Ch 18 Juvenile orthopaedic disease Flashcards

1
Q
A

the fossa for the origin of the long digital extensor muscle is sometimes mistaken for a lateral femoral condyle OC lesion

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2
Q

OC of the lateral trochlea of the talus can be obscured by superimposition of the calcaneus in the dorsoplantar view. Which viewS would be useful to avoid this?
a. dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique
b. Flexed dorsoplantar view
c. Extended dorsoplantar view
d. Dorsomedial-plantarolateral oblique

A

a and b

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3
Q

What is false about elbow dysplasia?
a. Typically bilateral disease
b. A slight craniolateral to caudomedial (pronating the limb 15-25 degrees) view can be used to
highlight the medial coronoid process and medial humeral trochlea.
c. Osteophyte formation on the lateral epicondyle is one of the earliest signs of DJD.
d. Clinical signs may be apparent as early as 4-6 months of age

A

c. proximal margin of the anconeal process

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4
Q

Osteochondrosis is frequently bilaterally symmetric, thefore the contralateral limb x-ray should be performed. True or false?

A

true

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5
Q

Are always the chondral flaps of OCD visual in radiographs? True of false

A

No always, only if ossified.

  • intraarticular contrast medium (arthrography) can be used to outline the flap if contrast medium dissects between the fragment and the underlying subchondral bone and arthroscopy
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6
Q

Triad of common developmental diseases that are encountered so frequently that the term elbow
dysplasia is used clinically to refer to them

A

ununited anconeal process
medial coronoid process disease of the ulna
OC of the distomedial aspect of the humeral trochlea.

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7
Q

What the arrows highlighted in yellow represent

A

Several osteochondral fragments within the bicipital bursa (black arrows).

In dogs the bicipital bursa and shoulder joint freely communicate. Osteochondral fragments from the humeral head can migrate into the bicipital bursa.

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8
Q

What represents the white arrow?

A

An osteophyte arises from the medial margin of the ulna on a craniocaudal view (white arrow). This osteophyte should not be misinterpreted as the coronoid fragment

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9
Q

The anconeal process should be fused normally to the olecranon of the ulna by ___ days, __ months and ___ weeks.

A

150, 5, 22

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10
Q

What is false about congenital radial head luxation?
a. Craniomedial radial head luxation
b. variety of dog breeds affected including bull-dogs, Bouvier de Flandres, Shih Tzu, and Afghan hounds.
c. Affected puppies present with mild forelimb lameness
d. first noticed at 3 to 4 months of age

A

a. caudolateral

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11
Q

What is false about hip dysplasia?
a. The majority of the clinical signs are caused by secondary OA.
b. Polygenic inherited disease that is influenced by environmental factors.
c. Multiple environmental factors are implicated in the phenotypic expression, but they do not cause HD
d. In a normal coxofemoral joint, the dorsal acetabular
rim covers less than 50% of the femoral head

A

d. more than

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12
Q

Order the breeds for highher to lower hip laxity as measured by distraction index (DI):

German Sheperd and Labradors, Golden retrievers, Estrala mountain dogs

A

0.85 in Estrela mountain dogs
0.64 in Golden Retrievers
0.46 German shepherd dogs and Labradors

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13
Q

Typical regions for osteochondrosis and osteochondrosis dissecans (6 regions, some can involve the same bone)

A

caudal aspect of the humeral head
distomedial humeral trochlea
lateral and medial femoral condyles,
medial and lateral trochlear ridges of the talus.

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14
Q

What is the typical age range for dogs affected by panosteitis?

A) 1–3 months
B) 5–12 months
C) 1–3 years
D) Over 7 years

A

b. German shepherd dogs as young as 2 months and as
old as 7 years have been reported.

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15
Q

In panosteitis, although the lesions can affect any part of the diaphysis of a long bone, they often originate and are most pronounced near the _____________________

A

Nutrient foramen

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16
Q

Which radiographic sign is associated with nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A) Increased bone opacity
B) Decreased bone opacity with potential thin cortices
C) Thickened trabecular bone
D) Sclerotic patellae

A

B

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17
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in which component?
A) Type 1 collagen
B) Osteoclast function
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Calcium metabolism

A

A

It has been reported in Dachshunds and Finnish Laphunds. Affected puppies may or may not have stunted growth, multiple reoccurring fractures, and laxity of joints, and the teeth may appear pink. The cortices are thin and contain woven bone with no Haversian canals.

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18
Q

Which condition is characterized by a generalized increase in bone opacity, particularly in medullary cavities?
A) Panosteitis
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

b

DDx: In cats, varying degrees of osteosclerosis with nonregenerative anemia induced by FeLV reported
and the radiographic appearance is identical to that described for osteopetrosis

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19
Q

Which is NOT a clinical feature of knees and teeth syndrome in cats?
A) Persistent deciduous teeth
B) Unerupted permanent teeth
C) Spontaneous atraumatic patellar fractures
D) Supernumerary limbs

A

d.

onset of the first fracture ranges from 4 months to 8 years with a mean age of the first patellar fractures at 28 months. Some 78% of these cats develop contralateral patellar fracture. Th

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20
Q

Which bone is most commonly affected by agenesis or hypoplasia?
A) Femur, metacarpal
B) Radius, tibia and ulna
C) Humerus, metatarsal
D) Scapula, phalangeal bones

A

B. The radius, tibia, and ulna are most often involved,
although the metacarpal, metatarsal, and phalangeal bones can also be affected.

more often a result of in utero environmental factors

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21
Q

What is the most common form of polymelia?
A) Supernumerary limbs
B) Polydactyly
C) Agenesis
D) Hypoplasia

A

b

GREAT PYRENEES

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22
Q

Which breed is primarily affected by calvarial hyperostosis syndrome?
A) German Shepherd
B) Bullmastiff
C) Dachshund
D) West Highland White Terrier

A

D

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23
Q

hat is the typical age range for Bullmastiff puppies affected by calvarial hyperostosis syndrome?
A) 1–3 months
B) 5–10 months
C) 1–2 years
D) Over 3 years

A

B

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24
Q

Which bones are primarily involved in calvarial hyperostosis syndrome?
A) Mandible and tympanic bulla
B) Frontal, temporal, and occipital bones
C) Ulnae and fibulae
D) Patella and ischium

A

B

It histologically resembles craniomandibular osteopathy.

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25
How does calvarial hyperostosis syndrome histologically compare to another condition? A) Osteogenesis imperfecta B) Panosteitis C) Craniomandibular osteopathy D) Osteopetrosis
C
26
What is the typical prognosis for calvarial hyperostosis syndrome? A) Progressive and fatal B) Improves or resolves with time C) Requires surgical intervention D) Leads to permanent deformity
B
27
Which breeds are most commonly affected by aseptic necrosis of the femoral head? A) Large-breed dogs B) Toy and small-breed dogs C) Giant-breed dogs D) Medium-breed dogs
B
28
29
D
30
B
31
B
32
A
33
A, B
34
C
35
C, D
36
B
37
B, C
38
A
39
C
40
B
41
B
42
C
43
B (type 1 collagen)
44
B
45
A
46
A
47
C
48
D
49
A (type 1)
50
C
51
D
52
C
53
C (medial)
54
B
55
A
56
C
57
B
58
A
59
C
60
B
61
B
62
D
63
C
64
B *5-12 mo
65
C * male cats
66
D
67
B - *chondrodysplasia
68
C - distomedial aspect*