Ch. 1 Cell and Tissue Function Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary components of a eukaryotic cell?

A
  1. plasma membrane
  2. nucleus
  3. cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between cytoplasm and cytoplasmic matrix?

A

cytoplasm liquid in the cell that contains organelles and the cytoplasmic matrix.
cytoplasmic matrix contains solutes and organic molecules like carbs, proteins, lipids, and RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is in the nucleoplasm?

A

Enzymes needed for transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What proteins are associated with the lipid bilayer?

A
Integral proteins (span the lipid bilayer and are part of the membrane)
    -form ion channels
Peripheral proteins (bound to one side of the membrane and don't pass into the lipid bilayer)
    -receptors and intracellular signaling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose and structure of the cell coat?

A

cell-to-cell recognition by way of antigens on the cell (ex: RBCs)
Made of glycoproteins, glycolipids, and lectins (carb binding proteins).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the nucleus?

A
  1. Contains DNA

2. Synthesis site of RNA (transcription), which moves to the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA?

A
  1. mRNA - copies and carries DNA instructions for protein synthesis to the cytoplasm
  2. rRNA - where proteins are made (ribosomes!)
  3. tRNA - transports aa’s to ribosomes to be incorporated into protein being made
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is chromatin?

A

structure of DNA and proteins in the nuclear matrix
condensed = inactive = heterochromatin
Extended = active = Euchromatin (all start with vowels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the nucleolus do?

A

the site of rRNA synthesis and some ribosome creation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What allows selective transport into and out of the nucleus?

A

nuclear pore complexes on the nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What types of proteins do ribosomes create depending on location?

A

Free ribosomes = create proteins that remain in cell for cytoplasmic structure or function
Ribosomes attached to ER = translate mRNAs that code proteins that bind to membranes or leave the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the rough ER do?

A

contains ribosomes that synthesize proteins that will be part of cell membrane, used to make lysosomal enzymes, or secreted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the smooth ER do?

A

NO protein synthesis (no ribosomes = no proteins)

  • enzymes in ER make lipid and steroid hormone molecules
  • regulates intracellular calcium
  • metabolism of hormones and drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 2 examples of a smooth ER in body systems?

A
  1. sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells: store calcium ions for muscle contraction
  2. liver = smooth ER stores glycogen and metabolizes lipid-soluble drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Function of the Golgi apparatus

A

Products of the ER are transported here in vesicles where they are modified and packaged into secretory granules/vesicles.
Also makes big carbs, which are added to proteins from the rough ER to make glycoproteins (part of cell membrane!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does insulin relate to the Golgi apparatus?

A

Insulin is secreted in a large, inactive form from the ER and is broken by the GA of beta cells in the pancreas into smaller active insulin molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What pathways are used for lysosomal degredation?

A
  1. small extracellular proteins form endocytic vesicles after entering the cell by pinocytosis or receptor-mediated endocytosis
  2. large extracellular particles like bacteria and debris are engulfed by phagocytosis and phagosome fuses with a lysosome.
  3. Autophagy: intracellular particles like organelles are engulfed and fuse with a lysosome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is lysosomal storage disease?

A

A type of lisosomal enzyme is absent or inactive, so digestion of some substances cannot occur and they accumulate in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of a lysosomal storage disease?

A

Tay-Sachs disease

  • hexosaminidase A is absent.
  • GM2 ganglioside (in nerve cell membranes) accumulates in the nervous system and retina (mainly).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do peroxisomes do?

A

contain enzymes used in oxidative reactions to degrade free radicals like hydrogen peroxide
- also break down long chain fatty acids (important in liver cells to form bile acids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do proteasomes do?

A

break down misfolded proteins in a process called ubiquitination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are mitochondria self replicating?

A

They contain their own DNA and ribosomes

- DNA encodes rRNA and tRNA needed to make proteins for use by the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do mitochondria regulate apoptosis?

A

They release molecules such as cytochrome c into the cytoplasm, which binds an apoptosis inhibitor and induces apoptosis
- apoptosis dysregulation may be an issue with cancer and neurodegenerative diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is mitochondrial DNA inherited?

A

Matrilineally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does the anaerobic glycolytic pathway occur?

