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MPJE > Ch 5: Compounding > Flashcards

Ch 5: Compounding Flashcards

1
Q 
FED Select all. Compounded drugs should be:
A) Based on a prescription
B) FDA-approved
C) Commercially available
D) Follow USP standards
A

A, D
Compounded drugs are NOT commercially available, and are made for an individual pt based on a prescription, and are not FDA-approved

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2
Q

FED Who sets the standards for compounding preparations

A

USP

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3
Q

FED The 2012 contamination issue located at the ____ that was responsible for an outbreak of ____ caused a subsequent change to legislation involving the FDCA

A

New England Compounding Center

Fungal meningitis

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4
Q

FED The fungal meningitis outbreak at NECC resulted in the development of what piece of legislation

A

The Drug Quality and Security Act, which was an alteration to the FDCA

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5
Q

FED The DQSA breaks down sections 503A into ___ and 503B into ___

A 
503A = traditional compounding
503B = outsourcing facilities
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6
Q

FED Preparing an IV and making magic mouthwash is likely pursuant to
A) 503A
B) 503B

A

503A = traditional compounding

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7
Q

FED Compounding medication for bulk office use is likely pursuant to:
A) 503A
B) 503B

A

B) 503B = outsourcing facilities

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8
Q

FED Select all. Which of the following follow both USP and CGMPs?
A) 503A
B) 503B
C) Manufacturing

A

503B and manufacturing, but 503A does NOT follow CGMPs

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9
Q

FED Compounding for bulk medical office use is prohibited under which, 503A or 503B

A

503A

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10
Q

FED A provider stocks a professionally compounded medication for office use. Where did he likely source these from?
A) A traditional compounding facility
B) An outsourcing facility

A

B) outsourcing facility

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11
Q

FED Who regulates a 503A pharmacy vs a 503B pharmacy

A 
503A = State boards
503B = FDA, state license may be required
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12
Q

FED Select all. Which requires registration with the FDA?
A) Drug manufacturer
B) 503A traditional compounding facility
C) 503B outsourcing compounding facility

A

Drug manufacturer & 503B outsourcing facility

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13
Q

FED Which of the following is likely to require a patient-specific prescription prior to preparing a drug product?
A) 503A facility
B) 503B facility
C) Drug manufacturer

A

A–503A pharmacies provide traditional compounding based on patient-specific prescriptions

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14
Q

FED T/F Physicians and other healthcare practitioners are permitted by federal law to compound in medical offices

A

True

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15
Q

API abbreviation means

A

active pharmaceutical ingredients

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16
Q

FED Ingredients that are acceptable for use in compounding will be listed:
A) In the USP National Formulary (USP-NF)
B) In the Food Chemicals Codex (FCC)
C) In either A or B
D) In both A & B

A

C = either the USP-NF or the Food Chemicals Codex

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17
Q

FED Under what circumstances can a compounding ingredient that is not manufactured at an FDA-registered facility be used to compound?
A) Always, there is no FDA requirement for ingredients since compounding products are not FDA approved
B) If a Certificate of Analysis (CoA) is obtained to confirm quality
C) So as long as the ingredients are both USP-NF approved and FCC approved

A

B = it is preferable for ingredients to be manufactured at an FDA-registered facility, if not, a CoA should be obtained to confirm the quality

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18
Q

FED If there is no expiration date on a compounding ingredient upon receipt, what should the pharmacist do?
A) Label it to be 1 year from date of receipt
B) Label it to be 3 years from the date of receipt
C) Send the product back to the supplier

A

B: if component without expiration date, RPh assigns a conservative date that is no more than 3 years from the date of receipt

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19
Q 
FED If a pharmacist assigns an expiration date to a compounding ingredient, what should the label include?
A) The date of receipt
B) Assigned expiration date
C) NDC
D) Both A&B
E) All of the above
A

If RPh assigns the expiration to a compounding ingredient, it should be no later than 3 years from date of receipt, and label should have the expiration date and the date of receipt

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20
Q

FED A compounded preparation for a per rectum medication is considered to be:
A) Sterile
B) Nonsterile

A

Nonsterile

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21
Q

FED Select all. Per USP 795, nonsterile compounding may:
A) Be prepped in a distinctly separate location from sterile preps
B) Be performed in a PEC at minimum
C) Be performed in ambient/room air
D) Be separated from the dispensing part of the pharmacy

A

A) True: separate location from sterile preps
B) False, can be done in room air
C) True, can be done in room air
D) True, should be separated from dispensing part of the pharmacy

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22
Q

FED A technician comes upon compounding supplies, tools, and excipients stored on the floor. Is this of concern?
A) If they are for non-sterile compounding, no
B) If they are for sterile compounding, this is wrong
C) Pharmaceutical ingredients for compounding should not be stored on the floor, but the supplies are fine
D) No compounding components are to be stored on the floor for compounding of any sort

A

D = no compounding components (drugs, excipients, equipment, containers) are to be stored on the floor for any type of compounding

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23
Q

FED A tech has compounded a nonsterile, oral formulation that contains water. What is the BUD and storing temp?

A

Nonsterile, water, oral = fridge, 14 days BUD

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24
Q

FED An RPh compounded a nonsterile, oral formulation that does not contain water. What is the BUD and storing temp?

A

Nonsterile, no water = room temp 6 months

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25
Q

FED An RPh compounded a nonsterile, non-oral formulation that contains water. What is the BUD and storing temp?

A

Room temp, 30 days

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26
Q 
FED A tech compounded a nonsterile non-oral prescription that contains poloxamer gel. What is the BUD and storing temp?
A) Fridge, 14 days
B) Fridge, 30 days
C) Room temp, 14 days
D) Room temp, 30 days
A

D. Poloxamer gel contains water. Non oral = room temp, 30 days

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27
Q

FED T/F The BUD of a nonsterile compounded prep can be extended if stability data is obtained that shows a longer stability period

A

True. I’m not sure if this applies to sterile or not

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28
Q 
FED Select all. Which of the following would likely be considered sterile preps if compounded?
A) IV
B) Oral
C) Bladder irrigation
D) Rectal suppository
E) Nasal inhalations
A 
A) IV = sterile
B) oral = nonsterile
C) bladder irrigation = sterile
D) Rectal supp = nonsterile
E) Nasal inhalation = nonsterile (but pulmonary inhalations ARE sterile)
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29
Q

FED When compounding in critical areas closest to exposed sterile drugs, the air should be at least ISO

A

5 or LESS…. meaning ISO 4 is fine, but ISO 6 is not

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30
Q 
FED According to ISO ratings, ambient or room air is considered:
A) ISO 10
B) ISO 8
C) ISO 7
D) ISO 6
E) Unclassified; not rated
A

E, ambient room air is not ISO rated

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31
Q

FED If using a PEC for sterile compounding, the space should also include:
A) A SEC
B) An anteroom
C) All of the above

A

C. Should be anteroom + SEC + PEC…… or CAI + SCA

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32
Q 
FED Which of the following are acceptable for a sterile compounding space?
A) Anteroom + SEC + PEC
B) Garb room + anteroom + SEC + PEC
C) CAI + SCA
D) A&C
E) All of the above
A

D.
Anteroom + SEC + PEC, or
CAI + SCA

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33
Q

FED What might a CAI also be called

A

Glove box

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34
Q

FED What might the SEC also be referred to as

A

Buffer area. NOT the anteroom

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35
Q

FED What purpose does the anteroom serve
A) Provide a buffer of relatively clean air around the PEC or PECs
B) Comprises a separate area for hazardous compounding
C) Connects the rest of the pharmacy to the SEC to provide a place for garbing

A

C

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36
Q 
FED Garbing and handwashing take place:
A) Before entering the anteroom
B) In the anteroom
C) Before entering the buffer area
D) In the buffer area
A

B, garding and handwashing takes place in the anteroom, prior to entering the SEC (SEC = buffer area)

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37
Q

FED The buffer area, or SEC, should be at least ISO

A

7

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38
Q

FED The anteroom should be at least ISO __ for nonhazardous sterile compounding, or ISO ___ for hazardous sterile compounding

A

ISO 8 for pos pres non-HD

ISO 7 for neg pres HD

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39
Q 
FED If performing sterile compounding in a CAI located in an SCA, the ISO rating of the SCA should be classified as:
A) ISO 5
B) ISO 7
C) ISO 8
D) Is it not classified
A

A segregated compounding area is a separate area, the air in an SCA is not classified according to ISO standards

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40
Q

FED Hazardous compounding shouldn’t be done in an area with __ air pressure

A

Positive…. HDs need negative air pressure

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41
Q

FED Which type of STERILE compounding uses NON-sterile ingredients or equipment that must be sterilized prior to use?
A) Low risk
B) Medium risk
C) High risk

A

C) High risk. High risk sterile compounding is not common

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42
Q 
FED Fill in the following ISO requirements:
PEC = ISO \_\_\_
SEC = ISO \_\_\_
Anteroom, HDs = ISO \_\_\_
Anteroom, non-HDs = ISO \_\_\_
A

