Ch. 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What can be defined as “a tough, fibrous, connective tissue covering”?

A

periosteum

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2
Q

T/F The periosteum contains blood vessels that enter the bone and supply its cells.

A

T

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3
Q

What can be defined as “the end portion of a long bone”?

A

epiphysis

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4
Q

What can be defined as “the portion between the epiphyses of a long bone”?

A

diaphysis

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5
Q

T/F Articular cartilage is a form of hyaline cartilage.

A

T

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6
Q

The medullary cavity and the spaces of spongy bone are lined with which type of membrane?

A

endosteum

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7
Q

What can be defined as “red blood cell formation, occurring in the spongy bone of the skull, ribs, sternum, and vertebrae”?

A

hematopoiesis

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8
Q

Compact bone is also known as ______ bone.

A

dense

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9
Q

Spongy bone is also known as ____________ bone.

A

cancellous

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10
Q

The bars and plates found in spongy bone are called…

A

trabeculae

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11
Q

Definition: unspecialized cells present in the inner portion of the periosteum, in the endosteum, and in the central canal of compact bone

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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12
Q

Definition: bone-forming cells derived from osteoprogenitor cells; also responsible for secreting the matrix characteristic of bone

A

osteoblasts

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13
Q

Definition: the mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts; Once the osteoblasts are surrounded by matrix, they become the _________ in bone.

A

osteocytes

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14
Q

Definition: thought to be derived from monocytes, a type of white blood cell found in red bone marrow

A

osteoclasts

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15
Q

______________ perform bone reabsorptoin, meaning that they break down bone and assist in depositing calcium and phosphate in the blood

A

osteoclasts

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16
Q

Definition: formation of bone

A

ossifcation

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17
Q

What are the two types of ossification?

A

intramembranous & endochondral

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18
Q

In which type of ossification do bones develop between sheets of fibrous connective tissue?

A

intramembranous

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19
Q

In intramembranous ossification, cells derived from ___________ tissue become osteoblasts that form a matrix resembling the trabeculae of spongy bone.

A

connective

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20
Q

In intramembranous ossification, osteoblasts associated with the ______________ lay down compact bone over the surface of the spongy bone.

A

periosteum

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21
Q

Most bones in the human skeleton form by _______________ ossification.

A

endochondral

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22
Q

In which type of ossification are the hyaline cartilage models from birth replaced with bone?

A

endochondral

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23
Q

In which type of ossification does the long bone begin to break down in the center of its diaphysis, leaving room for osteoblasts to invade the region and lay down spongy bone, later being broken down by osteoclasts, creating the medullary cavity?

A

endochondral

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24
Q

When osteoblasts begin to lay down spongy bone in the shaft of a long bone, this place can be referred to as what?

A

primary ossification center

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25
When spongy bone forms and does not break down in a long bone, a band of cartilage called an ____________ _________ forms.
epiphyseal plate
26
Bones may increase their diameter when osteoprogenitor cells in the inner periosteum convert to osteoblast cells, which add more matrix to the surface of the bone. This is called...
appositional growth
27
T/F In the adult body, bone is never broken down and built back up again.
F
28
Which type of cell, derived from monocytes, breaks down bone and removes worn cells, assisting in depositing calcium in the blood?
osteoclasts
29
Which type of cell helps form new bone?
osteoblasts
30
High levels are necessary to prevent which disease, during which bones become frail and brittle?
osteoporosis
31
How many hormones does the growth of a bone employ?
20 or more
32
Which three hormones are the most important in regulating bone growth?
parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, & growth hormone
33
Which bones are part of the axial skeleton?
bones of the skull, hyoid bone, the vertebral column, & the thoracic cage
34
Definition: "air spaces lined by mucous membranes that reduce the weight of the skull and give the voice a resonant sound"
sinuses
35
Definition: "infection or inflammation of the paranasal (maxillary, frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal) sinuses"
sinusitis
36
Definition: "a condition that can lead to deafness; an inflammation of the mastoid sinuses"
mastoiditis
37
Definition: "immovable joints connecting the bones of the cranium"
sutures
38
Parts of the cranium:
2 parietal bones, frontal bone, an occipital bone, 2 temporal bones, a sphenoid bone, & an ethmoid bone
39
Which bone forms the forehead, a portion of the nose, and the superior portions of the orbits?
frontal bone
40
Which bone(s) form the roof of the cranium and help form its sides?
parietal bones
41
Which bone(s) form the posterior part of the skull and the base of the cranium?
occipital bones
42
Definition: "a large opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes"
foramen magnum
43
Definition: "rounded processes on either side of the foramen magnum that articulate with the first vertebra of the spinal column"
occipital condyles
44
What bone is just inferior to the parietal bones on the sides of the cranium, also helping form the base of the cranium?
temporal bones
45
Definition: "a canal that leads to the middle ear"
external acoustic meatus (temporal bone)
46
Definition: "articulates with the mandible"
mandibular fossa (temporal bone)
47
Definition: "provides a place of attachment for certain neck muscles"
mastoid process (temporal bone)
48
Definition: "provides a place of attachment for muscles associated with the tongue and larynx"
styloid process (temporal bone)
49
Definition: "projects anteriorly and helps form the cheekbone"
zygomatic process (temporal bone)
50
Which bone helps form the sides and floor of the cranium and the rear wall of the orbits?
sphenoid bone
51
Definition: "the saddle-shaped midportion of the sphenoid bone, housing the pituitary gland"
sella turcica
52
Which bone is anterior the sphenoid bone, helping form the floor of the cranium, contributing to the medial sides of the orbits and forming the roof and sides of the nasal cavity?
ethmoid bone
53
Definition: "a triangular process that serves as an attachment for membranes that enclose the brain"
crista galli (ethmoid bone)
54
Definition: "tiny holes in the crista galli that serve as passageways for nerve fibres from the olfactory receptors"
cribiform plate
55
Definition: "the plate that projects downwards to form the superior part of the nasal septum"
perpendicular plate
56
Definition: "bones which project toward the perpendicular plate, increasing the surface area of the nasal cavity"
superior and middle nasal conchae
57
A bone of the face that forms the upper jaw, contributes to the floors of the orbits, and to the sides of the floor of the nasal cavity.
maxillae
58
Which maxillary process contains the tooth sockets for teeth?
alveolar
59
Which maxillary process contains the left and right palatine process from the anterior portion of the hard palate?
palatine
60
Which bone of the face contributes to the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, also helping form the posterior portion of the hard palate?
palatine
61
The hard palate consists of 2 things?
1. portions of the maxillae; 2. horizontal plates of the palatine bone
62
Which facial bone forms the sides of the orbits, also contributing to the cheekbones?
zygomatic bone
63
The most prominent feature of the cheekbone consists of a temporal process connected to a zygomatic process, and this is called a ______________ _________.
zygomatic arch
64
Which facial bone(s) are located on the medial walls of the orbits, dealing with carrying tears from the eyes to the nose?
lacrimal bones (2)
65
Which facial bones are small, rectangular and form the bridge of the nose?
nasal bones
66
Which facial bone joins with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone to form the inferior part of the nasal septum?
vomer bone
67
Which facial bone(s) are curved bones that form a part of the inferior lateral wall of the nasal cavity, projecting into the nasal cavity and supporting the mucous membranes that line the nasal cavity?
inferior nasal conchae
68
Which facial bone is the lower jaw, the only moveable portion of the skull?
mandible
69
Each ramus on the mandible has a ____________ condyle (articulating with a temporal bone) and a ____________ process (serving as a place of attachment for the muscles used for chewing).
mandibular condyle; coronoid process
70
The only bone that does not articulate with another bone in the body.
hyoid bone
71
Which bone anchors the tongue and serves as the attachment site for several muscles associated with swallowing?
hyoid bone
72
Vertebrae are named according to their location. What are they?
7 cervical (neck); 12 thoracic (chest); 5 lumbar (back); 5 sacral (fused to form sacrum); 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae (fused to form one coccyx
73
An abnormally exaggerated lumbar curvature.
lordosis or "swayback"
74
An increased roundness of the thoracic curvature.
kyphosis or "hunchback"
75
An abnormal curvature (side-to-side).
scoliosis
76
A vertebral disk that has become weakened with age and may slip or rupture.
herniated disk
77
Which type of vertebrae are short and tend to have a split or bifurcation?
cervical
78
Which type of vertebrae have an opening in the transverse process, called a transverse foramen?
cervical
79
Which vertebrae have long,slender spines that project downwards?
thoracic
80
Which type of vertebrae are large and square, projecting posteriorly?
lumbar
81
Which cervical vertebrae supports and balances the head, allowing for up and down movement?
atlas
82
Which cervical vertebrae has an odontoid process that projects into the ring of the atlas, allowing for sideways motion?
axis
83
The coccyx is also known as the ______________.
tailbone
84
How many pair of ribs does a human have?
12
85
The sternum is composed of three bones that fuse during fetal development. What are the three bones?
the manubrium, the body, & the xiphoid process
86
The bones of the pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, and lower limbs are a part of which schedule?
appendicular skeleton