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does the aerobic pathway occur?

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is ATP the energy currency of the cell?

A

When ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP or AMP (loses 1-2 phosphate groups), a lot of energy is released for use (metabolism of food molecules provides ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

Conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid, with yield of 2 ATP per glucose, in anaerobic environment (first few minutes of exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens to pyruvic acid if there is no aerobic environment, like in cardiac arrest?

A

Pyruvic acid is converted to lactic acid, which moves out of cells into the extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the citric acid cycle?

A

pyruvic acid enters the mitochondria and combines with acetyl-coenzyme to form acetyl-coA.
oxidative reactions involving NADH and FADH release CO2 and 2 ATP.
fatty acids and amino acids can also enter the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the electron transport chain?

A

Electrons generated from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, carried by NADH and FADH2, are oxidized in a series of reactions on the inner mitochondrial membrane. This produces a large amount of ATP (32 for 1 glucose) and H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a ligand?

A

molecules with a high affinity for receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are G Protein-linked receptors?

A

regulatory proteins that bind to GDP and GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do G Protein-Linked receptors do?

A
  1. Hormone (first messenger) binds receptor
  2. Activated receptor interacts with G-Protein linked GDP
  3. G protein subunits dissociate
  4. alpha subunit of G protein activates a protein to catalyze ATP to cAMP (second messenger)
  5. Second messenger activates internal effector
  6. Cell response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Enzyme-linked receptors

A

Integral proteins with ligand-binding sites on outer surface of cell membrane. Binding of hormone to receptor activates enzyme, which catalyzes formation of cAMP (second messenger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ion linked receptors example

A

Nerve and muscle cells (synaptic signaling)

37
Q

How is glucose and insulin related to facilitated diffusion?

A

Some substances like glucose can cross the cell membrane down their concentration gradient with a transmembrane protein (they are not lipid soluble). Depends on concentration difference and transporter availability.
Insulin works by increasing the availability of glucose transporters in the membrane.

38
Q

What is primary active transport?

A

Sodium, potassium, and calcium ions

Sodium is pumped outside the cell, potassium is pumped inside the cell with sodium potassium ATPase pump.

39
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Harness energy from primary active transport to cotransport a second substance

40
Q

What is a membrane potential?

A

Electrical potential (difference in ion charge can do work) across a cell membrane

41
Q

What is an equilibrium potential?

A

Electrical potential where there is no net movement of an ion because the diffusion potential and electrical forces made by this movement are balanced

42
Q

What are the 4 tissue types?

A

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous

43
Q

Where do you find epithelial tissue?

A

Covering body surface, lining inner body surface, and glands

44
Q

What is attached epithelial tissue to the below connective tissue?

A

Basement membrane

nutrients diffuse from basement membrane to epi cells b/c they are avascular

45
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of all epithelial tissue?

A
  1. 3 distinct surfaces - apical, lateral, and basal
  2. Closely apposed and joined together by cell junctions
  3. Basal surface is attached to the basement membrane
46
Q

How is epithelial tissue classified? What are the groups?

A

By shape of cell and number of layers:

  1. Simple
  2. Stratified
  3. Pseudostratified
  4. Squamous
  5. Cuboidal
  6. Columnar
47
Q

Function and location of simple squamous epithelium

A

filtration (for molecules that must diffuse easily)
lines blood vessels, lymph nodes, and alveoli
forms endothelium of the heart and mesothelium of cavities

48
Q

Where is simple cuboidal epithelium found?

A

surface of ovary and in thyroid

49
Q

Where is simple columnar epithelium found?

A

lines the intestine (may have cilia with goblet cells that secrete mucus)

50
Q

What is stratified squamous keratinized epithelium?

A

Epidermis of the skin (made of many layers)

Keratin- tough protein that forms filaments

51
Q

Where is stratified squamous NONkeratinized epithelium?

A

moist surfaces like tongue, mouth, rectum, vagina

52
Q

Where is stratified cuboidal and columnar epithelium found?

A

ducts of salivary glands and mammary glands

53
Q

how does the epithelium change in smokers?

A

Normal trachea and bronchi are lined by columnar ciliated epithelial cells, but they are replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells to withstand smoke

54
Q

What is pseudostratified epithelium?

