Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

AH 64D -10 > Ch 3 (Avionics) > Flashcards

Ch 3 (Avionics) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the range limitation of the VHF radio?

A

22nm for frequencies below 145MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the range limitation of the UHF radio?

A

Approximately 30nm below 300MHz and approximately 35nm above 300MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the range limitation for the FM1 radio in cypher text? Plain text?

A

Cypher: 22nm
Plain: 29nm

Between 40-80MHz:
Cypher: 16.5nm
Plain: 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the range limitation for the FM2 radio?

A

22nm, except for frequencies of 32, 40, or 80 MHz, where it can be as low as 13nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you know the UHF radio is in the FH mode?

A

There is an “F” followed by the net number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Zeroize switch on the EMER panel will not erase classified data in what components?

A

FCR, DTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Does the UHF radio simultaneously monitor GUARD frequency?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the requirements for HAVEQUICK?

A

Time of Day
Word of Day (w/ segments)
Net Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What component provides security for the UHF radio?

A

KY-58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long can it take the FM radio to tune/configure to a COM preset? The radio becomes available after ___ seconds, but transmissions may be broken.

A

10, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is required for Frequency Hopping? Which radio is capable of FH?

A

Time
Hopset
Lockout Set

VHF radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose of the IFM and what radio does it support?

A

Improved FM

It varies the RF power of one of the FM radios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Transmitting IFM in ___ while both FMs are tuned to the same freq can cause damage to the FM__ radio.

A

HIGH, FM2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What will happen if you fail to put the IDM into standby before removing aircraft power?

A

May corrupt or damage data files/IDM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many chances do you have to log in to the TI?

A

3 chances within 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Will digital messages be delayed if that particular radio’s mic is keyed at the same time the SEND button is pressed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many TM members can you have? PRI members?

A

16, 8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What two types of aircraft can communicate between Longbow networks?

A

64s and JSTARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All aircraft must have the same ___ ___ to send/receive the AUTO PP update.

A

Broadcast ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the furthest distance that can be entered into the TI AUTO SA DISTANCE field?

A

2km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes a FAIL message whenever loading COMSETs?

A

A failure to tune any of the radios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many tactical and nontactical presets can you have on your COM page?

A

6, 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three settings for RETRIES when on a Longbow net?

A

2, 1, and 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How long do you have to receive a MICKEY when the RECEIVE TIME button is pressed?

A

60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between plain and cypher transmissions?

A

Plain: no security
Cypher: Encrypted communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does the IDM inhibit button totally inhibit BFT radio transmissions?

A

Nope. The dedicated power switch must be turned off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many messages will be displayed on the SENT ITEMS page (MAIL -> SENTBOX)

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If you send someone LASER CODES on the MAIL -> FILES page, how many are you sending?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What data is derived from the EGIs?

A
  • Heading
  • Acceleration
  • Angular rate
  • Attitude
  • Position
  • Position error estimate
  • Velocity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many channels does the GPS receiver have?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If you put the A/C in “SEA” mode and shut down the aircraft, what mode will you be in when you turn on the A/C?

A

Sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If GPS position is given to the EGIs to align to, the EGI position confidence will read approximately ___ km on the TSD UTIL page initially.

A

.031

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a stored point is given to the EGIs to align to, the position confidence will read approximately ___ km on the TSD UTIL page initially.

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When a position is manually entered for the EGIs to align to on the GND, the position confidence will initially read ___ km.

A

.05 km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long does it take the EGIs to align on the GND? In FLT?

A

4 minutes

35 seconds

36
Q

What is the purpose of the keys in the GPS?

A

They allow the GPS to remain useful in the event GPS satellites are not available for public use.

37
Q

Is the GPS classified if keys are installed?

38
Q

If no GPS keys are installed, position information will remain good, but ___ information will continue to grow over time.

39
Q

If the GPS is keyed, it can take up to ___ minutes to verify the key with satellites.

40
Q

Whenever you make changes to waypoints or routes, the ___ will automatically update the ___ with those changes.

41
Q

What are the two independent air data subsystems linked to?

A

The FMC and the HADS.

42
Q

Which AADS probe is the only one to provide temperature information directly to the SP?

43
Q

What data does the FMC provide?

A
  • PA
  • DA
  • Barometric ALT
  • Static air pressure
  • Sideslip angle
  • Lateral true airspeed
  • True airspeed
  • Calibrated airspeed
  • Longitudinal airspeed
  • Static temperature
  • Air density ratio
44
Q

How does the aircraft calculate its altitude in MSL?

