Ch. 7 - Anatomy, Positioning, and Pathology

Question 1

In the AP projection of the knee, the

Answer 1

Patella is visualized through the femur

Question 2

A colles fracture usually involves the following (2)

Answer 2

• Posterior and outward displacement of the hand.

- Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process.

Question 3

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? (2)

Answer 3

• Lateral wrist.

- Lateral humerus.

Question 4

In the 15-20° mortise oblique position of the ankle, the (3)

Answer 4

• Talofibular joint is visualized.
• Talotibial joint is visualized.
• Plantar surface should be vertical.

Question 5

The following projection(s) should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has ben ruled out (2)

Answer 5

• Lateral knee.

- Axial/tangential patella.

Question 6

Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal?

Answer 6

Medial oblique foot

Question 7

The left SI joint is placed perpendicular to the IR when the patient is placed in a

Answer 7

25-30° RPO position

Question 8

The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions

Answer 8

Medial oblique

Question 9

An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how should the central ray be directed?

Answer 9

Cephalad

Question 10

The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates (2)

Answer 10

• Anterior and posterior dislocation.

- An oblique projection of the shoulder.

Question 11

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30° caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

Answer 11

Occipital bone

Question 12

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

Answer 12

Flexion and extension laterals

Question 13

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the central ray be directed

Answer 13

2 inches above the pubic symphysis

Question 14

Which of the following is(are) demonstrated in the oblique projection of the thoracic spine?

Answer 14

Zygopophyseal joints

Question 15

The thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they participate in the following articulations? (2)

Answer 15

• Costovertebral.

- Costotransverse.

Question 16

In order to demonstrate undistorted air/fluid levels, the CR must be directed

Answer 16

Parallel with the floor

Question 17

All of the statements regarding the PA projection of the skull, with the CR perpendicular to the IR are true (3)

Answer 17

• OML perp to IR.
• Petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
• CR exit the nasion.

Question 18

Which of the paranasal sinuses is composed of many win-walled air cells?

Answer 18

Ethmoid

Question 19

The intervertebral joints of the T-spine are demonstrated with the

Answer 19

MSP parallel to the IR

Question 20

Which of the following structures is subject to blowout fractures?

Answer 20

Orbital floor

Question 21

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

Answer 21

Right main bronchus

Question 22

Which of the follow is (are) important when positioning the patient for a PA projection of the chest? (2)

Answer 22

• The patient should be examined in the erect position.

- Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields.

Question 23

Chest radiography should be performed using 72 in SID whenever possible in order to (2)

Answer 23

• Visualize vascular markings.

- Obtain better lung detail.

Question 24

Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of

Answer 24

Pleural effusion

Question 25

Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the diaphragm?

Answer 25

Emphysema

Question 26

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate (2)

Answer 26

- Pneumothorax. | - Presence of a foreign body.

Question 27

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a good PA projection of the chest? (3)

Answer 27

- Ten posterior ribs should be visualized. - SC joints symmetrical. - Scapulae outside of the lung fields.

Question 28

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true (3)

Answer 28

- The right lung has three lobes. - The uppermost portion of the lung is its apex. - The trachea bifurcates into mainstream bronchi.

Question 29

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed

Answer 29

15-20° cephalad

Question 30

Radiographic indications of atelectasis include (2)

Answer 30

- Decreased radiographic density/increased brightness of the affected side. - Elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side.

Question 31

During IVU, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate (2)

Answer 31

Filling of obstructed ureters. The renal pelvis.

Question 32

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called

Answer 32

Pulse

Question 33

Which of the following projections of the abdomen could be used to demonstrate air/fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained (2)

Answer 33

- Dorsal decubitus. | - Lateral decubitus.

Question 34

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the esophagus and the trachea?

Answer 34

Esophagus is posterior to the trachea

Question 35

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the

Answer 35

Recumbent position

Question 36

The usual preparation for an upper GI series includes

Answer 36

NPO after midnight

Question 37

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double-contrast visualization of the left and right colic flexures?

Answer 37

AP erect

Question 38

In which of the following positions are a barium filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?

Answer 38

RAO

Question 39

What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?

Answer 39

LAO

Question 40

Which of the following barium/air-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the RAO position?

Answer 40

Hepatic Flexure

Question 41

In what order should the following studies be conducted?

Answer 41

Intravenous Urogram > BE > Upper GI

Question 42

All of the following statements regarding the urinary system are true (3)

Answer 42

- The left kidney is usually higher than the right. - The kidneys move inferiorly in the erect position. - Vessels, nerves, and lymphatics pass through the renal hilum.

Question 43

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of the patient's diet? (2)

Answer 43

- GI Series. | - Urogram.

Question 44

During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate (2)

Answer 44

- Barium filled fundus. | - Double-contrast visualization or distal stomach portions.

Question 45

Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the ureters?

Answer 45

Retrograde urogram

Question 46

Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated contrast agents include (2)

Answer 46

- Flushed feeling. | - Bitter taste.

Question 47

Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s) (3)

Answer 47

- Demonstration of fistulous tracts. - Investigation of infertility. - Demonstration of tubal patency.

Question 48

A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the completion of an intravenous urogram and may be helpful in demonstrating (2)

Answer 48

- Residual urine. | - Prostate enlargement.

Question 49

During routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates

Answer 49

Kidney of the side up parallel to the IR

Question 50

To better demonstrate contrast filled distal ureters during IVU, it is helpful to

Answer 50

Use a 15 degree AP trendelenberg position

Question 51

The space located between the arachnoid and dura mater is the

Answer 51

Subdural space

Question 52

During a GI examination, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate

Answer 52

Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach

Question 53

The method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called

Answer 53

Subtraction

Question 54

Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart.

Answer 54

Pulmonary veins > left atrium > left ventricle > aortic valve

Question 55

In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the

Answer 55

Subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

Question 56

The upper chambers of the heart are called the

Answer 56

Atria

Question 57

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

Answer 57

Posterior protrusion of the herniated intervertebral disk

Question 58

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the (2)

Answer 58

- Common carotid arteries. | - Vertebral arteries.

Question 59

Venous, or deoxygenated, blood is returned to the heart via the (3)

Answer 59

- SVC. - IVC. - Coronary sinus.

Question 60

The apex of the heart is formed by the

Answer 60

Left ventricle