Ch 1 Systems Flashcards
Propeller Diameter
97”
wingtip width
33’5”
Elevator width
11’4”
T-6 Length
33’4”
T-6 Height
10’8”
Oil Level serviced should occur within how long of engine shutdown
30 minutes
Most accurate readings for oil level
15-20 Minutes
How many pickup elements in oil system
two, one for normal and one for inverted flight
Location of oil pumps
-one inside and one outside accessory gearbox
Oil Cooler location
lower aft cowl assembly
Oil tank is cast with______
vented into accessory gear box via __ point breather system, which includes
- compressor air inlet
- 4 point breather system
- breather valve and centrifugal breather
Engine oil pressure maybe show __ PSI even though engine shutdown
4 PSI
Oil Temp and Pressure sensed by
transducers downstream of main oil pump and signal EDM
EDM sends oil info to what
Signal Conditioning unit SCU which contains logic to illuminate CWS
SCU activates red OIL PX light when
Oil Pressure is at or below 40 psi with above idle power, or when 15 psi or below at idle power
SCU activates amber OIL PX when
oil pressure is between 15 to 40 psi at idle, 40 to 90 psi for 10 seconds above idle
when will both amber and red OIL PX go on
oil pressure remains between 15-40 psi at idle for 5 seconds or more
True of false: due to sensitivity of Oil pressure sensor a momentary amber OIL PX can illuminate during a maneuver and not indicate a malfunction
True
What helps prevent nuisance amber CWS illumination
SCU
What indicates a SCU fail
-when both Amber and Red Oil PX are illuminated on CWS but Oil read read normal on Engine/system display
OIL TRX power what and is located on what BUS?
- Oil pressure transducer and on Battery Bus
- if popped gauges will show “0”
Reduction Gearbox
- Two stage planetary reduction drive
- reduces power turbine 30,000 RPM to Prop operating range of 2000 RPM
What drive Reduction Gearbox
-hot gases impinging on the two-stage power turbine
Is there a chip detector in Reduction Gearbox
Yes, will trigger Red CHIP light
What is mounted on the top of the Reduction Gearbox? What else is mounted to the RGB?
Propeller interface unit (PIU), torque probe, permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
-the A/C compressor is mounted on the right side
Propeller
-97” aluminum, Four blade, constant speed, variable pitch, non reversing, feathering prop
Props Constant speed
-2000 RPM (100% Np)
What two things control prop angle and speed
-Power management Unit (PMU) and Propeller Interface Unit (PIU)
Engine is flat rated for 100% torque from sea level to _______’ MSL
-12,000-16,000’ on standard day
At 100% indicated torque how much power is engine producing
2900 foot-lbs of torque which equals 2750 lbs of thrust at sea level, zero airspeed
Propeller Pitch angle
- Feathered ( 86 degrees)
- Low Pitch (15 degrees)
- High pitch varies
In regards to the prop how do PMU and PIU influence it?
-PMU controls prop RPM by varying blade angle with oil pressure through the PIU. PIU increase pressure
PIU oil pathway
-oil pressure increase is transferred from PIU through a tube and stationary transfer sleeve into the hollow rotating propeller shaft
What will increasing oil pressure do to the prop?
- decrease pitch
- so decreasing oil pressure will cause prop to move to a coarse pitch
-How many overspeed governors are there?
- Two, mechanical and electronic
- Mechanical keep Np below 106%
- Electronic will maintain 100% Np
- PMU function is lost or deactivated, what prevents overspeed of Np
- Mechanical fly-weight hold oil pressure to maintain Np 100 +- 2%
- Centrifugal force, cause oil pressure dump
Methods to feather propeller
- PCL-off with PMU norm will open prop servo valve to drain
- Pulling PROP SYS CB will remove power from feather dump solenoid valve
Rapid feathering will do what
- PMU will thinks there is a sensor failure and switch to manual mode, dashes will be displayed for RPM and torque values
- PMU cycling will have no affect and dashes will remain
Engine Data manager (EDM) does?
- monitors engine operations and illuminates CWS is needed
- Also non-engine functions: fuel balancing, fuel quantity, DC Volts, DC Amps, Hydraulic PX,, Cockpit Alt, Cockpit differential
How does EDM transmit?
- Via EDM A and EDM B channels
- If one fails an EDM X will show on display with weight on wheels switch
Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD) shows what?
-Torque, Np, IOAT, N1, ITT (all processed via PMU)
Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD) shows what?
- Alternate torque, alt N1, cockpit pressure, cockpit differential, fuel flow, fuel quantity, Raw ITT
- all but torque bypass PMU
What power PMU?
-Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), on RGB
PMA creates how much power?
-32 VAC, which PMU convert to DC
When does PMU switch to 28 VDC battery Bus
-when prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np or PMA fails
PMU two operational modes?
-Flight and ground modes
PMU Ground mode
Idle N1 is 60-61%
PMU flight mode
- Idle is 67% Min
- Above 10,000’ PMU raises N1 to 80% to avoid stress on prop in spins
Hot Start
-ITT exceeds 940 Celsius for 2 sec, 870 C for 4 seconds, 840 C for 19 seconds
Hung start
-N1 acceleration is to slow or gets hung up
Start Ready light
-ensure that light remains on for more than 3 seconds
Fire Warning System
-Dual sensor tubes and responder assemblies , mounted to exterior surface of engine
Fire Warning sensors contain?
- Helium gas and a hydrogen charged core
- Helium respond to overall threshold temp and hydrogen are highly localized
How is Fire System activated?
-Heating expands helium gas which pressurizes a diaphragm
Fire 1 and Fire 2 are powered by?
- 1 on battery bus
- 2 on generator bus
Firewall Shutoff Handle does?
-Mechanically closes fuel and hydraulic fluid along with bleed air flow
How much fuel does each fuel hold?
-79 Gallons or 527 lbs of JP-8 (6.7lbs/gal)
How much fuel does the collector tank?
-7 Gals or 47 lbs of JP-8
How much fuel does the T-6 hold?
- 1100lbs of JP-8 from single point refueling
- over the wing will give 100 lbs more (1200 lbs)
Fuel Auto balancing system
-maintain fuel within 20lbs
If Fuel system detects imbalance of 20lbs or more for longer than 30 seconds what happens?
- transfer valve will close motive flow line to light tank
- system will try to balance to less than 30lbs for 2 min, after which the FUEL BAL amber light will come on
Red FUEL PX light
-less than 10 psi fuel pressure in motive flow/return flow supply line
green BOOST PUMP light
- when manually selected or when fuel line is below 10 psi. Also the starter is on
- Battery Bus
Amber L FUEL LO/ R FUEL LO
-optical sensor indicates fuel below 110lbs in respective wing tank
How many fuel probes are there?
- 7 total
- 3 per tank and one in collector tank
What level do the Fuel probes read? Outer, Middle, Inner
- Outer: 445 +- 50lbs
- Middle: 308 +- 50lbs
- Innder: 20lbs
If a fuel probe fails?
-Will skip down to next working probe
What will not be available with a FP (fuel probe) Fail
auto fuel balancing
Fuel moves via
-transfer jet pumps create a low positive pressure in collector tank to pull in fuel
How much fuel is available for inverted flight
-15 seconds, weighted rod in pickup valve closes normal fuel pickup and open inverted fuel pickup
Fuel pathway from collector tank
- primary jet pump/ electric boost pump sends fuel to engine driven low PX pump
- Low PX pump supplies High PX pump which supplies FMU (Fuel management unit)
If low PX and boost pump fail will engine run?
Yes, High PX pump will suction feed fuel, but will not allow restart
If High PX fuel pump fails will engine run?
No, engine will flameout
Electrical System includes?
- 28 VDC, 300 Amp starter/generator
- 24 VDC aerobatic lead acid battery, 42 Ampere Hour
- 24 VDC Auxiliary battery, 5 Ampere hour
Generator
- powers all equipment on both buses
- 25 Volt minimum to recharge battery
Generator Fail
- Can be reset via button in both cockpits or recycling switch
- A/C is the only equipment shed with GEN fail
External Power
- left, aft fuselage, below left avionics bay
- if external voltage is to high system will disconnect
When to not connect external power?
if battery is below 22.0 Volts
BUS TIE switch
- either allow generator to power all or separates the two
- 30 minutes on battery power
Brake system
-two hydraulic master cylinders
If brake pressure fades do what?
-fully release brakes and reapply and both crew members must do
Parking brake
- Rotate 90 clockwise to activate
- rotate 90 counterclockwise to release
Hydraulic System
- One engine driven pump
- 5 quarts
- pressure relief valve (3250-3500psi) in both main/emer
- main and emergency system
Normal hydraulic Pressure
- 3000+-120 PSI through hydraulic fuse and one-way check valve
- Once 1800 PSI, system can power
amber HYDR FL LO
-reservoir has less than 1 quart
below 1800 psi
- number will to amber
- be ready to extend gear/flaps
amber EHYD PX LO
-below 2400+-150 psi
what does the check valve prevents what?
-emergency system from bleeding bank into main system
what does the hydraulic fuse do?
-prevent a leak in the emergency system from depleting main system fluids
Fluid flow to emergency accumulator is restricted to a rate below?
- 0.25 GPM or more
- If below this fluid could drain till HYDR FL LO
The emer fuse limits fluid loss to?
- 20-30 cubic inches
- or 0.5 quarts
How long does extending/retracting the gear take?
-6 seconds
Landing Gear aural Tone means what? (3 things)
- Handle not down, PCL below mid range (87% N1), below 120 Knots, Flaps up or TO
- all gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG
- Weight on Wheel with gear handle not down
Nose Wheel Free castors
-160 Degrees total, 80 degrees Lf/Rt
NWS Servo valve
-operated via push/pull rod connected to rudder pedals
NWS actuator assembly
-Nose gear strut, selector valve, servo valve, rotary actuator
NWS actuator
-provides nose wheel shimmy damping
NWS Selector Valve
-Solenoid that is controlled by NWS button to engage NWS
T-6 Flaps
-hydraulically operated, electronically controlled, four segment split flaps
Flaps Positions
- Up
- Takeoff (TO) 23 degrees
- Landing (LDG) 50 degrees
Flaps pathway
-Flaps selector control hydraulic flap actuator, connected to flap torque tube, microswitches indicate position
Normal Flap operation/ indication unavailable when?
-battery bus has failed or the aux battery is only electric source
Emergency Flap not available when?
auxiliary battery only source
Speed brake will auto retract when?
- PCL Max
- Flaps other than Up
Aileron Travel Up and Down
- 20 degrees up
- 11 Degrees down
Aileron Trim travel
- 6 degree up
- 6 degree down
Ground adjustable tab travel (maintain only)
- 20 degree up
- 8 degree down
Elevator Travel
- 18 Degrees up
- 16 degrees down
Elevator bob weight
-on front control stick which increases stick force with increase in G, improve feel and help prevent Over-G
Elevator balanced via?
-weights on elevator horns
Elevator trim travel
- 5.5 degree up
- 22 degree down
AIL/EL TRIM
-CB for aileron and Elevator trim on battery bus
Rudder deflection
-24 degrees left/right
Rudder Trim
-9 degrees left/right
Trim Aid Device (TAD)
- auto rudder trim
- need fine tuning from pilot
- will not make inputs from Takeoff position till after 80 KIAS and no weight on wheel
TAD powered by?
-AHRS/TAD CB on generator bus
How many pitot static systems?
- 2
- Primary and secondary
Primary Pitot on the ____ side and Secondary on ____ side
- Right wing, Upper right/ lower left static ports
- Left wing, Lower Right/upper left static ports
Primary system sends info to?
-Air data computer
Secondary system send info to?
- EDM and standby instruments
Air Data Computer
- receives info from pitot/static system for develop Airspeed, Altitude, Climb/descent rate
- turns on with master avionics
Air Data Computer powered by?
-ADC CB on generator bus
ADC provides info to?
-Airspeed indicator
-altimeter
-VSI
-TAS/VSI
-EFIS
-ATC transponder
-Integrated data acquisition system (IDARS)
-Overspeed warning
-TAS
-PMU
GPS
-Attitude heading/reference system (AHRS)
How many channels yes the ADC have?
-4 A,B,C,D
When will mach number start to show?
0.40 Mach
T or F: standbys have a fixed light setting on Aux Battery?
True
How accurate and for how long will standby attitude work without power?
- within 6 degrees and for 9 minutes
When is magnetic compass accurate?
level, unaccelerated flight
What can the difference between the front and back G meters be?
- under 1.0 G above 1.0 it must be written up
Which AoA gives max range?
- White triangle @ 4.9 unit
- greatest distance
Which AoA gives max endurance?
- white diamond @ 8.8 units
- greatest amount of time
AoA computer
-On avionics shelf under glare shield (front)
AoA test
- Low AoA Amber, 10.5 +- 0.25
- High AoA 18.0 +- 0.25
Canopy Birdstrike protection
- withstand 4 lbs bird @ 270 Knots
Martin-Baker
- zero altitude, zero Airspeed
- up to 35,000’ and 370 Knots
Seat/Pilot separation
- 14,000-16,000’
- if over high terrain use MOR handle (8,000’ or more)
ISS in both delay is?
0.37 seconds
Engine Bleed air
- Pressurize Cockpit
- G-suit
- heating
- defog
- OBOGS
Cooling air for heat exchanger comes from two places
- GRN ops: blower supplies cooling air
- weight off wheels ram air is used
Which system is off the left P3 port?
OBOGS
Which systems run off right P3 port?
- canopy seal
- anti-G
- heat/defog
- pressurization
How do you prevent right side bleed air from getting into cockpit?
-have BLEED AIR INFLOW and DEFOG off
Bleed air inflow has three positions
- OFF (both solenoids De-energized)
- Normal (One is energized)
- HI (both energized)
When is pressurization not required?
Below 7500’ MSL
Environmental Control Sys has ____ temp sensors which sense ____ F located where?
What light will come on?
- Two
- 300 F
- read distribution valve aft of front seat and upstream of defog selector
- Amber DUCT TEMP
Temperature Controlled auto between what Temps?
60-90 F
What temp will cause the heat exchanger bypass to move full closed, forcing max air through exchange?
165 F
How long could it take for the defog valve to close?
- 40 seconds
Climb performance with flaps up and defog on and PCL retarded to maintain ITT
-decrease of 47%
Pressurization System Componets
- control valve
- safety valve
- control valve regulator
- differential pressure regulator
- solenoid dump valve
Normal Operation of dump solenoid is controlled by what?
-weight on wheels switch, when airborne power is applied to dump valve
What altitude does the control valve close?
-8000’ pressure altitude
Cockpit altitude is maintained at what altitude and differential? When does it change
-8000’ pressure altitude with differential 3.6 +-0.2
-Until 18069’ where it will increase to a max of 16
600’ Cockpit altitude @ 31000’
what will selecting DUMP on the pressurization switch do? what will RAM/DUMP do?
- Dump opens dump solenoid by removing power
- RAM/DUMP opens control valve and fresh air valve, closes defog valve
- Note: bleed air is still feeding into system unless specifically turned off
Blower can produce how much air flow?
-350 cubic feet per minute on HI
When will evaporator blowers be on?
-anytime master avionics is on
When does the fresh air valve close?
8000’ to allow pressurization
Where is the Upper TAS antenna?
-top of engine cowling
Where is transponder antenna?
-behind nose wheel gear door
where is lower tas antenna?
under rear cockpit
where is VHF/IHF comm antenna?
under the luggage compartmentish
DME antenna
in front of marker beacon antenna and behind UHF/VHF
Marker beacon antenna
in front of ventral fin
NAV/GS/ILS Antenna
on sides vertical stabilizer
GPS antenna
top of of vertical stabilizer
ELT antenna
between vertical stab and cockpit
Upper UHF antenna
behind rear cockpit
Course Deviations for VOR
1 dot and 2 dot
- 5 degrees off
- 10 degrees off
course deviation localizer 1 dot and 2 dot
- 025 x width localizer
- 0.5 x width of localizer
course deviation glideslope 1 dot and 2 dot
- 025 x width glideslope
- 0.5 x width of glideslope
Course Deviations for GPS
1 dot and 2 dot
- Enroute 2.5 NM and 5.0 NM
- APR ARM 0.5 NM and 1.0 NM
- APR ACT 0.15 NM and 0.3 NM
how to correct attitude errors?
-maintain straight, level flight and could take less than 1 minute or more than 2 minutes
TAS is always processing what range and does it display all?
-traffic 10,000 above and below but only shows what selected for range/focus
TAS sensitivity level A
-gear down
-vertical separation of 600’ in 20 secs
-Vertical separation from intruder is less than 600
feet and horizontal separation is less than 0.2 NM
-Horizontal separation from non-altitude reporting
intruder is within 15 seconds or 0.2 NM.
TAS sensitivity level B
-TAS calculates that if current closing rate with
intruder aircraft is maintained, vertical separation
of less than 800 feet will occur in 30 seconds.
-Vertical separation from intruder is less than 800
feet and horizontal separation is less than 0.55 NM.
-Horizontal separation from non-altitude reporting
intruder is within 20 seconds or 0.55 NM.