A

Using the ADS and the Radar Altimeter

45
Q

If you display all 1000 points in your database, the TSD will not be able to maintain display rate. What is the reason for this?

46
Q

If the DP is unable to keep up with the number of points you have chosen to display, what do you do? (two things)

A

Only display the first 300 points and do not display point text.

47
Q

When will a HDG button be displayed on the TSD?

A

When heading error is greater than 10*

48
Q

What are the two methods for updating the position of the aircraft?

A

Manually enter the position on the KU or select a known point.

49
Q

In what TSD mode is the Next Waypoint Status Window displayed?

50
Q

How do you know your TSD map is frozen?

The TSD Map is frozen until what?

A

Dashed box along the outside and a frozen ownship symbol.

The primary EGI becomes aligned.

51
Q

The large SA Status Window will tell you what about the icon?

A
  • Course and speed
  • UTM Coordinate data
  • Latitude and Longitude
  • Altitude (MSL)
52
Q

When will winds be displayed as “CALM”? When will windspeeds be displayed in yellow?

A

Windspeed is less than 5kts

When Nr 45kts

53
Q

Which points in the 1000 point database are shared data points?

A

100 thru 950

54
Q

Which points in the 1000 range database are reserved for targets?

55
Q

Targets over ___ cannot be edited nor can new targets be added/stored into targets.

56
Q

The route line becomes partial intensity when the active destination point is other than what?

A

The next point in the current route.

57
Q

How much space is between ground track dots?

58
Q

What points in the 1000 point database are reserved for waypoints/hazards?

59
Q

How many points can you have dedicated as a “safe set”?

60
Q

What points in the 1000 point database are reserved for control measures?

61
Q

The green line originating from the ownship icon that represents the TADS LOS changes to what color to signify LASING?

62
Q

What are the max number of FCR targets to be displayed on the TSD page?

63
Q

How many spot report symbols can be stored and displayed?

64
Q

How many shot-at files can be stored in the A/C?

65
Q

When will a WAYPOINT APPROACH and PASSAGE advisory be displayed?

A

When neither crewmember has a dynamic TSD and the A/C is within one minute of passing a waypoint or upon waypoint passage.

66
Q

What are the available selections for ASE AUTOPAGE?

A

SEARCH
ACQ
TRACK
OFF

67
Q

What does the POSITION CONFIDENCE status window represent?

A

95% probable radial position error of the position estimate altitude and longitude

68
Q

SAT, CHART, and DIG maps can take up to ___ seconds to load.

69
Q

How far should the ADF needle deflect when it is being tested?

A

90* to the right

70
Q

Will any common selections on the NAV page be the same for the ATK page?

71
Q

What are the available selections for Terrain Profile Mode line numbers?

72
Q

When entering LAT/LON coordinates into the KU, the Latitude leading numbers have how many digits? Longitude?

A

2, 3 (must lead with a 0 if the number is less than 100)

73
Q

Can “Safe Set” control measures be edited? Can they be overwritten?

74
Q

The first 16 shot-at coordinates are reserved for what?

A

The ownship

75
Q

If you receive more than one farm report from a team member, what will happen to it?

A

It will be overwritten.

76
Q

How many PFZs and NFZs can be displayed on a TSD?

77
Q

How many PFZs and NFZs can be active at one time?

78
Q

Will FCR targets inside a NFZ be prioritized?

79
Q

What is the range for Target Reference Points? What is the default setting?

80
Q

What is the default number of zones for a PFZ?

A

One for each zone members designated plus one for the ownship.

81
Q

The active PFZ will be displayed on which FCR mode pages?

A

GTM and ATM

82
Q

How is a NFZ depicted on a TSD and FCR page?

83
Q

Can the OBS SFTY inhibit for the HF Engagement Status Window be overridden by the second detent?

84
Q

Why do we select the MODE 4 HOLD option on shutdown?

A

To enable the computer to save the last MODE 4 codes for utilization on the next power-up.

85
Q

What does Mode 4 on the transponder provide us?

A

A crypto-secure mode of identification by relying on an encrypted interrogation.

86
Q

What does Mode 3/A/C on the transponder provide us?

A

A: Airspeed
C: Altitude

Mode 3 is used for ATC.

AH 64D -10 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions