Ch. 14 - 18 Flashcards

1
Q

phylogeny

A

hypothesis about the evolutionary relationship of genes, cells, individuals, populations, species

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2
Q

root

A

the common ancestor of all species under discussion

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3
Q

node

A

the most recent common ancestor of a subgroup

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4
Q

clade

A

monophyletic group

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5
Q

monophyletic group

A

a group of organisms that consists of their common ancestor and all descendants, nothing extraneous or missing

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6
Q

tips/terminal nodes

A

the end of a branch, a species/group depending on tree

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7
Q

tree topology

A

branching order, idea that taxa can be rotated around nodes and still depict the same relationship

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8
Q

sister group

A

the closest relatives of a given unit in a tree, each node defines a sister group

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9
Q

3 types of groups in phylogenetic tree

A

monophyletic, paraphyletic, polyphyletic

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10
Q

non-monophyletic groups:

A

paraphyletic and polyphyletic

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11
Q

paraphyletic group

A

a common ancestor and some, but not all, descendants

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12
Q

polyphyletic group

A

a grouping of species that does not include their common ancestor

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13
Q

myth of ‘ancestral living species’

A

no currently existing species is ancestral to any other, a trait can be ancestral as they all evolved at different times but a living species cannot be ancestral

there can be primitive traits/adaptations within a species, but not primitive taxa, as there are always some traits that are shared by most/all lineages (such as cells, multicellularity, vertebrate, placenta, bipedalism…etc)

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14
Q

apomorphy

A

a derived character

novel character trait that evolved from a plesiomorphy (ancestral form)

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15
Q

synapomorphy

A

shared derived character

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16
Q

plesiomorphy

A

ancestral, pre-existing character

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17
Q

what defines a clade/monophyletic group?

A

synapomorphy

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18
Q

convergent evolution

A

the independent appearance in different lineages of similar derived characteristics

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19
Q

reversal

A

the loss of derived characters/traits in a lineage, causes a return to the ancestral condition

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20
Q

homoplasy

A

similarity in character states due to convergence or reversal i.e. they have different ancestry but arrived at the same/similar trait

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21
Q

homology

homologous traits are ___ traits

A

similarity in character states due to common ancestry

analogous

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22
Q

analogous structures

A

traits arising through convergent evolution
ex: bat wings, bird wings, insect wings

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23
Q

homoplasy causes ___ structures

A

analogous

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24
Q

what is the outgroup? (as compared to the ingroup)

A

the ingroup is the species whose relationships are in question, outgroup is relatives of the ingroup

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25
Q

principle of parsimony

A

the idea that the simplest explanation is the best evolutionary hypothesis, the one that requires the least changes

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26
Q

outgroup analysis

A

use an outgroup member in phylo. analysis, ensures that the finished reconstruction is monophyletic (nothing in what is considered outgroup/relative only is also in the ingroup)

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27
Q

transitions

A

evolutionary modification

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28
Q

polytomy

A

a three-way split in a phylogenetic tree (rather than just two), represents lingering uncertainty about the evolutionary relationships

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29
Q

uninformative characters

A

traits shared by all members of the group, don’t add any information to a parsimony analysis because the number of changes is equal or there is no difference at all

30
Q

how does homoplasy come about?

A

homoplasy: morphological similarities that evolved out of convergent evolution/reversal, meaning the species that present the trait do not share ancestry
these arise independently when lineages experience similar environmental pressures –> similar patterns of natural selection

31
Q

benefits of using DNA/protein sequence to test evo. relationships:

A

new tech makes sequencing faster and less expensive
there are sophisticated models to analyze sequences

32
Q

downsides to using DNA/protein sequence to test evo. relationships:

A

molecular data is only readily available for extant/recently extinct taxa
only 4 states that can be studied - ATCG
homoplasy can be difficult to recognize

33
Q

aligning DNA sequences

A

must be done for sequence analysis,
means that any insertions or deletions that have occurred in some lineages but not all have been identified, and sequences are shifted to account for those differences (basically you want to make sure you are comparing the DNA/protein that is coding for the same things

34
Q

polytomy

A

a node or branch point on a phylogeny with more than 2 descendant lineages emerging

35
Q

3 types of mutation and their fate

A

deleterious: tend to be eliminated by NS rapidly
neutral: tend to rise and fall due to genetic drift
beneficial: either lost to drift at while at a low freq., or rise by NS

36
Q

mutation

A

creation of a new allele

37
Q

substitution

A

fixation of a new allele (mutation) in a population

38
Q

‘the neutral theory of molecular evolution’ (kimura 1968)

A

nearly neutral mutations that are able to rise to fixation via drift vastly outnumber beneficial mutations that rose to fixation via NS

39
Q

molecular clock

A

if substitutions in alleles occurs at a relatively constant rate, we can estimate the divergence time btwn two taxa (based on # of allele differences)

40
Q

redundancy of genetic code

A

many codons may code for the same amino acid (prevents deleterious mutations from single base mutations)

41
Q

synonymous vs nonsynonymous substitutions

A

when the wrong nucleotide is placed in a sequence, it may or may not affect the amino acid formed, and thus, the protein:
Synonymous: Same amino acid formed
Nonsynonymous: wrong amino acid formed

42
Q

synonymous and nonsynonymous substitutions evolve at a constant rate, but _____ sites ‘tick’ faster than _____ sites

A

synonymous ; nonsynonymous
subs that resulted in the same amino acid to be prod. occur more often than ones that do not

43
Q

why do nonsynonymous sites evolve slower than synonymous sites?

A

the vast majority of euk. genome is noncoding, so any mutations that occur there will be ‘neutral’, introns mutate much faster than coding sites (because mutations that affect dev/on coding DNA are usually bad and so will be selected out right away)

44
Q

dN /dS ratio:

A

rate of nonsynonymous substitution per site / rate of synonymous sub. per site

45
Q

if dN/dS > 1
if dN/dS =1
if dN/dS < 1

A

substitution is advantageous
substitution is neutral
substitution is deleterious

46
Q

the probability that a given allele will be the one that drifts to fixation is equal to that allele’s:

A

initial frequency

47
Q

drift is especially important for molecular mutations because:

A

most mutations are neutral, meaning they have an equal chance of being fixed/NS is not acting on them

48
Q

genetic drift is faster in ____ sized populations and slower in ____ sized populations

A

smaller ; bigger

49
Q

what process is responsible for the rapid, clocklike sequence change observed in the molecular clock theory?

A

genetic drift

50
Q

why does genetic drift seem to act more strongly on neutral substitutions than on positive or negative substitutions?

A

positive/negative substitutions are also affected by NS, and because populations are not infinite, it takes much longer for them to reach fixation because there are always other forces at work that may counteract each other

neutral substitutions should, in theory, only be affected by genetic drift since they offer no benefit/weakness, so they will reach fixation/loss faster

51
Q

C-value paradox, and what explains it?

A

C-value is the total amount of DNA found in a cell
little correlation between DNA quantity and an organism’s perceived morphological complexity
explained by: whole-genome duplications resulting in polyploidy & the existence of large portions of noncoding genes/genes that are functionless to the organism’s survival

52
Q

relationship between genome size and protein coding DNA

A

protein coding DNA and genome size increase proportionally up until a certain size, when the amount of coding DNA plateaus but size increases (that is to say, organisms with huge genomes have a larger proportion of noncoding DNA than organisms with smaller genomes)

53
Q

part of DNA that we used to believe was noncoding is actually there to:

A

regulate coding DNA transcription

54
Q

mobile genetic elements

A

replicate and insert themselves in an organism’s genome by hijacking the same cellular machinery that normally replicates/transcribes protein-coding DNA

usually: have no effect on an organism’s phenotype

sometimes: can disrupt the function of protein-coding genes because they insert themselves in the middle of that important sequence –> creates changes in the organism’s phenotype

55
Q

mobile genome elements are much more common in __ than in ___

A

eukaryotes ; prokaryotes

56
Q

regions of the genome:

A

coding
noncoding
intergenic

57
Q

intergenic regions of the genome

A

the space between protein-coding genes

58
Q

introns:

A

occur within the coding regions of genes, are transcribed into mRNA, but are spliced out before protein translation

59
Q

retrotransposans

A

transposans/transposable elements which leave a copy of themselves behind when they move
in these types, this transposition event leads to an increase in that element’s abundance (there are now 2 copies)

60
Q

examples of human diseases caused by transposable elements
(which land in the the middle of a coding region, disrupting the proteins that should have been coded):

A

cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, cancer

61
Q

mobile genetic elements are often called ____ because they can disrupt coding sequences and place an energetic burden on the cell

A

genome parasites

62
Q

the effects of mobile elements in the genome are either:

A

neutral or maladaptive

63
Q

mobile elements favored by NS are:

A

elements that can replicate themselves efficiently and with the least fitness cost to the host genome

64
Q

methylation of DNA:

A

addition of a methyl group to DNA nucleotides that prevents transcription of DNA to RNA, especially common in regions associated with mobile elements
form of pre-transcriptional silencing

65
Q

mechanisms of defense in host organism against mobile elements:

A

methylation
RNA interference/RNAi

66
Q

RNA interference/RNAi/small RNAs

A

short sequences of complementary RNA can silence the expression of a certain DNA gene
form of post-transcriptional silencing

67
Q

2 types of gene duplication

A

whole genome duplication: polyploidization
segmental duplication (smaller sections duplicated)

68
Q

2 most common molecular mechanisms that causes segmental duplication:

A

unequal cross-over between chromosomes during meiosis
& mobile genetic elements

69
Q

when a duplicated gene becomes fixed, then mutates so that the copy performs a new function that increases fitness

A

neofunctionalization

70
Q

4 mechanisms by which a duplicated gene would be preserved:

A

neofunctionalization
subfunctionalization
gene conservation
nonfunctionalization

71
Q

a gene with two functions is duplicated, then mutates so that one of the functions is preserved and one is lost (in both the original and the duplicate)

ie: both versions (og and dup) only perform one out of original 2 functions

A

subfunctionalization