Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathoma Notes > CH11 - Exocrine Pancreas, Gallbladder, and Liver Pathology > Flashcards

CH11 - Exocrine Pancreas, Gallbladder, and Liver Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is annular pancreas?

A

Developmental malformation in which the pancreas forms a ring around the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In annular pancreas what is there a risk of?

A

duodenal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation and hemorrhage of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is acute pancreatitis due to?

A

autodigestion of pancreatic parenchyma by pancreatic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does premature activation of trypsin lead to?

A

activation of other pancreatic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does acute pancreatitis result in?

A

liquefactive hemorrhagic necrosis of the pancreas and fat necrosis of the peripancreatic fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is acute pancreatitis most commonly due to?

A

alcohol and gallstones;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Beside alcohol and gallstones what are some other causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

include trauma, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, drugs, scorpion stings, mumps, and rupture of a posterior duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical features for acute pancreatitis?

A

1) Epigastric abdominal pain that radiates to the back 2) Nausea and vomiting 3) Periumbilical and flank hemorrhage 4) Elevated serum lipase and amylase - lipase is more specific for pancreatic damage 5) Hypocalcemia - calcium is consumed during saponification in fat necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In acute pancreatitis why is there periumbilical and flank hemorrhage?

A

necrosis spreads into the periumbilical soft tissue and retroperitoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In acute pancreatitis why is there elevated serum lipase and amylase?

A

lipase is more specific for pancreatic damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the complications for acute pancreatitis?

A
  1. Shock 2. Pancreatic pseudocyst 3. Pancreatic abscess 4. DIC and ARDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In acute pancreatitis why is shock one of the complications?

A

Its due to peripancreatic hemorrhage and fluid sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In acute pancreatitis what happens in pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

Its formed by fibrous tissue surrounding liquefactive necrosis and pancreatic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does a pancreatic pseudocyst present?

A

as an abdominal mass with persistently elevated serum amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens when a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures?

A

it is associated with release of enzymes into the abdominal cavity and hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is pancreatic abscess often due to?

A

Ecoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does pancreatic abscess present?

A

with abdominal pain, high fever, and persistently elevated amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Fibrosis of pancreatic parenchyma, most often secondary to recurrent acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis most commonly due to?

A

Alcohol in adults and cystic fibrosis in children, many cases are idiopathic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does acute pancreatitis leading to pancreatic insufficiency result in?

A

malabsorption with steatorrhea and fat soluble vitamin deficiencies. Amylase and lipase are not useful serologic markers of chronic pancreatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the clinical features of acute pancreatitis?

A
  1. epigastric abdominal pain that radiates to the back 2. Pancreatic insufficiency 3. Dystrophic calcification of pancreatic parenchyma on imaging, contrast studies reveal a [chain of lakes] pattern due to dilatation of pancreatic ducts. 4. Secondary diabetes mellitus 5. Increased risk for pancreatic carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In acute pancreatitis why is there a chain of lakes pattern on contrast studies?

A

It is due to the dilation of pancreatic ducts and dystrophic calcification of pancreatic parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is secondary diabetes mellitus related to acute pancreatitis?

A

It?s a late complication due to destruction of the islets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma arising from the pancreatic ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is pancreatic carcinoma most commonly seen in?

A

the elderly (average age is 70 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the major risk factors for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

smoking and chronic pancreatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the clinical features for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

They usually occur late in disease. 1. Epigastric abdominal pain and weight loss 2. Obstructive jaundice with pale stools and palpable gallbladder 3. Secondary diabetes mellitus 4. Pancreatitis 5. Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) 6. Serum tumor marker is CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What tumor is secondary diabetes mellitus associated with?

A

It?s associated with tumors that arise in the body or tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does Trousseau sign present?

A

as swelling, erythema, and tenderness in the extremities (seen in 10% of patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

For pancreatic carcinoma with obstructive jaundice with pale stools and palpable gallbladder what is it associated with?

A

tumors that arise in the head of the pancreas (most common location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does surgical resection of the pancreatic carcinoma involve?

A

en bloc removal of the head and neck of pancreas, proximal duodenum, and gallbladder (Whipple procedure).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the prognosis for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Very poor prognosis; 1-year survival is < 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

Failure to form or early destruction of extra hepatic biliary tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does biliary atresia lead to?

A

biliary obstruction within the first 3 months of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does biliary atresia present with?

A

jaundice and progresses to cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does cholelithiasis lead to?

A

(gallstones) Solid, round stones in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is cholelithiasis due to?

A

precipitation of cholesterol (cholesterol stones) or bilirubin (bilirubin stones) in bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does cholelithiasis arise with?

A

(1) supersaturation of cholesterol or bilirubin, (2) decreased phospholipids (e.g., lecithin) or bile acids (normally increase solubility), or (3)stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common type of cholelithiasis?

A

cholesterol stones (yellow) are the most common type (90%), especially in the West

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is cholelithiasis usually described?

A

radiolucent - 10% are radiopaque due to associated calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the risk factors for cholelithiasis?

A

They are age (40s), estrogen (female gender, obesity, multiple pregnancies and oral contraceptives), dofibrate, Native American ethnicity, Crohn disease, and cirrhosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are bilirubin stones (pigmented) composed of?

A

bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do bilirubin stones appear?

A

They are usually radiopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the risk factors for bilirubin stones?

A

They are extravascular hemolysis (increased bilirubin in bile) and biliary tract infection (eg. E coli, Ascaris lumbricoides, and Clonorchis sinensis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is Ascitris lumbricoides related to bilirubin stones?

A

it is a common roundworm that infects 25% of the world’s population, especially in areas with poor sanitation (fecal-oral transmission); infects the biliary tract, increasing the risk for gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is Clonorchis sinensis related to bilirubin stones?

A

It is endemic in China, Korea, and Vietnam (Chinese liver fluke); infects the biliary tract, increasing the risk for gallstones, cholangitis, and cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the symptoms for gallstones?

A

they are usually asymptomatic;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the complications for gallstones?

A

They include biliary colic, acute and chronic cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is biliary colic?

A

Waxing and waning right upper quadrant pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is biliary colic due to?

A

the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are the symptoms for biliary colic relieved?

A

if the stone passes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What may common bile duct obstruction result in?

A

acute pancreatitis or obstructive jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does an impacted stone in the cystic duct result in?

A

dilatation with pressure ischemia, bacterial overgrowth (E coli), and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does acute cholecystitis present?

A

with right upper quadrant pain, often radiating to right scapula, fever with increased WBC count, nausea, vomiting, and increased serum alkaline phosphatase (from duct damage), risk of rupture if left untreated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is chronic cholecystitis?

A

Chronic inflammation of the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is chronic cholecystitis due to?

A

chemical irritation from longstanding cholelithiasis, with or without superimposed bouts of acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is chronic cholecystitis characterized by?

A

herniation of gallbladder mucosa into the muscular wall (Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does chronic cholecystitis present?

A

with vague right upper quadrant pain, especially after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a late complication of chronic cholecystitis?

A

Porcelain gallbladder is a late complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is porcelain gallbladder?

A
  1. Shrunken, hard gallbladder due to chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and dystrophic calcification 2. Increased risk for carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the treatment for porcelain gallbladder?

A

it is cholecystectomy, especially if porcelain gallbladder is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is ascending cholangitis?

A

Bacterial infection of the bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is ascending cholangitis usually due to?

A

ascending infection with enteric gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does ascending cholangitis present as?

A

sepsis (high fever and chills), jaundice, and abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

With what is there increased incidence of ascending cholangitis?

A

Increased incidence with choledocholithiasis (stone in biliary ducts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is gallstone ileus?

A

Gallstone enters and obstructs the small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the gallstone ileus due to?

A

cholecystitis with fistula formation between the gallbladder and small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is gallbladder carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma arising from the glandular epithelium that lines the gallbladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a major risk factor for development of gallbladder carcinoma?

A

gallstones are a major risk factor, especially when complicated by porcelain gallbladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How does gallbladder carcinoma classically present?

A

as cholecystitis in an elderly woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the prognosis for gallbladder carcinoma?

A

poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is jaundice?

A

Yellow discoloration of the skin; earliest sign is scleral icterus (yellow discoloration of the sclera)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is jaundice due to?

A

Increased serum bilirubin, usually > 2.5 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does jaundice arise with?

A

disturbances in bilirubin metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happens to RBC?s in bilirubin metabolism?

A

RBCs are consumed by macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What happens to the protoporphyrin after the reticuloendothelial system?

A

The protoporphyrin (from heme) is converted to unconjugated bilirubin (UCB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens to the unconjugated bilirubin?

A

The albumin carries UCB to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens to the UCB (unconjugated bilirubin) in the liver?

A

Uridine glucuronyl transferase (UGT) in hepatocytes conjugates bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin?

A

it is transferred to bile canaliculi to form bile, which is stored in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where is bile released?

A

It is released into the small bowel to aid in digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What happens to the conjugated bilirubin when it is in the intestines?

A

Intestinal flora convert CB to urobilinogen, which makes the stool brown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is conjugated bilirubin related to why urine is yellow?

A

Urobilinogen (which is what CB is converted into in the intestines) is also partially reabsorbed into the blood and filtered by the kidney, making the urine yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the etiology for Extravascular hemolysis or Ineffective erythropoiesis?

A

High levels of UCB overwhelm the conjugating ability of the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the lab findings for extravascular hemolysis or Ineffective erythropoiesis?

A

Increased UCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the clinical features for extravascular hemolysis or ineffective erythropoiesis?

A

dark urine due to increased urine urobilinogen (UCB is not water soluble and, thus, is absent from urine)

88
Q

For extravascular hemolysis or ineffective erythropoiesis what is there an increased risk for?

A

pigmented bilirubin gallstones

89
Q

What is the etiology of physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

Newborn liver has transiently low UGT activity.

90
Q

What is the laboratory finding for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

increased UCB

91
Q

What is the clinical findings for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

UCB is fat soluble and can deposit in the basal ganglia (kernicterus) leading to neurological deficits and death.

92
Q

What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

phototherapy (makes UCB water soluble),

93
Q

What is the etiology for Gilbert syndrome?

A

Mildly low UGT activity; autosomal recessive

94
Q

What are the laboratory findings for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

Increased UCB

95
Q

What are the clinical features for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

Jaundice during stress (e.g., severe infection); otherwise, not clinically significant

96
Q

What is the etiology for Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Absence of UGT

97
Q

What are the lab findings for Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Increased UCB

98
Q

What are the clinical features for Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Kernicterus; usually fatal

99
Q

What is the etiology for Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Deficiency of bilirubin canalicular transport protein; autosomal recessive

100
Q

What are the laboratory findings for Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Increased CB

101
Q

What are the clinical features for Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

The liver is dark; otherwise, not clinically significant

102
Q

What is similar to Dubin-Johnson syndrome and how can you tell the difference?

A

Rotor syndrome is similar to Dubin-Johnson syndrome, but lacks liver discoloration.

103
Q

What is the etiology for biliary tract obstruction (obstructive jaundice)?

A

Associated with gallstones, pancreatic carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma, parasites, and liver fluke (Clonorchii sinensis)

104
Q

What are the lab findings for biliary tract obstruction (obstructive jaundice)?

A

Increased CB, decreased urine urobilinogen, and increased alkaline phosphatase

105
Q

What are the clinical features for biliary tract obstruction (obstructive jaundice)?

A

Dark urine and pale stool, Pruritus, Hypercholesterolemia with xanthomas, Steatorrhea with malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins

106
Q

In biliary tract obstruction (obstructive jaundice) why is there dark urine?

A

Its due to bilirubinuria

107
Q

In biliary tract obstruction (obstructive jaundice) why is there pruritis?

A

due to increased plasma bile acids

108
Q

What is the etiology for viral hepatitis?

A

inflammation disrupts hepatocytes and small bile ductules.

109
Q

What are the laboratory findings for viral hepatitis?

A

Increase in both CB and UCB

110
Q

What are the clinical features for viral hepatitis?

A

Dark urine due to increased urine bilirubin; urine urobilinogen is normal or decreased.

111
Q

How is HAV and HEV transmitted?

A

Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis E (HEV) fecal-oral transmission

112
Q

HAV is commonly acquired by

A

travelers.

113
Q

HEV is commonly acquired from

A

contaminated water or undercooked seafood.

114
Q

Is HAV chronic or acute?

A

Acute hepatitis; no chronic state.

115
Q

Is HEV chronic or acute?

A

Acute hepatitis; no chronic state.

116
Q

In hepatitis what marks active infection?

A

anti-virus IgM

117
Q

In hepatitis what does antivirus IgG mean?

A

Its in HAV and HEV, it is protective, and its presence indicates prior infection or immunization

118
Q

What is hepatitis immunization available for?

A

HAV only

119
Q

What is HEV infection in pregnant women associated with?

A

fulminant hepatitis (liver failure with massive liver necrosis)

120
Q

How is Hepatitis B (HBV) transmitted?

A

Parenteral transmission (e.g., childbirth, unprotected intercourse, and intravenous drug abuse [IVDA])

121
Q

What does Hepatitis B result in?

A

acute hepatitis; chronic disease occurs in 20% of cases

122
Q

How is Hepatitis C (HCV) transmitted?

A

Parenteral transmission (e.g., IVDA, unprotected intercourse, needle stick); risk from transfusion is almost nonexistent due to screening of the blood supply.

123
Q

What does hepatitis C result in?

A

acute hepatitis: chronic disease occurs in most cases

124
Q

What confirms HCV infection?

A

HCV-RNA test confirms infection; decreased RNA levels indicate recovery; persistence indicates chronic disease.

125
Q

How is Hepatitis D (HDV) transmitted?

A

Dependent on HBV for infection: superinfection upon existing HBV is more severe than coinfection (infection with HBV and HDV at the same time)

126
Q

For HBV what is the first serologic marker to rise?

A

HBsAG

127
Q

What defines the chronic state of HBV?

A

HBsAG > 6 months

128
Q

When is there both HBcAG and HBV DNA?

A

In the acute and maybe in chronic phase

129
Q

What indicates infectivity for the HBV?

A

Presence of HBeAG or HBV DNA

130
Q

With HBcAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the acute stage of HBV?

A

IgM

131
Q

With HBcAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the window stage of HBV?

A

IgM

132
Q

With HBcAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the resolved stage of HBV?

A

IgG

133
Q

With HBcAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the chronic stage of HBV?

A

IgG

134
Q

With HBsAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the resolved stage of HBV?

A

IgG (protective)

135
Q

With HBsAB what immunoglobulin is seen in the immunization stage of HBV?

A

IgG (protective)

136
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

Inflammation of liver parenchyma, usually due to hepatitis virus

137
Q

What is viral hepatitis usually due to and what are some other causes for it?

A

EBV and CMV

138
Q

What does the hepatitis virus cause?

A

acute hepatitis, which may progress to chronic hepatitis.

139
Q

How does acute hepatitis present?

A

as jaundice (mixed CB ?conjugated bilirubin and UCB ?unconjugated bilirubin) with dark urine (due to CB), fever, malaise, nausea, and elevated liver enzymes (ALT > AST),

140
Q

For acute hepatitis what does acute inflammation involve and how is it characterized?

A

It involves lobules of the liver and portal tracts, and is characterized by apoptosis of hepatocytes

141
Q

What are the symptoms for acute hepatitis?

A

Some cases may be asymptomatic with elevated liver enzymes. Symptoms last < 6 months,

142
Q

What is chronic hepatitis characterized by?

A

symptoms that last > 6 months

143
Q

What does inflammation in chronic hepatitis predominantly involve?

A

the portal tract

144
Q

For chronic hepatitis what is there a risk of?

A

progression to cirrhosis

145
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

End-stage liver damage characterized by disruption of the normal hepatic parenchyma by bands of fibrosis and regenerative nodules of hepatocytes

146
Q

In cirrhosis how is fibrosis mediated?

A

by TGF-beta from stellate cells which lie beneath the endothelial cells that line the sinusoids.

147
Q

What are the clinical features for cirrhosis due to?

A
  1. Portal hypertension 2. Decreased detoxification 3. Decreased protein synthesis
148
Q

For the clinical features of cirrhosis what does portal hypertension lead to?

A

1) Ascites (fluid in the peritoneal cavity) 2) Congestive splenomegaly/hypersplenism 3) Portosystemic shunts (esophageal varices, hemorrhoids, and caput medusae) 4) Hepatorenal syndrome (rapidly developing renal failure secondary to cirrhosis)

149
Q

For the clinical features of cirrhosis what does decreased detoxification lead to?

A

1) Mental status changes, asterixis, and eventual coma (due to T serum ammonia); metabolic, hence reversible 2) Gynecomastia, spider angiomata. and palmar erythema due to hyperestrinism 3) jaundice

150
Q

For the clinical features of cirrhosis what does decreased protein synthesis lead to?

A

1) Hypoalbuminemia with edema 2) Coagulopathy due to decreased synthesis of clotting factors; degree of deficiency is followed by prothrombin time (PT).

151
Q

What happens in alcohol related liver disease?

A

Damage to hepatic parenchyma due to consumption of alcohol

152
Q

What is the most common cause of liver disease in the West?

A

Consumption of alcohol

153
Q

What is fatty liver?

A

it is the accumulation of fat in hepatocytes

154
Q

What does fatty liver result in?

A

a heavy, greasy liver

155
Q

How does fatty liver resolve?

A

with abstinence

156
Q

What does alcoholic hepatitis result from?

A

chemical injury to hepatocytes; generally seen with binge drinking

157
Q

With alcoholic hepatitis what mediates damage?

A

Acetaldehyde (metabolite of alcohol) mediates damage

158
Q

What is alcoholic hepatitis characterized by?

A

swelling of hepatocytes with formation of Mallory bodies (damaged cytokeratin filaments), necrosis, and acute inflammation

159
Q

How does alcoholic hepatitis present?

A

with painful hepatomegaly and elevated liver enzymes (AST > ALT), may result in death

160
Q

What is a long term complication of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Cirrhosis, chronic alcohol-induced liver damage;

161
Q

What is the frequency of cirrhosis in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

occurs in 10-20% of alcoholics

162
Q

What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

Fatty change, hepatitis, and/or cirrhosis that develop without exposure to alcohol (or other known insult)

163
Q

What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease associated with?

A

obesity

164
Q

How do you diagnose non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion; ALT > AST

165
Q

Wha is hemochromatosis?

A

Excess body iron leading to deposition in tissues (hemosiderosis) and organ damage (hemochromatosis)

166
Q

In hemochromatosis what mediates tissue damage?

A

It is mediated by generation of free radicals.

167
Q

What is hemochromatosis due to?

A

autosomal recessive defect in iron absorption (primary) or chronic transfusions (secondary)

168
Q

What is primary hemochromatosis due to?

A

mutations in the HFE gene, usually C282Y (cysteine is replaced by tyrosine at amino acid 282)

169
Q

When does hemochromatosis present?

A

in late adulthood

170
Q

What is the classic presentation for hemochromatosis?

A

Classic triad is cirrhosis, secondary diabetes mellitus, and bronze skin; other findings include cardiac arrhythmias and gonadal dysfunction (due to testicular atrophy).

171
Q

What are the lab findings for hemochromatosis?

A

Labs show increased ferritin, decreased TIBC, increased serum iron, and increased % saturation.

172
Q

For hemochromatosis, what does liver biopsy reveal?

A

accumulation of brown pigment in hepatocytes

173
Q

For hemochromatosis liver biopsy, what is the accumulated brown pigment in the hepatocytes?

A

Lipofuscin

174
Q

For hemochromatosis liver biopsy how do you identify the lipofuscin?

A

Prussian blue stain distinguishes iron (blue) from lipofuscin

175
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

it is a brown pigment that is a by-product from the turnover (wear and tear) of peroxidized lipids

176
Q

Where does lipofuscin commonly present?

A

in hepatocytes

177
Q

In hemochromatosis, what is there an increased risk of?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

178
Q

In hemochromatosis, what is the treatment?

A

It is phlebotomy

179
Q

What is Wilson?s Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive defect (ATP7B gene) in ATP-mediated hepatocvte copper transport

180
Q

What does Wilson?s Disease result in?

A

lack of copper transport into bile and lack of copper incorporation into ceruloplasmin which leads to copper build up in hepatocytes which leaks into serum, and deposits in tissues

181
Q

In Wilson?s Disease what leads to tissue damage?

A

Copper-mediated production of hydroxyl free radicals leads to tissue damage

182
Q

When does Wilson?s Disease present?

A

in childhood with: 1) cirrhosis 2) neuologic manifestations 3) Kayser-Fleisher rings in the cornea

183
Q

What are the neurologic manifestations in Wilson?s Disease?

A

behavioral changes, dementia, chorea, and Parkinsonian symptoms due to deposition of copper in basal ganglia

184
Q

In Wilson?s Disease what does the labs show?

A

increased urinary copper, decreased serum ceruloplasmin, and increased copper on liver biopsy.

185
Q

In Wilson?s Disease what is there an increased risk for?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

186
Q

What is the treatment for Wilson?s Disease?

A

D-penicillamine (chelates copper)

187
Q

What is primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Autoimmune granulomatous destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts

188
Q

In whom does primary biliary cirrhosis classically arise?

A

in women, the average age is 40 years

189
Q

What is primary biliary cirrhosis associated with?

A

other autoimmune diseases

190
Q

What is the etiology for primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

It is unknown; antimitochondrial antibody is present.

191
Q

How does primary biliary cirrhosis present?

A

It presents with features of obstructive jaundice

192
Q

What is a late complication for primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

cirrhosis

193
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Inflammation and fibrosis of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

194
Q

What is the appearance of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A
  1. Periductal fibrosis with an onion-skin appearance
195
Q

In primary sclerosing cholangitis what is seen in the uninvolved regions?

A

they are dilated resulting in a beaded appearance on contrast imaging

196
Q

What is the etiology for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

it is unknown, but associated with ulcerative colitis; p-ANCA is often positive

197
Q

What is p-ANCA?

A

Perinuclear Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies

198
Q

How does primary sclerosing cholangitis present?

A

It presents with obstructive jaundice; cirrhosis is a late complication.

199
Q

What is there an increased risk for with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

200
Q

What is Reye syndrome?

A

Fulminant liver failure and encephalopathy in children with viral illness who take aspirin

201
Q

What is Reye syndrome likely related to?

A

mitochondrial damage of hepatocytes

202
Q

How does Reye syndrome present?

A

with hypoglycemia, elevated liver enzymes, and nausea with vomiting; may progress to coma and death

203
Q

What is hepatic adenoma?

A

Benign tumor of hepatocytes

204
Q

What is hepatic adenoma associated with?

A

oral contraceptive use; regresses upon cessation of drug

205
Q

In hepatic adenoma, what is there a risk of?

A

rupture and intraperitoneal bleeding, especially during pregnancy

206
Q

In hepatic adenoma, describe the tumors?

A

they are subcapsular and grow with exposure to estrogen

207
Q

What is hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Malignant tumor of hepatocytes

208
Q

What are some risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  1. Chronic hepatitis (e.g., HBV and HCV) 2. Cirrhosis (e.g., alcohol, nonalcoholic fatty liver disease, hemochromatosis, Wilson disease, and A1AT deficiency) 3. Anatoxins derived from Aspergillus- (induce p53 mutations)
209
Q

In hepatocellular carcinoma, what is there an increased for?

A

Increased risk for Budd-Chiari syndrome

210
Q

What happens in Budd-Chiari syndrome as a result of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  1. Liver infarction secondary to hepatic vein obstruction
211
Q

How does Budd-Chiari syndrome as a result of hepatocellular carcinoma present?

A

Presents with painful hepatomegaly and ascites

212
Q

What is the prognosis for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Tumors are often detected late because symptoms are masked by cirrhosis; poor prognosis

213
Q

What is the serum tumor marker in hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

alpha-fetoprotein.

214
Q

How common is metastasis to liver?

A

It?s more common than primary liver tumors; most common sources include colon, pancreas, lung, and breast carcinomas.

215
Q

What does hepatocellular carcinoma result in?

A

multiple nodules in the liver

216
Q

How might hepatocellular carcinoma be detected clinically?

A

it may be detected as hepatomegaly with a nodular free edge of the liver

Pathoma Notes (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions