Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CO State NAB > CH 2 > Flashcards

CH 2 Flashcards

1
Q

enforcement activity means ___

A

imposition of remedies such as civil money penalties; appointment of a receiver or temporary manager; conditional licensure; suspension or revocation of a license; a directed plan of correction; intermediate restrictions or conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

individual licencees must notify the department of health at least ___ prior to any name change or any other contact information

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a provisional license shall be valid for ___

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

except for ALF a 2nd provisional license may be issued if ___

A

substantial progress continues to be made and it is likely compliance can be achieved by date of expiration of second provisional license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

licensee seeking renewal shall submit renewal application ___ prior to expiration of the existing license

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

applicants have ___ to respond to written notice of any application defect

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a change of ownership requires the department of health to be notified of said change __ before the change takes place

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

change of ownership for assisted living, home health, hospice with less than 16 in patient beds shall notify the department at least ___ days before the change

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

conversion of a health care entities legal structure or legal structure of an entity that has direct ownership interest in a health care entity is not a change of ownership unless ____

A

the conversion includes a transfer of at least 50% of the direct ownership to one or more new owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the department shall review an applicants fitness to conduct a licensed operation by ___

A

completing an on-site inspection or other appropriate investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the department shall not issue or renew any license unless it has received ____

A

certificate of compliance from division of fire prevention and control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the department may allow admission above the licensed capacity for no longer than ___ if ___ and ___

A

no longer than 1 month

if the patient requires immediate admission and there is no alternative source of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in the event of a health emergency involving multiple ill or injured persons, health care entities may admit above their max bed capacity for a period of no more than ___. One extension for no more than ___ may be requested

A

14 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a license issued by the department may be revoked, suspended, limited, or modified at any time because of ___

A

licensees failure to comply with applicable statutes or regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

if conditions are imposed at the same time as an initial or renewal license the applicant shall

A

pay the applicable initial or renewal license fee plus conditional fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

if a licensee holds a conditional license it shall post a clearly legible copy of the license conditions in a ___

A

in a conspicuous public place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

each license or certificate of compliance shall become invalid when the licensee fails to timely renew the license, ceases operation, or there is a final agency action. In this case the license shall be returned within ___

A

10 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when health care entity surrenders its license it shall inform the department in writing of specific plan for storage and retrieval of records within ___

A

10 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

within __ days of closure the facility shall inform all residents in writing how to obtain their records

A

10 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the department has a discretion to deny a requested increase in license capacity if ___

A

they determine potential risk to the health, safety or welfare of the patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

routine unannounced on site inspections by a department member shall be made only between the hours of ___

A

7am and 7pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the department may use ___ and ___ measures to ensure a licensees full compliance with the statutory and regulatory criteria.

A
  1. unscheduled or unannounced reviews

2. plan of correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

plan of correction shall include ___

A
  1. description of how licensee will correct deficiency
  2. description of how licensee will monitor the corrective action
  3. timeline with the expected implementation and completion date.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the plan of correction implementation date shall be no longer than ___

A

30 calendar days from the date of mailing of the deficiency to the licensee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a plan of correction must be submitted back to the department within ___ of the departments notice of deficiencies and must be signed by ___

A

10 calendar days

the administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

if the plan of correction is accepted, the department shall notify the entity in ___

A

writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

if the plan of correction is unacceptable the department shall notify the licensee in writing and the licensee shall resubmit the changes within ___

A

time frame prescribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

if the licensee fails to implement the actions agreed to by the correction date in the approved plan of correction the department may ___

A

impose disciplinary sanctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the department may deny an application for a license for reasons including ___

A

the applicant ….

  1. has not complied with local state and federal laws.
  2. application or documents contain false statement
  3. fails to respond timely
  4. refuses any part of on site inspection
  5. fails to comply with acceptable plan of correction
  6. background check reveals issues
  7. failed to cooperate with investigation
  8. has pattern of non compliance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

healthcare entity shall be eligible for a performance incentive if ___

A
  1. licensee has no significant deficiencies
  2. licensee has fully cooperated during on site inspection
  3. department has found no documented actual or potential harm
  4. plan of correction was submitted and executed within required time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the incentive payment shall be calculated at __ of the agencies renewal license fee

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the incentive payment shall be payed to the licensee within ___ days following the acceptance of the validation of correction of sited deficiencies

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

every healthcare entity licensed by the department shall establish a ___ program appropriate to the size and type of facility

A

quality management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

quality management program shall include description of cases, problems, or risks to be reviewed and criteria for ___ without limitation

A

identifying potential risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

quality management program shall include identification of the ___ or ___ responsible for coordinating quality management activities and the means of reporting to the administrator

A

personnel
or
committees

36
Q

quality management program shall include description of the method for systematically reporting information to ___ within prescribed time

A

person designated by the facility

37
Q

quality management program shall include a method for ___ and ___ the frequency and causes of individual problems

A

investigating
and
analyzing

38
Q

quality management program shall include method for taking corrective action to address the problems including ___ and ___ risks

A

preventing
and
minimizing

39
Q

quality management program shall include method for ___ of corrective action to determine effectiveness

A

follow-up

40
Q

quality management program shall include method for coordinating all pertinent case, problem, or risk review information such as procedures for review of ___, ___, ___, and ___

A

resident care
employee conduct
grievance system
training programs

41
Q

quality management committee meeting shall be held at least every ___

A

90 days

42
Q

occurrences shall be reported to the department within ___

A

the next business day

43
Q

occurrences that require a report to the department by next business day are ___

A
  1. occurrence resulting in death of a patient
  2. occurrence resulting in serious injury to patient
  3. patient cannot be located for more than 8 hours
  4. occurrence involving 7 forms of abuse
  5. occurrence involving drug diversion
  6. occurrence involving intentional or accidental misuse of patient care equipment that significantly effects patient health
44
Q

true or false: health care entity must have policy for requiring its employees to report occurrences to it

A

TRUE

45
Q

upon receipt of occurrence summary report from the department the health care entity shall be allowed ___ to review, comment, and verify information

A

7 days

46
Q

if palliative care is provided the licensee shall have written ___ and ___ for comprehensive delivery of services

A

policies and procedures

47
Q

general waiver applications shall include ___

A
  1. copy of the posted notice
  2. schematic drawings of area affected if pertains to physical plant
  3. services affected by the waiver
  4. number of residents in facility
  5. description of applicants efforts to comply with regulation
  6. explanation of applicants proposed alternatives
  7. explanation of why waiver would not adversely affect welfare of residents
  8. description of how federal regulation will be met despite waiver
48
Q

no later than the date of submitting the waiver the applicant shall post written notice of the application for ___ at all public entrances

A

30 days

49
Q

the department shall act on a waiver application within ___ of receipt of the completed application

A

90 days

50
Q

within ___ of expiration of waiver the applicant shall submit to the department an attestation

A

30 days

51
Q

to prevent automatic termination of a waiver upon change of ownership the new owner may submit a waiver prior to ___

A

effective date of change of ownership

52
Q

no waiver shall be granted for a term that exceeds ___ from the date of issuance

A

1 year

53
Q

to maintain a waiver beyond stated term applicant must submit new waiver application not less than ___ prior to the expiration of the current waiver

A

90 days

54
Q

a patient may inspect his/her patient record within a reasonable time, which should normally not to exceed ___ from request excluding ___

A

24 hours

weekends and holidays

55
Q

an acceptable reason not to show a portion of a residents health record to the resident would be

A

the attending provider feels that said portion would have significant negative psychological impact upon the patient

56
Q

the facility shall make the discharge record available for inspection within a reasonable time. normally not to exceed ___ excluding ___

A

10 days

holidays and weekends

57
Q

financial interest means

A

direct ownership of 5% or more of stock or property

58
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to participate in ___ involving treatment

A

decisions

59
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to be informed of whether health care entity is participating in ___

A

teaching programs

60
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to refuse ___ and be informed of ____ and ___

A

treatment

risks and benefits

61
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to care and treatment that is ___ and recognizes a persons ___

A

respectful

dignity

62
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to know the names, professional status and ___ of the staff

A

experience

63
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to receive upon request the estimated ___

A

average charge to the patient

64
Q

upon request an itemized bill shall be made available within ___ of the request or ___ after discharge

A

10 days

30 days after discharge

65
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to give informed consent for all __ and ___

A

treatment
and
procedures

66
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to register complaints with the healthcare entity and the department and to be informed of ___ for registering complaints

A

procedures

67
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to be free of ___ and ___

A

abuse
and
neglect

68
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to be free of the inappropriate use of ____

A

restraints

69
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to be accepted for care and services to a facility that can ___

A

meet their identified and reasonably anticipated treatment needs

70
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to care delivered by the health care entity in accordance with

A

the needs of the patient

71
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to confidentiality of ___

A

medical records

72
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to receive care in a ___

A

safe setting

73
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to know whether referrals to other providers are entities in which the health care entity has a ___

A

financial interest

74
Q

resident or resident representative has the right to formulate advanced directives and have the health care entity comply with such directives as applicable and in compliance with ____

A

applicable state statutes

75
Q

the health care entity shall disclose patient rights prior to ___ or upon ___

A

treatment
or
upon admission

76
Q

must post a clear and unambiguous notice in public location specifying that complaints may be registered with ___, ___, and with the appropriate over sight board at the ___

A

health care entity
department
DORA

77
Q

residents shall be able to submit grievances ___ hours per day either ___ or in ___ to health care entity staff member

A

24 hours a day
orally
writing

78
Q

the patient care advocate shall investigate the grievance and respond to the patient in writing within ___ working days

A

15 days

79
Q

a health care entity may use reprocessed single use device when obtained from ___

A

a re-processer registered with the FDA

80
Q

a health care facility shall routinely submit its hospital acquired infection data to ____

A

national health safety network (NHSN)

81
Q

if department determines that health facility is out of compliance with any provisions it may impose the following sanctions

A
  1. revocation of license
  2. denial of renewal for license
  3. civil penalty of up to 1,000 dollars per violation for each day the health facility is deemed to be out of compliance
82
Q

___ % of employees vaccinated by 12/31/12

A

60%

83
Q

___ % of employees vaccinated by 12/31/13

A

75%

84
Q

___% of employees vaccinated by 12/31/14 and by 12/31 each year thereafter

A

90%

85
Q

annual influenza vaccination report shall be submitted to the department no later than ____ the following year

A

March 31st

CO State NAB (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions