Ch 317 Allergies anaphylaxis Flashcards

1
Q

leukotriene biosynthetic pathway

A

arachidonic acid is metabolized by 5-lipoxygenase (5-LO) in the presence of an integral nuclear membrane protein, the 5-LO activating protein (FLAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

receptor has a preference for LTD4 and is blocked by the receptor antagonists in clinical use

A

CysLT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

contains genes implicated in the control of IgE levels

A

region of chromosome 5 (5q23-31)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Interleukin

control of IgE levels

A

IL-4

IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interleukin

mucosal mast cell hyperplasia

A

IL-3

IL-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interleukin

central to eosinophil development

A

IL-5 “EOSIN”

GM-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T cell response IL-4

A

TH2 subset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T cell response interferon (IFN)

A

TH1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T cell response

IL-6 and TGF

A

TH17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(+) presence of specific IgE in patients with systemic anaphylaxis:
inject serum intradermally into a normal recipient, followed 24 h later by antigen challenge into the same site –> (+) wheal and flare

A

Prausnitz-Kaustner reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

implicate mast cell activation in a systemic reaction

A

Elevations of tryptase levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dose epinephrine anaphylaxis

A

0.3 to 0.5 mL of 1:1000 (1 mg/mL) epinephrine SC or IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA epinephrine

A

a- and B-adrenergic effects, (vasoconstriction, bronchial smooth-muscle relaxation, and attenuation of enhanced venular permeability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

involves only the superficial portion of the dermis, (well-circumscribed wheals with erythematous raised serpiginous borders and blanched centers that may coalesce to become giant wheals)

A

Urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

well-demarcated localized edema involving the deeper layers of the skin, including the subcutaneous tissue

A

Angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Autoimmune

A

IgE-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

dermographism, cold, solar

A

IgE-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Specific antigen sensitivity (pollens, foods, drugs, fungi, molds, Hymenoptera venom, helminths)

A

IgE-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema
Hereditary angioedema: C1 inhibitor deficiency: null (type 1) and dysfunctional (type 2)

Acquired angioedema: C1 inhibitor deficiency: anti-idiotype and anti-C1 inhibitor

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

A

Bradykinin-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Necrotizing vasculitis

A

Complement-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Serum sickness

A

Complement-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Reactions to blood products

A

Complement-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Direct mast cell-releasing agents (opiates, antibiotics, curare, D-tubocurarine, radiocontrast media)

A

Nonimmunologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Classification of Urticaria and/or Angioedema

Agents that alter arachidonic acid metabolism (aspirin and NSAIDs, azo dyes, and benzoates)

A

Nonimmunologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
appearance of a linear wheal at the site of a brisk stroke with a firm object or by any configuration
Dermographism
26
chronic idiopathic urticaria, presents in response to a sustained stimulus such as a shoulder strap or belt, running (feet), or manual labor (hands)
Pressure urticaria
27
pruritic wheals are of small size (1-2 mm) | precipitated by fever, a hot bath or shower, or exercise --attributed to a rise in core body temperature
Cholinergic urticaria
28
generation of bradykinin occurs with C1 inhibitor (C1INH) deficiency that may be inborn as an autosomal dominant characteristic or may be acquired through the appearance of an autoantibody
Angioedema without urticaria
29
40% patients with chronic urticaria have autoimmune cause as evidenced by findings of antibodies to ___
autoantibodies to the a chain of FcRI (35-45%) | AutoAb to IgE (5-10%)
30
activation markers on basophils
CD63 or CD203
31
autosomal dominant disease due to a deficiency of C1INH (type 1)
Hereditary angioedema | in 85%
32
Hereditary angioedema type II
autosomal dominant disease due to a dysfunctional protein
33
mech acquired form of C1INH deficiency:
1) excessive consumption (due to autoAb) | 2) autoantibody directed to C1INH
34
role of C1INH
blocks the catalytic function of activated factor XII (Hageman factor) and of kallikrein, as well as the C1r/C1s components of C1
35
Blood picture of clinical attacks of angioedema in C1INH-deficient patients
elevated bradykinin | decreased prekallikrein and high-molecular-weight kininogen (from which bradykinin is cleaved)
36
how ACEI causes angioedema
use of blockers results in impaired bradykinin degradation and explains the angioedema that occurs idiosyncratically in hypertensive patients with a normal C1INH
37
dibenzoxepin tricyclic compound with both H1 and H2 receptor antagonist activity, is yet another alternative
Doxepin
38
proven effective when H1 antihistamines fail
Cyproheptadine 8-32 | hydroxyzine
39
Rx urticaria
1) antihistamines
40
CysLT1 receptor antagonist
montelukast
41
therapy of inborn C1INH deficiency
attenuated androgens correct the biochemical defect and afford prophylactic protection; -->production functional C1INH sufficient to control the spontaneous activation of C1
42
used for preoperative prophylaxis
antifibrinolytic agent -aminocaproic acid
43
a kallikrein inhibitor
ecallantide
44
clonal expansion of mast cells that in most instances is indolent and nonneoplastic
Systemic mastocytosis
45
reddish-brown macules or papules that respond to trauma with urtication and erythema
Darier's sign | cutaneous lesions of urticaria pigmentosa
46
Acute urticaria duration
less than 6 weeks
47
Diagnostic criteria for systemic macrocytosis | MAJOR
Multifocal dense infiltrates of mast cells in bone marrow or other tissue or (+) tryptase or metachromasia
48
1% of patients with ISM have skin lesions that appear as tan-brown macules with striking patchy erythema and associated telangiectasia
telangiectasia macularis eruptiva perstans
49
Diagnostic criteria for systemic macrocytosis | MINOR
- Abnormal mast cell morphology : spindle shape and/or multilobed or eccentric nucleus - Aberrant mast cell surface phenotype with expression of CD25 (IL-2 receptor) and CD2 in addition to C117 (c-kit) - Detection of codon 816 mutation in peripheral blood cells, bone marrow cells, or lesional tissue - Total serum tryptase (mostly alpha) greater than 20 ng/mL
50
repeated subcutaneous injections of gradually increasing concentrations of the allergen(s) considered to be specifically responsible for the symptom complex
Immunotherapy, often termed hyposensitization
51
Triad of aspirin intolerance
Nasal polyps rhinosinusitis Asthma
52
Risk factors for nasal polyps
Aspirin intolerance | Chronic staphylococcal colonization
53
___% of individuals with asthma manifest rhinitis
70%
54
condition of enhanced reactivity of the nasopharynx in which a symptom complex resembling perennial AR occurs with nonspecific stimuli
vasomotor rhinitis | perennial nonallergic rhinits
55
Due to prolonged topical use of a adrenergic agents
rhinitis medicamentosa
56
Critical to etiologic diagnosis of AR
immunologic specificity for IgE
57
the most potent drugs available for the relief of established rhinitis
Intranasal high potenscy glucocorticoids
58
AE of azelastine, which may benefit patients with nonallergic vasomotor rhinitis
dysgeusia
59
Approved for treatment of both seasonal and perennial rhinitis which reduces both nasal and ocular symptoms
Montelukast
60
This nasal spray for AR has no side effects and is used prophylactically and on a continuous basis
Cromolyn sodium
61
Duration of immunotherapy
3-5 years
62
Contraindications of immunotherapy
significant CV disease | unstable asthma
63
Duration of urticarial eruptions
12-36 hours duration | except cholinergic/dermatographism lasting 2h
64
Most common sites of urticaria
extremities and face
65
Pathology of urticaria
edema of superficial dermis (urticaria) | subcutaneous tissue and deep dermis (angioedema)
66
Rx urticaria
Antihistamines Cyprohepatdine Montelukast No value: topical GC
67
Hallmark of anaphylactic reaction
onset of manifestation seconds to mines after the introduction of the allergen