Ch. 2 - Orientation to Surgical Technolog Flashcards

1
Q

“Captain of the ship” doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.

True
False

A

True

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2
Q

Verification that educational programs meet minimum accreditation standards is done by:

a.NBSTSA

b. AST

c. HIPAA

d. CAAHEP

A

d. CAAHEP

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3
Q

Graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by:

a.ARC/STSA

b.AST

c.NBSTSA

d.CSPS

A

c.NBSTSA

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4
Q

Specimen loss, mislabeling, and improper preparation are examples of which of the following?

a.battery

b.negligence

c.defamation

d.intentional tor

A

b.negligence

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5
Q

In 2004, which of the following agencies created the “Do Not Use” abbreviation list?

a.American Medical Association (AMA)

b.Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

c.the Joint Commission (JC)

d.Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)

A

c.the Joint Commission (JC)

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6
Q

Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?

a.
OSHA

b.
FDA

c.
EPA

d.
HIPAA

A

b.
FDA

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care?

a.
A retained surgical sponge is discovered in subsequent procedure.

b.
A patient suffers a burn due to hot instruments.

c.
A tissue specimen is misplaced by a transporter.

d.
Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.

A

d.
Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.

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8
Q

In a common adage, what is the “best medicine” in health care?

a.
documentation

b.
conscience

c.
judgment

d.
prevention

A

d.
prevention

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9
Q

All of the following carry the force of state or national legal enforcement EXCEPT:

a.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

b.
implementation of the neutral zone

c.
Patient Self-Determination Act

d.
scope of practice

A

b.
implementation of the neutral zone

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10
Q

The best assurance of safe and individual professional behavior by the CST or CSFA is a well-developed, unyielding:

a.
liability insurance

b.
scope of practice

c.
surgical conscience

d.
core curriculum

A

c.
surgical conscience

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11
Q

The American Hospital Association replaced its “Patient’s Bill of Rights” with which of the following?

a.
Patient Care Partnership

b.
Patient Self-Determination Act

c.
doctrine of personal liability

d.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

A

a.
Patient Care Partnership

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12
Q

General consent is obtained by patients admitted to the hospital and covers all routine services and medical treatment in broad terms but not invasive procedures such as surgery.

True
False

A

True

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13
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate, and legal records of a patient’s medical care?

a.
liability

b.
consent

c.
accountability

d.
documentation

A

d.
documentation

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14
Q

Surgical team members who fail to monitor and protect a medicated patient from falling could be charged with:

a.
assault

b.
larceny

c.
abandonment

d.
batter

A

c.
abandonment

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15
Q

Which type of consent applies when emergency circumstances exist when reasonable providers believe that a patient would agree to treatment, even if no form was signed or verbal permission given?

a.
informed

b.
implied

c.
general

d.
direct

A

b.
implied

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16
Q

What is establishing a neutral zone designed to do?

a.
prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures

b.
quarantine patients with airborne diseases

c.
diffuse potential violence in high-stress situations

d.
reduce cross-contamination in the OR suite

A

a.
prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures

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17
Q

For which of the following processes are identification and reporting of unsafe conditions and hazards MOST critical?

a.
advance directives

b.
unintentional torts

c.
informed consent

d.
risk management

A

d.
risk management

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18
Q

Which of the following legal doctrines would MOST likely apply in the case of a wrong site surgery or retained foreign body?

a.
res ipsa loquitur

b.
caveat emptor

c.
primum non nocere

d.
aeger primo

A

a.
res ipsa loquitur

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18
Q

The legal term that identifies the knowledge and skills required for a profession and describes a health care provider’s core accountability, based on education, experience, and credentialing is:

a.
recommended standards of practice

b.
policies and procedures

c.
scope of practice

d.
professional liability

A

c.
scope of practice

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19
Q

Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving injury to a patient as a result of a hospital employee’s lack of proper training or credentialing?

a.
doctrine of borrowed servant

b.
doctrine of corporate negligence

c.
primum non nocere

d.
captain of the ship doctrine

A

b.
doctrine of corporate negligence

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20
Q

Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as “professional misconduct that results in harm to another”?

a.
liability

b.
negligence

c.
malpractice

d.
allegation

A

c.
malpractice

21
Q

Errors in chart documentation should be erased to prevent confusion by subsequent caregivers.

True
False

A

False

22
Q

Which of the following terms describes a civil wrong that may be intentional or unintentional?

a.
indictment

b.
liability

c.
tort

d.
complain

A

c.
tort

23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of individual professional credentialing that protects the public from unqualified health care providers?

a.
certification

b.
registration

c.
licensure

d.
accreditation

A

d.
accreditation

24
Q

Which of the following surgical patients would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law?
a.
adult in a persistent vegetative state

b.
a foreign language speaker without an interpreter

c.
premedicated competent adult

d.
an emancipated 16-year-old minor

A

d.
an emancipated 16-year-old minor

25
Q

Which of the following terms meets the following definition: a voluntary and informed act in which one party gives permission to another party to “touch”?

a.
consent

b.
battery

c.
time-out

d.
advance directive

A

a.
consent

26
Q

Which of the following terms describes the system of moral principles and rules that become standards of conduct for professionals?

a.
doctrines

b.
morals

c.
ethics

d.
precedents

A

c.
ethics

27
Q

The phrase “departure from the standard of care” BEST describes which of the following legal terms?

a.
malpractice

b.
liability

c.
negligence

d.
larcen

A

c.
negligence

28
Q

If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following?

a.
assault

b.
battery

c.
negligence

d.
intentional tort

A

c.
negligence

29
Q

Which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel?

a.
civil

b.
federal

c.
criminal

d.
statutory

A

a.
civil

30
Q

What is the name of the organization whose focus is on patient and worker safety and is a unique coalition of surgeons (ACS), anesthesiologists (ASA), operating room (AORN) and perianesthesia (ASPAN) nurses, CRNAs (AANA), surgical physician assistants (AASPA), and surgical technologists (AST)?

a.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

b.
Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS)

c.
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

d.
the Joint Commission (TJC)

A

b.
Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS)

31
Q

Which of the following was identified in the late 1990’s as causing more deaths in the United States than car accidents, AIDS, and breast cancer combined?

a.
medical errors

b.
terrorist attacks

c.
equipment manufacturing flaws

d.
H1N1 influenza

A

a.
medical errors

32
Q

Which of the following forms of consent is defined by the Joint Commission as “agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to”?

a.
informed

b.
implied

c.
general

d.
special

A

a.
informed

33
Q

What is the term that describes a method of pretrial discovery in which a surgical team member might answer questions under oath?

a.
allegation

b.
deposition

c.
indictment

d.
precedent

A

b.
deposition

34
Q

The broad objectives of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.
reduce health care fraud

b.
eliminate medical errors

c.
improve patient services

d.
protect patient privacy

A

b.
eliminate medical errors

35
Q

Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional?

a.
defamation

b.
invasion of patient privacy

c.
battery

d.
foreign bodies left in patient

A

d.
foreign bodies left in patient

36
Q

According to the Joint Commission’s definition regarding consent to surgical intervention, which party has “autonomy”?

a.
the surgeon

b.
circulating RN

c.
anesthesia provider

d.
the patient

A

d.
the patient

37
Q

A special consent form would be required for which of the following situations during a hospital admission?

a.
surgical procedure

b.
phlebotomy

c.
chest x-ray

d.
respiratory therapy

A

a.
surgical procedure

38
Q

All of the following are components of the surgical patient’s medical record EXCEPT:

a.
interdepartmental communications

b.
anesthesia record

c.
history and physical

d.
surgeon’s preference card

A

d.
surgeon’s preference card

39
Q

What is the name of the type of report sent to risk management in an effort to decrease the chance of harm to patients or staff or damage to hospital property?

a.
informed consent

b.
advance directive

c.
Safe Medical Device Act

d.
sentinel event

A

d.
sentinel event

40
Q

The most common types of patient-care errors committed by operating room personnel, including negligence and malpractice, are categorized as:

a.
standard of care

b.
intentional torts

c.
unintentional torts

d.
corporate liabilit

A

c.
unintentional torts

41
Q

Which member of the surgical team is ultimately responsible for obtaining a written, informed surgical consent from a patient?

a.
surgical technologist

b.
surgeon

c.
circulating RN

d.
anesthesia provider

A

b.
surgeon

42
Q

Living will and durable power of attorney are examples of advance directives in health care.

True
False

A

True

43
Q

Which of the following terms describes the principles such as benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty for the care and well-being of others in society?

a.
precedents

b.
doctrines

c.
ethics

d.
moral

A

d.
moral

44
Q

Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving failure by the RN and CST to do proper surgical counts resulting in retention of a foreign object and the surgeon being found not liable?

a.
primum non nocere

b.
captain of the ship doctrine

c.
doctrine of borrowed servant

d.
doctrine of corporate negligence

A

c.
doctrine of borrowed servant

45
Q

The first scrub surgical technologist performs intraoperative tasks under the broad delegatory authority of the:

a.
surgeon

b.
circulating RN

c.
anesthesiologist

d.
OR supervisor

A

a.
surgeon

46
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of a potential ethical dilemma?

a.
genetic engineering

b.
right to die, termination of care

c.
elective abortion

d.
patient privacy

A

d.
patient privacy

47
Q

Which of the following pertains to a patient’s wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate?

a.
sentinel event

b.
deposition

c.
informed consent

d.
advance directive

A

d.
advance directive

48
Q

Which part of the patient’s medical record documentation would contain pre-op and post-op diagnoses, positioning, skin prep, start and stop times, counts, and dressings?

a.
advance directive

b.
informed consent

c.
intraoperative record

d.
anesthesia record

A

c.
intraoperative record

49
Q

A surgical technology student who photographs a patient and posts the image on the Internet could be sued for invasion of privacy and HIPAA violation.

True
False

A

True