Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final exam for Rays > Ch 51, 55, 57,60 > Flashcards

Ch 51, 55, 57,60 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the protocol of confirming an appointment for deaf pt?

A

Use the state Telecommunication Relay Service to call a deaf pt directly with appointment reminders. This service allows individuals with hearing and speech impairments to place and receive telephone calls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What assistance may a blind pt need?

A
  • Computer secreen readers that allow the individual to read the displayed data by a speech synthesizer
  • Screen magnifiers are available to help the low-vision user by enlarging the text and graphics on the screen
  • Wrist watches with braille and printers that print in braille
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the Americans with Disability act define such persons?

A

The united States Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) defines an individual with a disability as a person who:

  • Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities
  • Has a record of such impairment
  • Or is regarded as having such impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is double vision, perception of two images of a single object

A

Diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This Is having central vision (oractvity) of not more than 20/200 in the better eye with correction (glasses), or having peripheral fields (side vision) of no more than 20 diameter

A

Legal blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are reasons for ill-fitting dentures in the critically ill

A

weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When would you use a portable headrest on the back of a wheelchair

A

When the pt is in a total support wheelchair. transfer to the dental chair may not be advisable. The wheelchair can be positioned for direct utilization.
Some wheelchairs are self-reclining and have headrest
a portable headrest may be attached to the wheelchair handles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many visits should be scheduled for a homebound difficult pt?

A

As many as the pt requires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What mouth rinse should be used after surgery

A

do not rinse for 24 hours after surgical apt.

Then use warm salt water (1/2 teaspoonful salt in 1/2 cup of warm water) after tooth brushing and every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the Le-fort classification

A

Le-fort 1
le-fort 2
Le-fort 3
Le-fort combination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which Le-fort classification is a horizontal fracture line that extends above the roots of the teeth above the plate, across the maxillary sinus, below the zygomatic process and across the pterygoid plates

A

Le-fort 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which Le-fort classification is the midface fracture extends over the middle of the nose, down the medial wall of the orbits, across the infraorbital rims, and posteriorly, across the pteryoid plates

A

Le-fort 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which Le-fort classification is the High-level craniofacial fracture extends transversely across the bridge of the nose, across the orbits and the zygomatic arches and across the pterygoid plates

A

Le-fort 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which le-fort is a combination of two levels is also possible such as a right Le-fort 1 and a left le-fort 2

A

Le-fort combination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What clinical signs may a pt present with a fractured jaw?

A
  • Pain especially on movement and tenderness on slight pressure over the area of the fracture
  • Teeth may be displayed fractured or mobile. Bec of muscle may be displaced and the occlusion of the teeth may be irregular
  • Muscle spasm is a common findings
  • Crepitation can be heard if the parts of bone are moved
  • Soft tissue in the area of the fracture may shoe laceration and bleeding, discoloration (ecchymosis) and enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the diet planning of a pt with fractured jaw

A

Essential for promotion of healing: Protein and vit A and C and riboflavin
essential for building gingival tissue resistance: adequate proteins of all essential food groups
essential for dental caries preventions: Noncariogenic foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the postsurgical diet care

A

Use a liquid or soft diet high in protein, Drink water and fruit juices freely.
Avoid spicy, hard or chewy foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Intermaxillary fixation are best for what type of pts? Which would be the contraindicated?

A
  • Pt with chronic airway disease who cough and expectorate: asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • Pt who vomit regularly; notable, during pregnancy
  • Dietary problems pts lose weight with liquid, monotonous diet, often with cariogenic content
  • Oral hygiene and dietary limitations lead to increased dental caries and perio infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a surgical approach to bring the fracture parts together

A

Open reductions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does it take for an uncomplicated mand. fracture to heal?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long does it take for an uncomplicated maxillary fracture to heal

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the different fractures

A

Simple
Compound
comminuted
incomplete “greenstick”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which fracture has no communication with outside

A

simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which fracture has communication with outside

A

compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which fracture is shattered

A

comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which fracture has one side of a bone broken and the other side is bent?
It occurs in incompletely calcified bone (young children usually)
The fibers tend to bend rather than break

A

incomplete “greenstick”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the preferred way to stop bleeding post-surgery at home?

A

When bleeding persists at home place a gauze square or cold wet teabag over the area and bite firmly for 30mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are risk factors that causes clefting?

A

use of tabacco
alcohol consumption
teratogenic agents: phenytoin, Vit A, corticosteroids, drug abuse
Maternal age >40years
Inadequate diet
Lack of adequate prenatal care and instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are children with cleft palates more susceptible to

A
  • Facial deformities
  • Infections (upper respiratory and middle ear)
  • Airway and breathing
  • Speech
  • Hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are some oral characteristics of children with cleft palates

A 
Tooth development 
Malocclusion 
Open palate 
muscle coordination 
Perio tissues 
Dental caries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What weeks does a cleft lip form

A

occurs between the 4th-8th week in uters

becomes apparent by the end of the second month in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what weeks does the cleft palate form

A

takes places during the 6th-12week

a cleft palate is evident by the end of the third month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or an acquired opening, such as a cleft of the hard palate

A

obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the classifications of the cleft palate/lip

A 
class 1            class 4         class 7
class 2          class 5
class 3          class 6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which classification of the cleft palate/lip is the cleft if the tip of the uvula

A

class 1

36
Q

which classification is cleft of the uvula (bifid uvula)

A

class 2

37
Q

which classification is cleft of the soft palate

A

class 3

38
Q

which classification is cleft of the soft and hard palate

A

class 4

39
Q

which classification is cleft of the soft and hard palate that continues through the alveolar ridge on one side of the premaxilla, usually associated with cleft lip of the same side

A

class 5

40
Q

which classification is cleft of the soft and hard palate that continues the alveolar ridge on both sides, leaving a free premaxilla usually associated with bilateral cleft lip

A

class 6

41
Q

which classification is submucous cleft in which the muscle union is imperfect across the soft palate. the palate is short, the uvula is often bifid, a groove is situated at the midline of the soft palate, and the closure to the pharynx is incompetent

A

class 7

42
Q

a unilateral or bilateral congenital fissue of the upper lip, usually lateral to the midline, can extend into one nostril or both; caused by defect in the fusion of the maxillary and globular processes

A

clefting in utero

43
Q

what calls a deaf pt directly with appointment reminders. this service allows individuals with hearing and speech impairments to place and receive telephone calls

A

telecommunication relay service

44
Q

how many mouths does a pt with cleft palate need a recall apt?

A

3-4 months

45
Q

how many times does an unconscious pt need oral care

A

3 times a day

46
Q

cleft lip and palate occur more often in which gender

A

cleft lip in males

cleft palate in females

47
Q

when age is the surgical union of the cleft lip made?

A

2-3 months of age

48
Q

what age is cleft palate surgery usually undertaken

A

to the close the palate by age 18 months or earlier when possible

49
Q

what are the different types of bone graft for cleft palate

A
  1. Alveolar graft
  2. hard palate graft
  3. sources for autogenous bone for graft
50
Q

which bone graft is placed before eruption of maxillary teeth at the cleft side.
creates a normal architecture through which the teeth can erupt.
Support is provided for teeth adjacent to the cleft areas

A

Alveolar graft

51
Q

which bone graft provides of oronasal fistulae.

also helps to relieve a compromised airway

A

hard palate graft

52
Q

which type of bone graft is from the ribs, iliac crest, skull, mandible, or bone morphogenic protein

A

sources for autogenous bone for graft

53
Q

what are some presurgical instructions

A
  1. food and liquid restrictions before surgery
  2. alcohol and medication restrictions
  3. transport to and from apt.
54
Q

postsurgical how much rest should you get

A

at least 8-10 hours of sleep each night. avoid strenuous exercise during the first 24 hours and keep the mouth from excessive movement

55
Q

follow-up care the dental hygienist may participate in what

A

suture removal, irrigation of sockets, and other postsurgical procedures

56
Q

what are causes of fractured jaws

A

domestic violence, gunshots, sporting injuries, falls. road traffic accidents (including motorcycles and bicycles) and industrial accidents

57
Q

what are some predisposing causes of fractured jaw

A

pathologic conditions, such as tumors, cysts, osteoporosis, or osteomyelitis, weaken the bone; thus slight trauma or even tooth removal can cause fracture

58
Q

what are the basic tx of fractures

A
  1. Reduction (open or closed) restores normal position of the bone
  2. fixation of the fragments
  3. immobilization for healing
  4. control of tx complications centers around prevention of infections, misalignment of the parts, anc malocclusion of the dentition
59
Q

what refers to the use of a surgical flap procedure to expose the fracture ends and bring them together for healing

A

open reduction

60
Q

this is accomplished by manipulation of the parts without surgery

A

closed reduction

61
Q

this is accomplished by applying wires and/or elastic bands between the maxillary and mandibular arches

