribute of “adaptive immunity”

121
Q

Cells that are specific to an antigen are?

A

The T lymphocytes and the B lymphocytes

122
Q

The cell that responds to a certain antigen undergoes? hint: considered a specific attribute of adaptive immunity

A

Clonal selection

note: selected cell proliferates and produces antibodies against a certain antigen

123
Q

The ability of our aquired immune system to make antibodies against a wide variation of antigens shows what specific attribute

124
Q

The cells undergoing cloning selection will eventually become ?

A

memory cells and will make more antibodies with subsequent exposure to the antigen in the future

125
Q

Responded to very specifically by a lymphocyte

A

Viral Epitope

126
Q

a “B” cell receptor or “T” cell receptor will respond to only a specific?

A

epitope found on an antigen

127
Q

Where does the epitope and receptor make contact?

A

At the antigen binding sites of the “variable region” of the lymphoctye (B or T)

128
Q

if you build up a response to a vaccination injection it is considered ? What adaptive immunity attribute does this reflect?

A

Active immunity (creating antibodies in response to the vaccination)

note: just because you got a vaccination shot does not mean you immediately have active immunization….your body must produce the antibodies to a level considered an active response
note: this demonstrates memory

129
Q

Any immune response against a foreign antigen that is exagerated beyond the norm

A

Hypersensitivities

130
Q

What are the two types of hypersensitivities focused in lecture?

A

1) Type 1 (immediate)

2) Type 4 (delayed or cell mediated)

131
Q

What is Type 1 (immediate) hypersensitivity also known as?

132
Q

How do allergy responses take place

A

an antigen activates a B cell response (in the mucous membrane) that make IgE and attach to mast cells, when the mast cells is exposed to subsequent antigen, the mast cell will release alergic mediators (histamines, serotonin so forth) which lead to allergies (hay fever and asthma)

note: this is an immediate type I hypersensitivity
eg: pollen could be considered the allergen

133
Q

Characteristics of Type I Immediate hypersensitivity

A
  • *Localized or systemic in response to antigen
  • *Develops within seconds or minutes
  • *commonly called allergy, and antigens that stimulate it are called allergens
134
Q

Systemic response to a food alergy

A

anaphylactic response

135
Q

Treatments for hypersensitivity Type 1 (immediate) for pollen, asthma, anaphylaxis

A

1) anti-histamines
2) corticosteroid and a bronchodilator
3) epinephrine for anaphylaxis

136
Q

Type IV (Delayed or cell mediated) hypersensitivity symptoms

A

1) inflammation 12 to 24 hours after contact with certain antigens
2) results from interactions betweenantigen, antigen presenting cells, T cells,
3) the delayed response is attributed to the time it takes for macrophages and T cells to proliferate at original site of antigen

137
Q

Examples of Type IV hypersensitivity conditions

A

1) poison ivy

2) poison oak

138
Q

subsequent antibody response by B cells is called what type of respones

A

Humoral response

139
Q

What does diversity in B cells allow us to do?

A

Allows us to clone selection and to develop a specific response to a particular antigen and then remember exposure to that specific antigen

140
Q

what is something that can happen during antigen and antibody interaction

A

agglutination

141
Q

What is the advantage of the antibody receptor being a “Y” shape

A

it can bind to more than one antigen

142
Q

how can you tell if a soluble antigen interacts with its corresponding antibody?

A

The soluble antigen will precipitate out of the solution forming a white line (line of precipitation)

143
Q

a person that is type B blood will form agglutination of blood when exposed to

A

anti-B antibody

note:

144
Q

What does ELISA stand for?

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

145
Q

What is ELISA ?

A

1) antigen attached to bottom of well
2) gelatin added to block uncoated surface of well
3) patient serum is added to antigen: complimentary antibody binds to antigen
4) Enzyme linked antibody is added and binds to already bound antibody
5) Enzyme substrate is added and there is a color change if there is an complimentary antibody within the initial blood serum.
note: the ELISA test is so specific, we can use it to quantify the amount of antibody present in blood serum

146
Q

Sandwich Elisa

A

the opposite of Elisa, well is lined with the antibody, and put blood serum on to see if blood serum has complimentary antigen to antibody in the well

147
Q

What can the ELISA test do?

A

1) can detect antibody or antigen
2) can quantify antibody or antigen
3) easy, cheap, and can test many samples quickly
4) plates coated with antigen and gelatin can be stored and used later

148
Q

How can you use an antigen or antibody for diagnosis purposes

A

you can line the bottom of titter well in ELISA test with either antigen or antibody and test to see if person has been infected with a disease.

149
Q

has to do with disease in populations

A

Epidemiology

150
Q

When do people go to the doctor

A

When the symptoms and signs are most severe (number of pathogenic microorganisms are at there highest

151
Q

How did Etiology come about?

A

It came about from the Germ theory (Pasteur and Koch), and Koch’s postulates

152
Q

if everyone has a respiratory disease, how can you suspect the pathogen was contracted

A

via droplet (contact transmission), or airborne (vehicle transmission)

153
Q

If everyone has a gastrointestinal infection such as diarrhea, how do you suspect the pathogen was contracted

A

waterborne or foodborne (vehicle transmission)

154
Q

If everyone is getting a systemic disease such as malaria

A

It is most likely transmitted via vector

155
Q

number of diseased cases goes much more above the expected number of cases

A

Epidemic (outbreak)

156
Q

what are the two ways (measures) in which epidemiologist track occurrences of disease

A

1) incidence- number of new cases of a disease in a given area during a given time period
2) Prevalence-number of total cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time

157
Q

disease is always present in some number in the population

158
Q

Occurs in higer rates in seeming unrelated circumstances in different areas

A

Sporadic

eg: Eboli virus

159
Q

An outbreak in a geographic area at a rate higher than normally expected

160
Q

Pandemic

A

a worldwide epidemic

161
Q

Diseases (eg: Salmonella) that are required by law for physicians to notify the health department (who reports it to the Center of Diseas and Control (CDC)) with each case that is diagnosed by physician

A

Nationally notifiable infectious diseases

162
Q

The diseases that are reported to the CDC are published in what is known as the

A

MMWR (Morbidity/Mortality Weekly Report)

163
Q

Consist of careful tabulation of data concerning a disease
-Record information about the location and time of the cases of disease
-Collect patient information
Try to identify the index case (first case) of the disease

A

Epidemiological Studies

eg: studies conducted by Robert Snow with the outbreak of Cholera

164
Q

Seeks to find the probable cause, mode of transmission, and methods of prevention

  • useful in situations where Koch’s postulates can’t be applied
  • often retrospective-investigation occurs after outbreak has occured
A

Analytical Epidemiological study

165
Q

Involves testing a hypothesis concerning the cause of a disease

A

Experimental Epidemiological study

eg: application of Koch’s postulates

166
Q

Types of Nosocomial Infections

A

1) exogenous-pathogen acquired from health care environment
2) Endogenous-pathogen arises from normal microbiota due to factors within health care settings
3) Iatrogenic-results from modern medical procedures (surgery or catheter)

167
Q

how do nosocomial infections take place

A

1) presence of microorganisms in hospital environment
2) immunocompromised patients
3) transmission of pathogens between staff and patients and among patients

168
Q

What is the most effective way to reduce nosocomial infections

A

hand washing

169
Q

What is the function of the complement

A

1) Opsonization
2) Chemotaxis
3) Cell lysis
4) Clumping of antigen bearing agents

170
Q

t or f, there are more gram positive bacteria than gram negative bacteria on the normal microbial flora of skin

171
Q

What is the environment of oral cavity

A

moist, nutrients, antibacterial compounds, anaerobic

172
Q

what is related to dental plaque on teeth

A

high sugar, organic acids, attachment, caries, and gingivitis

173
Q

normal microbial flora of Gastrointestinal tract

A

pH variations, anoxic, vit B12 and K, specific species selected for with different diet

174
Q

what is the pH in the stomach, S. intestine, and L. intestine

A

1) Stomach (2)
2) S. Intestine (4-5)
3) L. Intestine (7)

175
Q

Role of adhesion in infection

A

required to successfully establish colonies within the host

176
Q

Virulence factors of infectious agents

A

1) extracellular enzymes-dissolve structural chemicals in body, help pathogen maintain infection
2) Toxins-
a) chemicals that harm tissues or trigger host immune
b) toxemia-toxins in bloodstream carried beyond site of infection
* **these are exotoxins and endotoxins
3) Antiphagocytic factors
a) bacterial capsule
b) antiphagocytic chemicals (leukocidins-destroy phagocytes and
4) Attachment factors

177
Q

Stages of infectious disease

A

1) Incubation period
2) Prodromal period
3) Illness
4) Decline
5) Convalescence

178
Q

Stage of infectious disease with highest number of microorganisms or intensity of signs or symptoms

179
Q

Which cells has to do with Humoral immunity

180
Q

Which cells has to do with Cellular Immunity