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SEC+ > ch 7 > Flashcards

ch 7 Flashcards

1
Q

• Most common protocol used for LANs

A

(TCP/IP) transmission Control protocol/ Internet protocol

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2
Q

• TCP/IP uses a four layer architecture what are they?

A

network interface, internet, transport, application

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3
Q

(SNMP)

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (basic TCP/IP protocols)

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4
Q

(DNS)

A

Domain Name System

basic TCP/IP protocols

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5
Q

(FTP)

A

File transfer protocol

basic TCP/IP protocols

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6
Q

Manages network equipment
Allows administrator to remotely manage, monitor, and configure network devices
Exchanges management information

A

• (SNMP) Simple Network Management Protocol

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7
Q

• Agents are password protected also known as

A

common String.

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8
Q

A TCP/IP protocol that maps IP addresses to their symbolic name.

A

• (DNS) Domain name system

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9
Q

used for transferring files.

A

• TCP/IP protocol

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10
Q

(FTPS) secure sockets layer encrypts commands- uses ?

A

SSL or TLS to encrypt commands

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11
Q

•(S/M I M E)

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

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12
Q

A protocol for securing email messages

A

• (S/M I M E) Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

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13
Q

what to use to secure voice and video

A

(SRTP) Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol

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14
Q

what to use to secure time synchronization

A

(NTP) Network time protocol

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15
Q

what to use to secure email

A

(S/MIME) Secure/ multipurpose internet mail extensions

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16
Q

what to use to secure web browsing

A

(HTTPS) Hypertext transport protocol secure

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17
Q

what to use to secure file transfer

A

secure FTP(SFTP)

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18
Q

what to use to secure remote access

A

(VPN) Virtual private network

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19
Q

what to use to secure domain name resolution

A

(DNSSEC) DNS security extensions

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20
Q

what to use to secure routing and switching

A

(IPSEC) ip security

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21
Q

what to use to secure network address translation

A

(IPSEC) ip security

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22
Q

what to use to secure subscription services

A

(IPSEC) IP security

23
Q
  • a separate hardware card that inserts into a web server that contains co-processors to handle S S L/T L S processing
A

• S S L/T L S accelerator

24
Q

allows the administrator to configure a switch to copy traffic that occurs on some or all ports to a designated port on the switch

A

• Port mirrors

25
Q
  • a device that can monitor traffic
A

• Network tap (test access point)

26
Q

– monitor traffic for network intrusion detection and prevention devices

A

Sensors

27
Q

gather traffic for S I E M devices

A

Collectors

28
Q

block traffic for Internet content filters

A

Filters

29
Q

used to combine multiple network connections into a single link
Should be located between routers and servers where they can detect and stop attacks directed at a server or application

A

• Aggregation switch

30
Q

aggregates and correlates content from different sources to uncover an attack

A

• Correlation engine

31
Q
  • a hardware device that identifies and blocks real-time distributed denial of service (D D o S) attacks
A

• DDoS mitigator

32
Q

A Microsoft Windows feature that prevents attackers from using buffer overflow to execute malware

A

• (D E P) Data Execution Prevention

33
Q
  • A service that can monitor any changes made to computer files, such as O S files
A

• (F I C) File integrity check

34
Q

A means of managing and presenting computer resources without regard to physical layout or location

A

• Virtualization

35
Q

a simulated software-based emulation of a computer

The host system runs a hypervisor that manages the virtual operating systems and supports one or more guest systems

A

• Virtual machine

36
Q
  • The VM monitor program
A

• Hypervisor

37
Q

The process of running a user desktop inside a V M that resides on a server

A

• (V D I) Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

38
Q

An Ethernet-compliant virtual network that can connect physical computers and/or virtual machines together

A

• (V D E) Virtual Distributed Ethernet

39
Q

which allows a virtual machine to be moved to a different physical computer with no impact to users

A

• live migration

40
Q
  • of a particular state of a virtual machine can be saved for later use
A

• snapshot

41
Q

Testing the existing security configuration, can be performed using a simulated network environment

A

• security control testing

42
Q

suspicious program can be loaded into an isolated virtual machine and executed

A

• sandboxing

43
Q

VMs may be able to “escape” from the contained environment and directly interact with the host O S

A

• virtual machine escape protection

44
Q

The widespread proliferation of V M s without proper oversight or management

A

• Virtual machine sprawl

45
Q

Enterprises in the past purchased all the hardware and software necessary to run the organization

A

• On-premises model

46
Q
  • Servers, storage, and the supporting networking infrastructure are shared by multiple enterprises over a remote network connection
A

• Hosted services

47
Q

A model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources

A

• Cloud computing

48
Q

Vendor provides access to the vendor’s software applications running on a cloud infrastructure

A

• Software as a Service (S a a S)

49
Q

Consumers install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network

A

• Platform as a Service (P a a S)

50
Q

Vendor allows customers to deploy and run their own software, including O S s and applications

A

• Infrastructure as a Service (I a a S)

51
Q

All security services are delivered from the cloud to the enterprise

A

• Security as a Service (SEC a a S)

52
Q
  • A set of software tools or services that resides between the enterprises’ on-premises infrastructure and the cloud provider’s infrastructure
  • Acts as a “gatekeeper”
A

• (C A S B) Cloud access security broker

53
Q
  • Virtualizes parts of the physical network so that it can be more quickly and easily reconfigured
A

• (S D N) Software defined network

SEC+ (16 decks)

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