PEC = 5
SEC = 7
Anteroom, HD = 7
Anteroom, non-HD = 8

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43
Q

FED Reconstituting a 1g single-dose vial of cefazolin with sterile water and transferring it to a normal saline bag is considered
A) Low risk
B) Medium risk
C) High risk

A

Low risk, because there are no more than 2 entries into any 1 sterile container/device, and = 3 sterile ingredients including diluent

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44
Q

FED Low risk sterile compounding is considered to be done when there are ____ ingredients including diluent, and no more than ___ entries into any ___ sterile container(s)/device(s)

A

Low risk sterile compounding = 3 or fewer sterile ingredients including diluent, no more than 2 entries into any 1 sterile container/device

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45
Q

FED Medium risk sterile compounding is considered to be done when ___ sterile ingredients, OR ___ doses of a sterile product are withdrawn from the same vial

A

Medium risk sterile compounding = greater than 3 sterile ingredients, OR multiple doses of a sterile product withdrawn from same vial to make several CSPs batches

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46
Q

FED Sterile compounding products that are made from nonsterile equipment and ingredients, then sterilized prior to use are considered:
A) Low risk
B) Med risk
C) High risk

A

C, high risk

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47
Q

FED What are the room temp, fridge, and frozen BUDs for a low risk CSP

A

Low risk CSP = 48H room temp, 14D fridge, 45 days frozen

Low/med/high are all 45D frozen

48
Q

FED What are the room temp, fridge, and frozen BUDs for a medium risk CSP

A

Med risk CSP = 30H room temp, 9D fridge, 45D frozen

49
Q

FED What are the room temp, fridge, and frozen BUDs for a high risk CSP

A

High risk CSP = 24H room temp, 3D fridge, 45D frozen

50
Q

FED How long is IV Bactrim stable for once diluted, window of time

A

2-6 hours, so the BUD is 2-6 hours depending on the final concentration

51
Q

FED What are 2 examples of ISO 5 PECs that can be used inside of an SCA

A

LAFW or CAI. CAI is aka glovebox

52
Q

FED Low risk CSPs prepared in an ISO 5 PEC in an SCA receive a BUD of ___ for room temp and ___ for fridge and ___ for freezer

A

Since its made in an ISO 5 PEC in SCA area, the BUD for fridge/room temp is 12H for both, and is NOT to be frozen

53
Q

FED Immediate-use CSPs should be at what temperature and administration should have started within what time frame

A

Room temp, start administration w/i 1 hour

54
Q

FED What 3 parts of aseptic technique are evaluated during a gloved fingertip test

A

Hand hygiene, garbing, and gloving

55
Q

FED How often is passing the gloved fingertip test when compounding low, medium, and high risk CSPs initially and then afterward

A

low/med risk = initially, then annually

high risk = initially, then semi-annually

56
Q

FED During an INITIAL gloved fingertip test what is considered passing

A

Three consecutive gloved fingertip samples taken after garbing with ZERO CFUs for both hands

57
Q

FED During an ongoing competency exam gloved fingertip test, what are the requirements to pass

A

At least one sample taken after the completion of the media-fill test, with a goal of = 3 CFUs

58
Q

FED A failing score on the media-fill test is indicated by ___ in the bag after a period of ___

A

Turbidity (cloudiness) in the bag after 14 days of incubation is a failing media-fill test

59
Q

FED What temp should the SEC be kept at, and how many times a day should it be monitored and logged in the log sheet

A

68F or cooler, SEC monitored at least once daily

60
Q

FED The fridge and freezer should be monitored ___, and if they contain vaccines, ____

A

Fridge freezer, monitor daily, unless they have vaccines, then twice daily

61
Q

FED What is the proper fridge and freezer temp ranges

A 
Fridge = 2-8C
Freezer = -25 to -10 C
62
Q

FED Air sampling should be done how often

A

At least every 6 months by a person certified in air sampling, or by a qualified compounding staff member

63
Q

FED USP requires that surfaces be tested how often? And what time of day should they be tested

A

“Periodically”….. testing should occur at the end of the day when the surfaces are in the poorest state

64
Q

FED When performing surface sampling, what areas should the samples be taken from

A

Each from the different ISO areas…. so at least one each from ISO 5, 7, and 8 area

65
Q

FED Air pressure testing involves identifying if a correct differential is present… what does this ensure

A

Ensures the airflow is unidirectional

66
Q

FED How often are air pressure gauges checked

A

At least once daily or with every work shift

67
Q

FED What should the humidity be, and how often should it be checked

A

Humidity not to exceed 60% and at least once daily

68
Q

FED Order the garbing sequence to take place in the anteroom: gown, handwashing, head/face covers, shoe covers

A

Head/face covers
Shoe covers
Handwashing
Non-shedding gown

69
Q

FED Order the garbing sequence to take place in the buffer room (SEC): gloves, sanitize gloves with 70% IPA, alcohol-based hand scrub

A

Alcohol-based hand scrub (povidone/chlorhexidine)
Sterile, powder-free gloves
Sanitize gloves with 70% IPA

70
Q

FED What place determines which drugs are hazardous

A

NIOSH

71
Q

Name 4 common transplant drugs on the NIOSH list of HDs

A

cyclosporine, mycophenolate, tacrolimus, sirolimus

72
Q

FED SDS (formerly MSDS) are safety documents required by ___ to be accessible to all employees working with hazardous materials, including HDs

A

OSHA

73
Q

FED When working with HDs, each pharmacy should have a designated individual who creates SOPs for the steps of working with HDs, which is called the

A

hazard communication program

74
Q

FED Pharmacies must keep a list of all HDs stocked, to be reviewed every ___, or whenever ____

A

Reviewed every 12 months, or whenever a new drug/dosage form is stocked

75
Q

FED If a C-SEC is being used for non-sterile HD compounding, it hsould keep an ISO of at least

A

7

76
Q

FED If using a C-PEC for sterile HD compounding, and there is another C-PEC in the room, how far apart should they be? What activity cannot be done during this time?

A

At least 1 meter apart, and no particle-generating activity (working w powders) can be performed while sterile compounding takes place (I think just with HDs?) pg 99

77
Q

FED For HDs, what are the exhaust requirements for sterile vs nonsterile HD compounding

A

Sterile HD = externally VENTED through HEPA with >/= 30 ACPH

Nonsterile HD = externally EXHAUSTED or passed through at least 2 HEPA filters in a series (redundant HEPA filter) with >/= 12 ACPH

78
Q

FED Compounding of all HDs should be done with ___ air pressure

A

negative

79
Q

FED Closed-system transfer devices (CSTDs) are ___ when compounding HDs, and ____ when administering antineoplastics

A

Recommended when compounding HDs, required when administering antineoplastics if available

80
Q

FED To avoid the time and expense of following all USP 800 requirements, a pharmacy may conduct an ___. This document should be reviewed at least ___

A

Assessment of Risk (AoR) for HD drugs w lower risk…. document should be reviewed at least every 12 months

81
Q

FED As part of developing an Assessment of Risk for HDs, the pharmacy must develop ____ to limit staff exposure

A

SOPs

82
Q 
FED Select all. Which of the following would a C-PEC have to be used for when handling HDs?
A) Counting tablets
B) Packaging tablets
C) Cutting tablets in half
D) Using powder to prepare a solution
A

C and D, pg 101

83
Q

FED How many pairs of chemo-rated gloves are necessary for each of the following:
A) Compounding
B) Cleaning spills
C) Receiving/storage

A

Compounding & cleaning = 2 pairs

Receiving & storage = 1 pair

84
Q

FED Gowns for preparing and administering HDs and spill clean-up should be ____ and _____

A

Disposable, and impermeable to spills

85
Q

FED Head, hair, and shoe covers should be worn while prepping sterile and non-sterile HDs, but two pairs of ___ should be worn when compounding sterile HDs

A

Two pairs of shoe covers when compounding sterile HDs… but I guess not for nonsterile pg 101

86
Q

FED Eye and face protection should be worn when there is a risk for HD ___

A

spills or splashes….. for fucks sake

87
Q

FED Respiratory protection for most HD compounding includes ____, unless it involves _____

A

N95 respirator, unless it involves gases, vapors, or liquid splashes

88
Q

FED Who regulates the proper disposal of HDs

A

The EPA

89
Q

FED Bulk antineoplastic waste goes in the ___ container, and trace antineoplastic waste goes in the ___ container

A 
Bulk = BLACK
Trace = Yellow
90
Q

FED All PPE worn when handling HDs is considered contaminated with ___ waste

A

trace waste

91
Q

FED Shipments containing HDs should be:
A) Unpacked normally
B) Unpacked wearing chemotherapy gloves
C) Unpacked wearing appropriate PPE, including pair of chemotherapy gloves

A

C

92
Q

FED When HDs are unpacked and not contained in plastic, the staff member should wear an elastomeric half-mask with a multi-gas cartridge and P100-filter, at least until ____

A

assessment of the packing integrity ensures that no breakage or spillage ocured during transport

93
Q

FED A spill kit should be available near the designated receiving area when unpacking ___

A

HDs

94
Q

FED Select all. How should HDs be stored?
A) On the floor
B) Off the floor
C) Separate from non-HDs
D) In a negative pressure room
E) External ventilation and at least 12 ACPH

A

B, C, D, E

95
Q

FED If a delivery containing HDs is damaged, it must be placed in a sealed container, labeled as hazardous, and placed ____ until it can be returned or disposed of
A) In a negative pressure room
B) In the C-PEC if possible, if not, a negative pressure room

A

B

96
Q

FED Pneumatic tubes should not be used to transport any ____ HD or ____ agent

A

liquid HD, antineoplastic

97
Q

FED How many pairs chemo gloves when administering HDs

A

Two pairs

98
Q 
FED Select all. How to administer IV HD drugs
A) 2 pairs chemo gloves
B) Non-shedding gown
C) Chemo gown
D) CSTD, if available
A

A, C, D

99
Q

FED If administration of an oral HD includes manipulation such as crushing tablets, it should be done in a

A

Plastic bag… I would have thought the hood, pg 103

100
Q 
FED Select all. Pharmacies doing HD compounding must perform wipe sampling of all compounding surfaces:
A) Initially
B) Every 6 months
C) Every year
D) Every 2 years
A

Initially + every 6 months

101
Q 
FED Select all. Personnel handling HDs should receive training: 
A) Initially before handling any HDs
B) Every 12 months
C) Every 3 years
D) When a new HD/equipment is involved
A

A) True, initially
B) True, every 12 months
C) False, not every 3 years
D) True, when a new HD/equipment comes in

102
Q

FED ____ protection must be worn when there is a risk for spills or splashes involving HDs, including when working inside of ____

A

Eye/face protection must be worn when ther is a risk for spills or splashes with HDs, including when working in a CPEC and outside a CPEC

103
Q

FED Respiratory protection for most HD compounding

A

N95 respirator

104
Q

FED T/F An N95 supplies sufficient protection agains gases, vapors, or direct liquid splashes from HDs if both NIOSH and OSHA rated

A

False

105
Q

FED Select all. If there is a risk of respiratory exposure to HDs, which of the following may be worn:
A) Level 3 surgical mask
B) N95 respirator
C) Fit-tested respiratory with gas canisters
D) PAPR

A

C & D

106
Q

FED N95 respirator, HD waste bag, chemo pads, and goggles with side shields are likely components contained within:
A) An HD-unloading basket
B) An HD spill kit

A

B

107
Q

FED T/F An HD spill report exposure form does not need to be filled out if the exposure was only for a single person

A

False, an HD spill report exposure form needs to be used to document each time an HD exposure happens from a spill

108
Q

FED A pharmacy may compound a prep with II-V drugs if it does not contain more than ___% controlled substances

A

20%

109
Q

FED What are the 2 records that each compounded product must have

A

1) Master formula record = recipe

2) compounding log/record = log of all products made

110
Q 
FED Select all. The master formula is likely to contain:
A) Equipment needed
B) Calculations
C) Recommended BUD
D) QC results
E) Lot numbers & expiration dates
A

A, B, C…. D&E are compounding record/log

111
Q 
FED Select all. The compounding log is likely to contain:
A) Preparation/mixing instructions
B) Recommended BUD
C) QC results
D) Staff involved w prep
E) Steps followed
A 
A) Prep/mix instructions: no
B) Recommended BUD: no, should be actual BUD
C) QC, yes
D) staff, yes
E) steps followed, yes
pg 105
112
Q

FED USP 795 recommends, and section 503B federal regulations require, the following statement or similar on the label of a compounded product:
A) “Made for the above labeled individual only”
B) “This is a compounded drug”
C) “This product is not FDA-approved”

A

B) “This is a compounded drug” or similar

113
Q

FED Select all. Endotoxins are produced by:
A) Particulate matter from aersolization of HDs
B) Gram-neg bacteria
C) Gram-pos bacteria
D) Fungi

A

B, C, D

114
Q

FED Endotoxins from _____ represent a serious threat to patient safety, therefore certain CSPs must test negative for ____ before use

A

Gram-negative bacteria; pyrogens

115
Q

FED Finished CSPs should be inspected against ___ immediately after prep to check for particulates, cored pieces, preciptates, and cloudiness
A) A dark background
B) A light background
C) A UV-light

A

A, a dark background

116
Q

FED If a drug is to be repackaged, such as for a unit-dose pack, the USP and FDA guidance assigns a BUD of

A

Six months from date of repacking, unless the manufacturer says it expires sooner

MPJE (9 decks)

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