Ch 4-7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathogenesis of stress-related mucosal injury?

A

Inadequate nutrient blood flow, aggravated by gastric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the two independent risk factors for significant GI bleeding?

A

Mechanical ventilation >48 hours and coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the best method of GI bleeding prophylaxis?

A

Enteral tube feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the pH of the stomach contents affected by sucralfate?

A

Stomach pH is not altered by sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does sucralfate significantly impact the administration of other medications?

A

It binds to certain medications in the GI tract decreasing their absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What common medications are bound and partially neutralized by sucralfate?

A

Warfarin, Digoxin, FQs, Phenytoin, Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mechanism of action, dosing, administration, elimination for Famotidine?

A

H2 blocker, 20mg IV every 10-12 hours, renal elimination - reduce in renal failure or risk neurotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of action, dosing, administration for Ranitidine?

A

H2 blocker, 50mg IV every 6-8 hours, renal elimination - reduce in renal failure or risk neurotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the major disadvantage of continuous H2 blockade?

A

tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is preferred for GI prophylaxis: sucralfate or H2 blocker, why?

A

Sucralfate because NNT is lower for pneumonia prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why might a PPI be preferred over an H2 blocker for GI prophylaxis?

A

No tolerance to prolonged use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the preferred test for occult blood in gastric aspirates, why?

A

Gastroccult because it is not influenced by pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the strategy for prophylaxis against harmful GI contamination in an intubated patient?

A

Oral decontamination: 2% gentamicin, 2% colistin, 2% vancomycin paste applied to buccal mucosa by a gloved finger Q6H until extubated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the efficacy of oral decontamination?

A

Aerobic bacteria and candida after 1 week of continuous treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What patients are candidates for oral decontamination (4)?

A

>1 week ventilation, severe lung impairment, pulmonary aspiration risk, recurrent pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the protocol for selective digestive decontamination (3 components)?

A

Standard oral decontamination; oral meds: (non-absorbable meds) Polymyxin E, tobramycin, amphotericin every 6 hours; systemic preloading: IV cefuroxime Q8H for first 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What patients are candidates for selective digestive decontamination (5)?

A

Liver transplant recipient, severe burns, recurrent septicemia of unknown origin, >1 week of neutropenia, long ICU stay postgastrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the advantage of selective digestive decontamination?

A

35% reduction in mortality when guidelines are followed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you do if you suspect an air embolism during your procedure?

A

Aspirate, place patient left side down keep air in the right side of the heart. Air can be aspirated with a needle through the 4th intercostal space at a 45 degree angle into the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you best see a small pneumothorax on cxr?

A

Obtain films during expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does pleural air collect in supine patients?

A

Subpulmonic recesses and ateromedial border of the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long after a line insertion should you be worried about a pneumo?

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Your patient had a line place 2 days ago, cxr was normal and was doing well but just developed dyspnea, hypoxia. What’s your first test order? Why?

A

Cxr for pneumo

23
Q

What is the proper placement on cxr of an ij or subclavian central line?

A

It should follow the svc and the tip should be at or slightly above the third anterior intercostal space

24
PictureWhat should be done with this catheter?
Either withdraw to innominate vein or advanced further down the svc
25
What is the preferred dressing for catheter insertion sites?
Sterile gauze
26
What kind of antimicrobial protection should there be around a catheter?
None, no ointments in particular
27
How often should peripheral athletes be changed?
Every 72-96 hours
28
What are the indications (4) for central catheter replacement?
Purulent drainageSepsisEmergent placement without aseptic technique Femoral catheters after 48 hours
29
How is a venous catheter maintained?
Daily heparin flush
30
How is an arterial catheter maintained?
Normal saline flush
31
What is the most common cause o catheter obstruction?
Thrombosis
32
What are the signs of catheter thrombosis?
Limited flow, cessation of infusate but able to withdraw blood or total cessation of flow
33
How do you combat thrombotic occlusions without removing the catheter?
Altplase mg maximum
34
How do you combat non-thrombotic occlusion?
Dilute acid - for calcium depositsHcl70% ethanol - lipid infusion
35
What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of upper extremity thrombosis?
Contrast venography
36
Your patient had a central line placed 6 weeks ago and now presents with chest pain, cough and dyspnea. What tests do you order?
Cxr shows mediastinal widening and pleural effusion
37
How do you diagnose svc perforation?
Thorocentesis shows similar glucose levels in pleural fluid to infusion fluid. Confirmed by injecting radio contrast
38
What is the relationship between insertion site inflammation and complications of a catheter?
No relationship to systemic infection, only for surface infections
39
How do you diagnose catheter related septicemia?
Culturing a 2 inch segment of the catheter
40
How common is a catheter infected?
About 50% of suspected catheters are infected.
41
What is the difference between a semiquantitative and a quantitative catheter tip culture?
Semi: rolled on a plateQuant: agitated in broth which is plated
42
What are the 5 most common bugs for catheter tip septicemia?
Staph epidermidis (36)Entercocci (16)Gram (-) aerobic bacilli (16) - pseudomonas/klebsiellaS aureus (13)Candida (11)
43
What is the initial management in a patient with a central line and isolated fever?
Cultures and vanc
44
Treatment of catheter patient with severe sepsis or shock
Remove catheter and treat with vanc and ceftaz
45
Treatment of catheter patient with neutropenia
Remove catheter for culture and start vanc an imipenem
46
Treatment of catheter patient with a prosthetic valve and suspected infection
Remove athletes and start vanc and aminoglycoside
47
What is antibiotic lock therapy?
Concentrated abx in suspected in dwelling catheter. For use only in catheters in place \> 2 weeks for 2 weeks
48
With continued sepsis, what 3 conditions should you think of?
Suppurative thrombosis (thrombus infection from a catheter)EndocarditisDisseminated candidiasis
49
In a patient with s. aureus bacteremia, what other condition should you think of? testing?
endocarditis, TEE
50
What is the most common etiology of nosocomial endocarditis?
s. aureus
51
What is the standard duration of treatment for nosocomial endocarditis?
4-6 weeks of antibiotis
52
sepsis picture with negative culture, what is your first suspicion?
disseminated andidiasis
53
What complication occurs in 1/3 of patients with disseminated candidiasis?
endophthalmitis causing permanent blindness
54
What consult should be ordered on a patient with disseminated candidiasis?
ophtho
55
What are the treatment options (2) and outcome for invasive candidiasis patients?
satisfactory outcomes in 60-70% with either amphotericin B (1st choice) or capsofungin treatment