A

All cells touch the underlying intracellular matrix, but not all reach the surface

55
Q

What is transitional epithelium?

A

Can change shapes and get thinner when tissue is stretched (bladder)

56
Q

What is different about glandular epithelium?

A

Specialized to secrete fluid

57
Q

Exocrine glands

A

sweat glands and lactating mammary glands

58
Q

Endocrine glands

A

Ductless and secrete hormones directly into the blood

59
Q

Function of connective tissue

A

support

connect

60
Q

What is the structure of connective tissue?

A
  • cells
  • ground substance
  • fibers
61
Q

Characteristics of areolar tissue

A
  • binds different tissues
  • flexibility
  • cushioning
62
Q

Adipose tissue

A
  • cushioning
  • energy storage
  • no fibers!
63
Q

Fibrous connective tissue

A
  • support and shock absorption for bones and organs
  • parallel collagen fibers
  • dermis, ligaments, tendons
64
Q

Blood

A
  • transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones, antibodies, and waste
  • no fibers!
  • matrix is the plasma
65
Q

Osseous tissue

A
  • cells are osteocytes

- matrix is bone mineral/hydroxyapatite

66
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A
  • cells are chondrocytes

- surfaces of joints

67
Q

What are the 2 muscle fibers?

A

Actin (thin)

myosin (thick)

68
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal smooth cardiac

69
Q

What is the most abundant muscle?

A

Skeletal

40-45% total body weight

70
Q

Structure of skeletal muscle

A

Cell=Muscle fiber
Fibers connected by CT tissue (endomysium)
Bundles of fibers are fascicles and are encased by perimysium (CT)

71
Q

Structure of muscle fiber

A

No defined nucleus in each cell
Contractile units myosin and actin in parallel bundles (myofibrils)
Each myofibril is made of repeating units called sarcomeres

72
Q

Which part of nervous system controls smooth muscle?

A

Autonomous

73
Q

How is smooth muscle different than skeletal?

A

No striations
Smaller spindle shaped cells
Actin filaments attached to dense bodies allows tension for stretch in hollow organs

74
Q

How does smooth muscle get calcium?

A

Poorly developed sarcoplasmic reticulum so calcium comes from outside the cell
Ex. Calcium blocking drugs to treat cardiovascular disease

75
Q

What cell types make of nervous tissue?

A

Neurons and glial cells

76
Q

Which neurons carry signals toward the central nervous system?

A

Afferent or sensory neurons (reception of sensory info from the environment or body

77
Q

Which neurons carry signals away from the CNS?

A

Efferent or motor neurons (controls glands and muscle fibers)

78
Q

TAS AEM

A

The aardvarks say “All eat mangos”

Toward Afferent Sensory Away Efferent Motor

79
Q

What are the 4 types of neuroglia in the CNS?

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

80
Q

Astrocytes

A
  • most abundant neuroglia
  • structural support for neurons and their extensions surround blood vessels in the CNS
  • blood-brain barrier, maintains ion levels, recycles neurotransmitters (hang around dendrites and return lost NTs to the neuron)
81
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

Forms myelin sheath on axons of neurons in the CNS (fatty insulation to keep electrical signal strong)

82
Q

Microglia

A

phagocytic cells

83
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Create cerebral spinal fluid

depends (diapers) sounds like epend = ependymal cells deal with fluid

84
Q

What are neuroglia of the PNS?

A

Schwann cells- myelination of axons (can only myelinate 1 neuron)
satellite cells - protect the dorsal root ganglia and autonomic ganglion cells (like the astrocytes of the PNS! satellite = stars in the sky = astrocyte is shaped like a star)

85
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

Adjacent cells are sealed together in epithelial tissue

Prevents substances from entering the intercellular space

86
Q

What are adhering junctions?

A

Strong adhesion between cells
Prevent cell separation
Cardiac muscle and epithelial tissue

87
Q

Gap junctions

A

Channels form between cells to connect their cytoplasm

Important for cell communication (electrical conduction and ions)

88
Q

What are the most abundant connective tissue cells and what do they do?

A

Fibroblasts

Make collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers and the gel-like ground substance in the intercellular space