A

intermaxillary fixation (IMF)

62
Q

what are two special bone screws that are placed via skin incisions on either side of the fracture. An acrylic bar is molded and, while still pliable, is pressed over the treads of the bone screws and locked into position with the screw nuts

A

External skeletal fixation (External pin fixation)

63
Q

area freely accessible without discrimination on the basis of a disability; obstacles to passage or communication have been removed

A

Barrier free

64
Q

types of disabilities include

A
  1. Developmental: hereditary conditions that manifest symptoms before age 21
  2. Acquired: caused by chronic disease, acute medical conditions, or trauma
  3. Age associated: usually after age 65 and related to a chronic health condition
65
Q

an estimated _% of individuals 16-64 and almost _% of children 5-15 are affected by a disability and the nuber is increasing

A

8% and 6%

66
Q

how many foot wide walkway is needed for a wheelchair accommodation

A

3-foot-wide

67
Q

the lightweight door with a lever type handle opens at least __ inches for a person using a tall crutch and for a wheelchair

A

32 inches

68
Q

The dental chair selected is able to lower low from the floor and accessible from both sides for wheelchair transfer

A

19 inches

69
Q

refers to the ability of an individual to accomplish daily living, skills (bathing, toothburshing, dressinf, ect)

A

Functional ability

70
Q

an individual pts functional level may be affected by:

A
  • Decreased in cognitive capability
  • Behavioral problems
  • Mobility problems
  • Uncontrolled body movement
71
Q

medications the pt takes may enhance risk for oral disease

A

xerostomia contribute to dental caries
diminish appetite as a side effect influence diet habits
Sucrose-based liquid medications contribute to dental caries incidence

72
Q

depending on the disability and level of function, the pt may need what kind of assistance?

A
  1. Complete assistance
  2. Partial assistance
  3. No assistance with daily biofilm removal
73
Q

when a person is declared incapacitated by a legal process what is appointed

A

guardian

74
Q

the use of a dental hygiene assistant during the appointment can enhance:

A
  • Efficiency
  • Pt management
  • Pt safety and comfort
  • Safety and comfort for clinician
  • Visibility during intraoral procedures
75
Q

What is the care for an unconscious person

A
  • Evaluate pts oral care needs
  • Plan and conduct an oral health in-service program for nursing staff or other caregivers
  • Include hands-on demonstration and practice in training
  • Motivate the caregiver to provide daily care
76
Q

how to tx the pt with hospice care

A
  • Provide comfort care for the pt
  • Educate pt and caregivers about the importance of daily oral care
  • Help develop standardized protocols for daily oral care
77
Q

what are some ways to help with xerostomia in terminally ill pts

A
  • Instruct pt or caregiver to moisten intraoral tissues and lips frequently using water, ice chips, or appropriate OTC saliva substitute
  • Avoid mouth rinses or other oral products that contain alcohol
78
Q

What should you do to help with xerostomia for unconscious pt

A
  • Swab oral mucosa using a saliva substitute as frequently as needed throughout the day and night
  • Lemon and glycerin swabs are contraindicated due to the acidic effects of lemon on the demineralization of enamel and the drying effect of glycerin
79
Q

What are objectives of care for terminally ill pt

A
  • Provide oral care that emphasizes pt comfort more than preventive or restorative aspects of care
  • Provide relief of painful or aggravating symptoms of oral diseases or lesions
  • Prevent aspiration of debris and oral microorganisms and reduce risk for pneumonia
  • Provide a “Clean mouth” environment to reduce malodor and improve appearance and enhance personal interaction with caregivers and family members
80
Q

What are contraindications for pts with xerostomia

A

close more often during an appointment, alcohol free rinses

81
Q

A fracture is classified by using a combination of descriptive words, what are the word

A

location, direction, nature, and severity

82
Q

what is the most common fracture

A

is of the alveolar process, maxillary or mandibular

83
Q

Many pt with fractured jaws tend to lose weight why

A

generally related to an inadequate nutrient and caloric intake

84
Q

What objectives in planning the diet for a pt with a fractured jaw

A
  • Prevent new carious lesion
  • Help the pt maintain an adequate nutritional state
  • Promote healing
  • Increase resistance to infection
85
Q

How long is a soft diet recommended after the appliances are removed

A

serval days to 1 week

86
Q

what is platinum mesh

A

It is NOT used for immobilization of a tooth

Final exam for Rays (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions