Ch1 Risk Management Flashcards

1
Q

The CIA of cyber security stands for

A

Confidentiality; Integrity; Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a threat is defined as

A

an action or event that exploits a vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk = ___ x ___

A

threat x vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

priority risk management addresses high ___ and high ___ first

A

high impact and high vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

impact is defined as

A

actual harm caused by a threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

for risk assessment, NIST stands for

A

national institute of standards and technologies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

main document used for risk assessment

A

NIST 800-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 attributes of threat actors

A

internal/external; sophistication; resources; intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

social media and public records are considered ___ by threat actors

A

open source intelligence (OSINT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

6 types of threat actors

A

script kiddies; hacktivists; organized crime; nation-states; insiders; competitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 framework documents used in vulnerability assessment

A

NIST 800-37 and ISACA Risk IT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

program used for more detailed vulnerability assessment

A

Nessus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

vulnerability assessment done by a 3rd party

A

penetration (pen) testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 types of threats in threat assessment

A

adversarial; accidental; structural; environmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 responses to risk

A

mitigate; transfer; accept; avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a security control is a ____ we apply to ____ problems

A

mechanism/action; protect against or remediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 security control categories

A

administrative; technical; physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

5 security control functions

A

deterrent; preventative; detective; corrective; compensating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

having two internet service providers for security reasons is an example of…

A

vendor diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

layered security uses diversity and ____

A

redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

defense in depth uses what 2 types of diversity?

A

vendor; combining security control categories (physical, technical, administrative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 levels governing IT security

A

laws and regulations; [industry] standards; best practices; common sense/experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

roles and responsibilities are assigned by an organizations _____

A

policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

step by step instructions for implementing policy are ___

A

procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

_______ policy governs what you can store on a company computer

A

acceptable use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

______ policy governs categories of data

A

data sensitivity and classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_______ policy governs password use, fobs, categories you have access to…

A

access control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

______ policy governs password requirements (length, complexity…) and how to reset it

A

password

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

______ policy governs how you maintain company property and when you can use it

A

care and use of equipment

30
Q

_______ policy governs personal customer information and some company information as well

A

privacy

31
Q

_____ policy governs background checks, security clearance, job rotation, etc.

A

personnel

32
Q

national standard for risk management and regulatory framework document

A

NIST SP800-37

33
Q

6 steps in the NIST SP800-37 framework

A

categorize; select; implement; assess; authorize; monitor

34
Q

international risk management framework document

A

ISO 2700

35
Q

asset value calculation adds what values?

A

replacement/repair cost + lost revenue

36
Q

exposure factor =

A

% of asset lost due to an incident

37
Q

single loss expectancy (SLE) =

A

asset value x exposure factor

38
Q

if we expect a flood every 20 years, its ____ is .05

A

annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)

39
Q

asset value x exposure factor =

A

single loss expectancy (SLE)

40
Q

annualized loss expectancy (ALE) =

A

single loss expectancy (SLE) x annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)

41
Q

how much time we expect it to take to repair a component

A

mean time to repair (MTTR)

42
Q

how much time we expect it to take for a component to fail

A

mean time to failure (MTTF)

43
Q

total time we expect to pass from one component failure to the next, including repair time

A

mean time between failures (MTBF)

44
Q

in impact analysis, a ____ is where one thing going down screws up everything else

A

single point of failure

45
Q

how can single points of failure be addressed in impact analysis?

A

defense in depth (diversity and redundancy)

46
Q

what are the 4 categories of business impact analysis?

A

property; financial; life/safety; reputation

47
Q

________ is the amount of time a critical system can be down before substantial impact

A

recovery time objective (RTO)

48
Q

_______ is the amount of data that can be lost before substantial impact

A

recovery point objective (RPO)

49
Q

what are the 4 main types of data for security purposes?

A

public; confidential; private; proprietary

50
Q

data protected by non-disclosure agreements is an example of _____ data

A

confidential

51
Q

SSN and DOB are examples of ____ data

A

private

52
Q

trade secrets are examples of ____ data

A

proprietary

53
Q

medical records are considered ____

A

protected health information (PHI)

54
Q

information that can be used to reliably identify you is ____

A

privately identifiable information (PII)

55
Q

the data ___ has all legal responsibility for the data

A

owner

56
Q

the ____ has the ability to delete an entire collection of data, but doesn’t make other decisions about it

A

system administrator

57
Q

an ____ makes strategic decisions about a collection of data

A

executive user

58
Q

a _____ has increased access to data, and can delete some of it

A

privileged user

59
Q

_____ is when a new employee is introduced to company policies and procedures, perhaps signs an NDA, etc.

A

onboarding

60
Q

_____ is when an employee’s accounts are closed, and any credentials returned

A

offboarding

61
Q

document covering Privately Identifying Information (PII)

A

NIST 800-122

62
Q

the 3 main personnel management controls are:

A

mandatory vacations; job rotation and separation of duties

63
Q

which 3rd party agreement governs two companies working together, creating financial and management ground rules?

A

Business Partner’s Agreement (BPA)

64
Q

which 3rd party agreement governs terms and warranties of services provided?

A

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

65
Q

which 3rd party agreement typically is used in government contracts?

A

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

66
Q

which 3rd party agreement is not an actual contract, but typically accompanies one?

A

Memorandum of Understanding/Agreement

67
Q

the _________ implements security controls for a network

A

system admin

68
Q

the _______ defines access to the data on a system

A

data owner

69
Q

the ________ decides who will be the system admin

A

system owner

70
Q

the ______ in a system is the front line in monitoring and reporting security breaches

A

user

71
Q

the head of accounting would be a _______ in a data system

A

privileged user

72
Q

a ________ can see all the data in a system, but in read-only format

A

executive user