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T-6 Dash One > Ch 1 Systems > Flashcards

Ch 1 Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Propeller Diameter

A

97”

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2
Q

wingtip width

A

33’5”

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3
Q

Elevator width

A

11’4”

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4
Q

T-6 Length

A

33’4”

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5
Q

T-6 Height

A

10’8”

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6
Q

Oil Level serviced should occur within how long of engine shutdown

A

30 minutes

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7
Q

Most accurate readings for oil level

A

15-20 Minutes

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8
Q

How many pickup elements in oil system

A

two, one for normal and one for inverted flight

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9
Q

Location of oil pumps

A

-one inside and one outside accessory gearbox

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10
Q

Oil Cooler location

A

lower aft cowl assembly

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11
Q

Oil tank is cast with______

vented into accessory gear box via __ point breather system, which includes

A
  • compressor air inlet
  • 4 point breather system
  • breather valve and centrifugal breather
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12
Q

Engine oil pressure maybe show __ PSI even though engine shutdown

A

4 PSI

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13
Q

Oil Temp and Pressure sensed by

A

transducers downstream of main oil pump and signal EDM

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14
Q

EDM sends oil info to what

A

Signal Conditioning unit SCU which contains logic to illuminate CWS

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15
Q

SCU activates red OIL PX light when

A

Oil Pressure is at or below 40 psi with above idle power, or when 15 psi or below at idle power

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16
Q

SCU activates amber OIL PX when

A

oil pressure is between 15 to 40 psi at idle, 40 to 90 psi for 10 seconds above idle

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17
Q

when will both amber and red OIL PX go on

A

oil pressure remains between 15-40 psi at idle for 5 seconds or more

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18
Q

True of false: due to sensitivity of Oil pressure sensor a momentary amber OIL PX can illuminate during a maneuver and not indicate a malfunction

A

True

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19
Q

What helps prevent nuisance amber CWS illumination

A

SCU

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20
Q

What indicates a SCU fail

A

-when both Amber and Red Oil PX are illuminated on CWS but Oil read read normal on Engine/system display

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21
Q

OIL TRX power what and is located on what BUS?

A
  • Oil pressure transducer and on Battery Bus

- if popped gauges will show “0”

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22
Q

Reduction Gearbox

A
  • Two stage planetary reduction drive

- reduces power turbine 30,000 RPM to Prop operating range of 2000 RPM

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23
Q

What drive Reduction Gearbox

A

-hot gases impinging on the two-stage power turbine

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24
Q

Is there a chip detector in Reduction Gearbox

A

Yes, will trigger Red CHIP light

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25
Q

What is mounted on the top of the Reduction Gearbox? What else is mounted to the RGB?

A

Propeller interface unit (PIU), torque probe, permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
-the A/C compressor is mounted on the right side

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26
Q

Propeller

A

-97” aluminum, Four blade, constant speed, variable pitch, non reversing, feathering prop

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27
Q

Props Constant speed

A

-2000 RPM (100% Np)

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28
Q

What two things control prop angle and speed

A

-Power management Unit (PMU) and Propeller Interface Unit (PIU)

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29
Q

Engine is flat rated for 100% torque from sea level to _______’ MSL

A

-12,000-16,000’ on standard day

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30
Q

At 100% indicated torque how much power is engine producing

A

2900 foot-lbs of torque which equals 2750 lbs of thrust at sea level, zero airspeed

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31
Q

Propeller Pitch angle

A
  • Feathered ( 86 degrees)
  • Low Pitch (15 degrees)
  • High pitch varies
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32
Q

In regards to the prop how do PMU and PIU influence it?

A

-PMU controls prop RPM by varying blade angle with oil pressure through the PIU. PIU increase pressure

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33
Q

PIU oil pathway

A

-oil pressure increase is transferred from PIU through a tube and stationary transfer sleeve into the hollow rotating propeller shaft

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34
Q

What will increasing oil pressure do to the prop?

A
  • decrease pitch

- so decreasing oil pressure will cause prop to move to a coarse pitch

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35
Q

-How many overspeed governors are there?

A
  • Two, mechanical and electronic
  • Mechanical keep Np below 106%
  • Electronic will maintain 100% Np
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36
Q
  • PMU function is lost or deactivated, what prevents overspeed of Np
A
  • Mechanical fly-weight hold oil pressure to maintain Np 100 +- 2%
  • Centrifugal force, cause oil pressure dump
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37
Q

Methods to feather propeller

A
  • PCL-off with PMU norm will open prop servo valve to drain

- Pulling PROP SYS CB will remove power from feather dump solenoid valve

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38
Q

Rapid feathering will do what

A
  • PMU will thinks there is a sensor failure and switch to manual mode, dashes will be displayed for RPM and torque values
  • PMU cycling will have no affect and dashes will remain
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39
Q

Engine Data manager (EDM) does?

A
  • monitors engine operations and illuminates CWS is needed
  • Also non-engine functions: fuel balancing, fuel quantity, DC Volts, DC Amps, Hydraulic PX,, Cockpit Alt, Cockpit differential
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40
Q

How does EDM transmit?

A
  • Via EDM A and EDM B channels

- If one fails an EDM X will show on display with weight on wheels switch

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41
Q

Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD) shows what?

A

-Torque, Np, IOAT, N1, ITT (all processed via PMU)

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42
Q

Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD) shows what?

A
  • Alternate torque, alt N1, cockpit pressure, cockpit differential, fuel flow, fuel quantity, Raw ITT
  • all but torque bypass PMU
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43
Q

What power PMU?

A

-Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), on RGB

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44
Q

PMA creates how much power?

A

-32 VAC, which PMU convert to DC

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45
Q

When does PMU switch to 28 VDC battery Bus

A

-when prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np or PMA fails

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46
Q

PMU two operational modes?

A

-Flight and ground modes

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47
Q

PMU Ground mode

A

Idle N1 is 60-61%

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48
Q

PMU flight mode

A
  • Idle is 67% Min

- Above 10,000’ PMU raises N1 to 80% to avoid stress on prop in spins

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49
Q

Hot Start

A

-ITT exceeds 940 Celsius for 2 sec, 870 C for 4 seconds, 840 C for 19 seconds

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50
Q

Hung start

A

-N1 acceleration is to slow or gets hung up

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51
Q

Start Ready light

A

-ensure that light remains on for more than 3 seconds

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52
Q

Fire Warning System

A

-Dual sensor tubes and responder assemblies , mounted to exterior surface of engine

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53
Q

Fire Warning sensors contain?

A
  • Helium gas and a hydrogen charged core

- Helium respond to overall threshold temp and hydrogen are highly localized

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54
Q

How is Fire System activated?

A

-Heating expands helium gas which pressurizes a diaphragm

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55
Q

Fire 1 and Fire 2 are powered by?

A
  • 1 on battery bus

- 2 on generator bus

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56
Q

Firewall Shutoff Handle does?

A

-Mechanically closes fuel and hydraulic fluid along with bleed air flow

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57
Q

How much fuel does each fuel hold?

A

-79 Gallons or 527 lbs of JP-8 (6.7lbs/gal)

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58
Q

How much fuel does the collector tank?

A

-7 Gals or 47 lbs of JP-8

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59
Q

How much fuel does the T-6 hold?

A
  • 1100lbs of JP-8 from single point refueling

- over the wing will give 100 lbs more (1200 lbs)

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60
Q

Fuel Auto balancing system

A

-maintain fuel within 20lbs

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61
Q

If Fuel system detects imbalance of 20lbs or more for longer than 30 seconds what happens?

A
  • transfer valve will close motive flow line to light tank

- system will try to balance to less than 30lbs for 2 min, after which the FUEL BAL amber light will come on

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62
Q

Red FUEL PX light

A

-less than 10 psi fuel pressure in motive flow/return flow supply line

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63
Q

green BOOST PUMP light

A
  • when manually selected or when fuel line is below 10 psi. Also the starter is on
  • Battery Bus
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64
Q

Amber L FUEL LO/ R FUEL LO

A

-optical sensor indicates fuel below 110lbs in respective wing tank

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65
Q

How many fuel probes are there?

A
  • 7 total

- 3 per tank and one in collector tank

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66
Q

What level do the Fuel probes read? Outer, Middle, Inner

A
  • Outer: 445 +- 50lbs
  • Middle: 308 +- 50lbs
  • Innder: 20lbs
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67
Q

If a fuel probe fails?

A

-Will skip down to next working probe

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68
Q

What will not be available with a FP (fuel probe) Fail

A

auto fuel balancing

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69
Q

Fuel moves via

A

-transfer jet pumps create a low positive pressure in collector tank to pull in fuel

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70
Q

How much fuel is available for inverted flight

A

-15 seconds, weighted rod in pickup valve closes normal fuel pickup and open inverted fuel pickup

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71
Q

Fuel pathway from collector tank

A
  • primary jet pump/ electric boost pump sends fuel to engine driven low PX pump
  • Low PX pump supplies High PX pump which supplies FMU (Fuel management unit)
72
Q

If low PX and boost pump fail will engine run?

A

Yes, High PX pump will suction feed fuel, but will not allow restart

73
Q

If High PX fuel pump fails will engine run?

A

No, engine will flameout

74
Q

Electrical System includes?

A
  • 28 VDC, 300 Amp starter/generator
  • 24 VDC aerobatic lead acid battery, 42 Ampere Hour
  • 24 VDC Auxiliary battery, 5 Ampere hour
75
Q

Generator

A
  • powers all equipment on both buses

- 25 Volt minimum to recharge battery

76
Q

Generator Fail

A
  • Can be reset via button in both cockpits or recycling switch
  • A/C is the only equipment shed with GEN fail
77
Q

External Power

A
  • left, aft fuselage, below left avionics bay

- if external voltage is to high system will disconnect

78
Q

When to not connect external power?

A

if battery is below 22.0 Volts

79
Q

BUS TIE switch

A
  • either allow generator to power all or separates the two

- 30 minutes on battery power

80
Q

Brake system

A

-two hydraulic master cylinders

81
Q

If brake pressure fades do what?

A

-fully release brakes and reapply and both crew members must do

82
Q

Parking brake

A
  • Rotate 90 clockwise to activate

- rotate 90 counterclockwise to release

83
Q

Hydraulic System

A
  • One engine driven pump
  • 5 quarts
  • pressure relief valve (3250-3500psi) in both main/emer
  • main and emergency system
84
Q

Normal hydraulic Pressure

A
  • 3000+-120 PSI through hydraulic fuse and one-way check valve
  • Once 1800 PSI, system can power
85
Q

amber HYDR FL LO

A

-reservoir has less than 1 quart

86
Q

below 1800 psi

A
  • number will to amber

- be ready to extend gear/flaps

87
Q

amber EHYD PX LO

A

-below 2400+-150 psi

88
Q

what does the check valve prevents what?

A

-emergency system from bleeding bank into main system

89
Q

what does the hydraulic fuse do?

A

-prevent a leak in the emergency system from depleting main system fluids

90
Q

Fluid flow to emergency accumulator is restricted to a rate below?

A
  • 0.25 GPM or more

- If below this fluid could drain till HYDR FL LO

91
Q

The emer fuse limits fluid loss to?

A
  • 20-30 cubic inches

- or 0.5 quarts

92
Q

How long does extending/retracting the gear take?

A

-6 seconds

93
Q

Landing Gear aural Tone means what? (3 things)

A
  • Handle not down, PCL below mid range (87% N1), below 120 Knots, Flaps up or TO
  • all gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG
  • Weight on Wheel with gear handle not down
94
Q

Nose Wheel Free castors

A

-160 Degrees total, 80 degrees Lf/Rt

95
Q

NWS Servo valve

A

-operated via push/pull rod connected to rudder pedals

96
Q

NWS actuator assembly

A

-Nose gear strut, selector valve, servo valve, rotary actuator

97
Q

NWS actuator

A

-provides nose wheel shimmy damping

98
Q

NWS Selector Valve

A

-Solenoid that is controlled by NWS button to engage NWS

99
Q

T-6 Flaps

A

-hydraulically operated, electronically controlled, four segment split flaps

100
Q

Flaps Positions

A
  • Up
  • Takeoff (TO) 23 degrees
  • Landing (LDG) 50 degrees
101
Q

Flaps pathway

A

-Flaps selector control hydraulic flap actuator, connected to flap torque tube, microswitches indicate position

102
Q

Normal Flap operation/ indication unavailable when?

A

-battery bus has failed or the aux battery is only electric source

103
Q

Emergency Flap not available when?

A

auxiliary battery only source

104
Q

Speed brake will auto retract when?

A
  • PCL Max

- Flaps other than Up

105
Q

Aileron Travel Up and Down

A
  • 20 degrees up

- 11 Degrees down

106
Q

Aileron Trim travel

A
  • 6 degree up

- 6 degree down

107
Q

Ground adjustable tab travel (maintain only)

A
  • 20 degree up

- 8 degree down

108
Q

Elevator Travel

A
  • 18 Degrees up

- 16 degrees down

109
Q

Elevator bob weight

A

-on front control stick which increases stick force with increase in G, improve feel and help prevent Over-G

110
Q

Elevator balanced via?

A

-weights on elevator horns

111
Q

Elevator trim travel

A
  • 5.5 degree up

- 22 degree down

112
Q

AIL/EL TRIM

A

-CB for aileron and Elevator trim on battery bus

113
Q

Rudder deflection

A

-24 degrees left/right

114
Q

Rudder Trim

A

-9 degrees left/right

115
Q

Trim Aid Device (TAD)

A
  • auto rudder trim
  • need fine tuning from pilot
  • will not make inputs from Takeoff position till after 80 KIAS and no weight on wheel
116
Q

TAD powered by?

A

-AHRS/TAD CB on generator bus

117
Q

How many pitot static systems?

A
  • 2

- Primary and secondary

118
Q

Primary Pitot on the ____ side and Secondary on ____ side

A
  • Right wing, Upper right/ lower left static ports

- Left wing, Lower Right/upper left static ports

119
Q

Primary system sends info to?

A

-Air data computer

120
Q

Secondary system send info to?

A
  • EDM and standby instruments
121
Q

Air Data Computer

A
  • receives info from pitot/static system for develop Airspeed, Altitude, Climb/descent rate
  • turns on with master avionics
122
Q

Air Data Computer powered by?

A

-ADC CB on generator bus

123
Q

ADC provides info to?

A

-Airspeed indicator
-altimeter
-VSI
-TAS/VSI
-EFIS
-ATC transponder
-Integrated data acquisition system (IDARS)
-Overspeed warning
-TAS
-PMU
GPS
-Attitude heading/reference system (AHRS)

124
Q

How many channels yes the ADC have?

A

-4 A,B,C,D

125
Q

When will mach number start to show?

A

0.40 Mach

126
Q

T or F: standbys have a fixed light setting on Aux Battery?

A

True

127
Q

How accurate and for how long will standby attitude work without power?

A
  • within 6 degrees and for 9 minutes
128
Q

When is magnetic compass accurate?

A

level, unaccelerated flight

129
Q

What can the difference between the front and back G meters be?

A
  • under 1.0 G above 1.0 it must be written up
130
Q

Which AoA gives max range?

A
  • White triangle @ 4.9 unit

- greatest distance

131
Q

Which AoA gives max endurance?

A
  • white diamond @ 8.8 units

- greatest amount of time

132
Q

AoA computer

A

-On avionics shelf under glare shield (front)

133
Q

AoA test

A
  • Low AoA Amber, 10.5 +- 0.25

- High AoA 18.0 +- 0.25

134
Q

Canopy Birdstrike protection

A
  • withstand 4 lbs bird @ 270 Knots
135
Q

Martin-Baker

A
  • zero altitude, zero Airspeed

- up to 35,000’ and 370 Knots

136
Q

Seat/Pilot separation

A
  • 14,000-16,000’

- if over high terrain use MOR handle (8,000’ or more)

137
Q

ISS in both delay is?

A

0.37 seconds

138
Q

Engine Bleed air

A
  • Pressurize Cockpit
  • G-suit
  • heating
  • defog
  • OBOGS
139
Q

Cooling air for heat exchanger comes from two places

A
  • GRN ops: blower supplies cooling air

- weight off wheels ram air is used

140
Q

Which system is off the left P3 port?

A

OBOGS

141
Q

Which systems run off right P3 port?

A
  • canopy seal
  • anti-G
  • heat/defog
  • pressurization
142
Q

How do you prevent right side bleed air from getting into cockpit?

A

-have BLEED AIR INFLOW and DEFOG off

143
Q

Bleed air inflow has three positions

A
  • OFF (both solenoids De-energized)
  • Normal (One is energized)
  • HI (both energized)
144
Q

When is pressurization not required?

A

Below 7500’ MSL

145
Q

Environmental Control Sys has ____ temp sensors which sense ____ F located where?
What light will come on?

A
  • Two
  • 300 F
  • read distribution valve aft of front seat and upstream of defog selector
  • Amber DUCT TEMP
146
Q

Temperature Controlled auto between what Temps?

A

60-90 F

147
Q

What temp will cause the heat exchanger bypass to move full closed, forcing max air through exchange?

A

165 F

148
Q

How long could it take for the defog valve to close?

A
  • 40 seconds
149
Q

Climb performance with flaps up and defog on and PCL retarded to maintain ITT

A

-decrease of 47%

150
Q

Pressurization System Componets

A
  • control valve
  • safety valve
  • control valve regulator
  • differential pressure regulator
  • solenoid dump valve
151
Q

Normal Operation of dump solenoid is controlled by what?

A

-weight on wheels switch, when airborne power is applied to dump valve

152
Q

What altitude does the control valve close?

A

-8000’ pressure altitude

153
Q

Cockpit altitude is maintained at what altitude and differential? When does it change

A

-8000’ pressure altitude with differential 3.6 +-0.2
-Until 18069’ where it will increase to a max of 16
600’ Cockpit altitude @ 31000’

154
Q

what will selecting DUMP on the pressurization switch do? what will RAM/DUMP do?

A
  • Dump opens dump solenoid by removing power
  • RAM/DUMP opens control valve and fresh air valve, closes defog valve
  • Note: bleed air is still feeding into system unless specifically turned off
155
Q

Blower can produce how much air flow?

A

-350 cubic feet per minute on HI

156
Q

When will evaporator blowers be on?

A

-anytime master avionics is on

157
Q

When does the fresh air valve close?

A

8000’ to allow pressurization

158
Q

Where is the Upper TAS antenna?

A

-top of engine cowling

159
Q

Where is transponder antenna?

A

-behind nose wheel gear door

160
Q

where is lower tas antenna?

A

under rear cockpit

161
Q

where is VHF/IHF comm antenna?

A

under the luggage compartmentish

162
Q

DME antenna

A

in front of marker beacon antenna and behind UHF/VHF

163
Q

Marker beacon antenna

A

in front of ventral fin

164
Q

NAV/GS/ILS Antenna

A

on sides vertical stabilizer

165
Q

GPS antenna

A

top of of vertical stabilizer

166
Q

ELT antenna

A

between vertical stab and cockpit

167
Q

Upper UHF antenna

A

behind rear cockpit

168
Q

Course Deviations for VOR

1 dot and 2 dot

A
  • 5 degrees off

- 10 degrees off

169
Q

course deviation localizer 1 dot and 2 dot

A
  • 025 x width localizer

- 0.5 x width of localizer

170
Q

course deviation glideslope 1 dot and 2 dot

A
  • 025 x width glideslope

- 0.5 x width of glideslope

171
Q

Course Deviations for GPS

1 dot and 2 dot

A
  • Enroute 2.5 NM and 5.0 NM
  • APR ARM 0.5 NM and 1.0 NM
  • APR ACT 0.15 NM and 0.3 NM
172
Q

how to correct attitude errors?

A

-maintain straight, level flight and could take less than 1 minute or more than 2 minutes

173
Q

TAS is always processing what range and does it display all?

A

-traffic 10,000 above and below but only shows what selected for range/focus

174
Q

TAS sensitivity level A

A

-gear down
-vertical separation of 600’ in 20 secs
-Vertical separation from intruder is less than 600
feet and horizontal separation is less than 0.2 NM
-Horizontal separation from non-altitude reporting
intruder is within 15 seconds or 0.2 NM.

175
Q

TAS sensitivity level B

A

-TAS calculates that if current closing rate with
intruder aircraft is maintained, vertical separation
of less than 800 feet will occur in 30 seconds.
-Vertical separation from intruder is less than 800
feet and horizontal separation is less than 0.55 NM.
-Horizontal separation from non-altitude reporting
intruder is within 20 seconds or 0.55 NM.

T-6 Dash One (1 decks)

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