Ch. 7 - Anatomy, Positioning, and Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

In the AP projection of the knee, the

A

Patella is visualized through the femur

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2
Q

A colles fracture usually involves the following (2)

A
  • Posterior and outward displacement of the hand.

- Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process.

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3
Q

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? (2)

A
  • Lateral wrist.

- Lateral humerus.

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4
Q

In the 15-20° mortise oblique position of the ankle, the (3)

A
  • Talofibular joint is visualized.
  • Talotibial joint is visualized.
  • Plantar surface should be vertical.
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5
Q

The following projection(s) should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has ben ruled out (2)

A
  • Lateral knee.

- Axial/tangential patella.

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6
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal?

A

Medial oblique foot

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7
Q

The left SI joint is placed perpendicular to the IR when the patient is placed in a

A

25-30° RPO position

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8
Q

The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions

A

Medial oblique

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9
Q

An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how should the central ray be directed?

A

Cephalad

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10
Q

The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates (2)

A
  • Anterior and posterior dislocation.

- An oblique projection of the shoulder.

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11
Q

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30° caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

A

Occipital bone

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12
Q

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

A

Flexion and extension laterals

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13
Q

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the central ray be directed

A

2 inches above the pubic symphysis

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14
Q

Which of the following is(are) demonstrated in the oblique projection of the thoracic spine?

A

Zygopophyseal joints

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15
Q

The thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they participate in the following articulations? (2)

A
  • Costovertebral.

- Costotransverse.

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16
Q

In order to demonstrate undistorted air/fluid levels, the CR must be directed

A

Parallel with the floor

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17
Q

All of the statements regarding the PA projection of the skull, with the CR perpendicular to the IR are true (3)

A
  • OML perp to IR.
  • Petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
  • CR exit the nasion.
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18
Q

Which of the paranasal sinuses is composed of many win-walled air cells?

A

Ethmoid

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19
Q

The intervertebral joints of the T-spine are demonstrated with the

A

MSP parallel to the IR

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20
Q

Which of the following structures is subject to blowout fractures?

A

Orbital floor

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21
Q

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

A

Right main bronchus

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22
Q

Which of the follow is (are) important when positioning the patient for a PA projection of the chest? (2)

A
  • The patient should be examined in the erect position.

- Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields.

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23
Q

Chest radiography should be performed using 72 in SID whenever possible in order to (2)

A
  • Visualize vascular markings.

- Obtain better lung detail.

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24
Q

Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of

A

Pleural effusion

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25
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by “flattening” of the diaphragm?

A

Emphysema

26
Q

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate (2)

A
  • Pneumothorax.

- Presence of a foreign body.

27
Q

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a good PA projection of the chest? (3)

A
  • Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
  • SC joints symmetrical.
  • Scapulae outside of the lung fields.
28
Q

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true (3)

A
  • The right lung has three lobes.
  • The uppermost portion of the lung is its apex.
  • The trachea bifurcates into mainstream bronchi.
29
Q

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed

A

15-20° cephalad

30
Q

Radiographic indications of atelectasis include (2)

A
  • Decreased radiographic density/increased brightness of the affected side.
  • Elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side.
31
Q

During IVU, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate (2)

A

Filling of obstructed ureters. The renal pelvis.

32
Q

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called

A

Pulse

33
Q

Which of the following projections of the abdomen could be used to demonstrate air/fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained (2)

A
  • Dorsal decubitus.

- Lateral decubitus.

34
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the esophagus and the trachea?

A

Esophagus is posterior to the trachea

35
Q

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the

A

Recumbent position

36
Q

The usual preparation for an upper GI series includes

A

NPO after midnight

37
Q

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double-contrast visualization of the left and right colic flexures?

A

AP erect

38
Q

In which of the following positions are a barium filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?

A

RAO

39
Q

What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?

A

LAO

40
Q

Which of the following barium/air-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the RAO position?

A

Hepatic Flexure

41
Q

In what order should the following studies be conducted?

A

Intravenous Urogram > BE > Upper GI

42
Q

All of the following statements regarding the urinary system are true (3)

A
  • The left kidney is usually higher than the right.
  • The kidneys move inferiorly in the erect position.
  • Vessels, nerves, and lymphatics pass through the renal hilum.
43
Q

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of the patient’s diet? (2)

A
  • GI Series.

- Urogram.

44
Q

During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate (2)

A
  • Barium filled fundus.

- Double-contrast visualization or distal stomach portions.

45
Q

Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the ureters?

A

Retrograde urogram

46
Q

Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated contrast agents include (2)

A
  • Flushed feeling.

- Bitter taste.

47
Q

Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s) (3)

A
  • Demonstration of fistulous tracts.
  • Investigation of infertility.
  • Demonstration of tubal patency.
48
Q

A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the completion of an intravenous urogram and may be helpful in demonstrating (2)

A
  • Residual urine.

- Prostate enlargement.

49
Q

During routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates

A

Kidney of the side up parallel to the IR

50
Q

To better demonstrate contrast filled distal ureters during IVU, it is helpful to

A

Use a 15 degree AP trendelenberg position

51
Q

The space located between the arachnoid and dura mater is the

A

Subdural space

52
Q

During a GI examination, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate

A

Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach

53
Q

The method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called

A

Subtraction

54
Q

Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart.

A

Pulmonary veins > left atrium > left ventricle > aortic valve

55
Q

In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the

A

Subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

56
Q

The upper chambers of the heart are called the

A

Atria

57
Q

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

A

Posterior protrusion of the herniated intervertebral disk

58
Q

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the (2)

A
  • Common carotid arteries.

- Vertebral arteries.

59
Q

Venous, or deoxygenated, blood is returned to the heart via the (3)

A
  • SVC.
  • IVC.
  • Coronary sinus.
60
Q

The apex of the heart is formed by the

A

Left ventricle