Ch. 7 - Anatomy, Positioning, and Pathology Flashcards
In the AP projection of the knee, the
Patella is visualized through the femur
A colles fracture usually involves the following (2)
- Posterior and outward displacement of the hand.
- Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process.
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? (2)
- Lateral wrist.
- Lateral humerus.
In the 15-20° mortise oblique position of the ankle, the (3)
- Talofibular joint is visualized.
- Talotibial joint is visualized.
- Plantar surface should be vertical.
The following projection(s) should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has ben ruled out (2)
- Lateral knee.
- Axial/tangential patella.
Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal?
Medial oblique foot
The left SI joint is placed perpendicular to the IR when the patient is placed in a
25-30° RPO position
The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions
Medial oblique
An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how should the central ray be directed?
Cephalad
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates (2)
- Anterior and posterior dislocation.
- An oblique projection of the shoulder.
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30° caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
Occipital bone
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
Flexion and extension laterals
The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the central ray be directed
2 inches above the pubic symphysis
Which of the following is(are) demonstrated in the oblique projection of the thoracic spine?
Zygopophyseal joints
The thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they participate in the following articulations? (2)
- Costovertebral.
- Costotransverse.
In order to demonstrate undistorted air/fluid levels, the CR must be directed
Parallel with the floor
All of the statements regarding the PA projection of the skull, with the CR perpendicular to the IR are true (3)
- OML perp to IR.
- Petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
- CR exit the nasion.
Which of the paranasal sinuses is composed of many win-walled air cells?
Ethmoid
The intervertebral joints of the T-spine are demonstrated with the
MSP parallel to the IR
Which of the following structures is subject to blowout fractures?
Orbital floor
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
Right main bronchus
Which of the follow is (are) important when positioning the patient for a PA projection of the chest? (2)
- The patient should be examined in the erect position.
- Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields.
Chest radiography should be performed using 72 in SID whenever possible in order to (2)
- Visualize vascular markings.
- Obtain better lung detail.
Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of
Pleural effusion
Which of the following conditions is characterized by “flattening” of the diaphragm?
Emphysema
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate (2)
- Pneumothorax.
- Presence of a foreign body.
Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a good PA projection of the chest? (3)
- Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
- SC joints symmetrical.
- Scapulae outside of the lung fields.
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true (3)
- The right lung has three lobes.
- The uppermost portion of the lung is its apex.
- The trachea bifurcates into mainstream bronchi.
To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed
15-20° cephalad
Radiographic indications of atelectasis include (2)
- Decreased radiographic density/increased brightness of the affected side.
- Elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side.
During IVU, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate (2)
Filling of obstructed ureters. The renal pelvis.
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called
Pulse
Which of the following projections of the abdomen could be used to demonstrate air/fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained (2)
- Dorsal decubitus.
- Lateral decubitus.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the esophagus and the trachea?
Esophagus is posterior to the trachea
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the
Recumbent position
The usual preparation for an upper GI series includes
NPO after midnight
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double-contrast visualization of the left and right colic flexures?
AP erect
In which of the following positions are a barium filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?
RAO
What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
LAO
Which of the following barium/air-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the RAO position?
Hepatic Flexure
In what order should the following studies be conducted?
Intravenous Urogram > BE > Upper GI
All of the following statements regarding the urinary system are true (3)
- The left kidney is usually higher than the right.
- The kidneys move inferiorly in the erect position.
- Vessels, nerves, and lymphatics pass through the renal hilum.
Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of the patient’s diet? (2)
- GI Series.
- Urogram.
During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate (2)
- Barium filled fundus.
- Double-contrast visualization or distal stomach portions.
Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the ureters?
Retrograde urogram
Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated contrast agents include (2)
- Flushed feeling.
- Bitter taste.
Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s) (3)
- Demonstration of fistulous tracts.
- Investigation of infertility.
- Demonstration of tubal patency.
A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the completion of an intravenous urogram and may be helpful in demonstrating (2)
- Residual urine.
- Prostate enlargement.
During routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates
Kidney of the side up parallel to the IR
To better demonstrate contrast filled distal ureters during IVU, it is helpful to
Use a 15 degree AP trendelenberg position
The space located between the arachnoid and dura mater is the
Subdural space
During a GI examination, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate
Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
The method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called
Subtraction
Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart.
Pulmonary veins > left atrium > left ventricle > aortic valve
In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
Subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
The upper chambers of the heart are called the
Atria
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate
Posterior protrusion of the herniated intervertebral disk
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the (2)
- Common carotid arteries.
- Vertebral arteries.
Venous, or deoxygenated, blood is returned to the heart via the (3)
- SVC.
- IVC.
- Coronary sinus.
The apex of the heart is formed by the
Left ventricle
