Ch. 1-6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is widely considered to mark the beginning of the modern EMS system?
A. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society (The White Paper)
B. The current National EMS Education Standards
C. The creation of the Americana Heart Association
D. A paper called the EMS Agenda for the Future

A

A - Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society (The White Paper)

The “White Paper” precedes the NEMSES (option B) and the EMS Agenda for the Future (option D)
The AHA (option C) did not establish the modern EMS system

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2
Q

EMS care today is based on:
A. what has been done in the past
B. whatever physicians recommend
C. evidence-based medicine
D. the original National Standard Curriculum

A

C - Evidence based medicine

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3
Q

Which of the following describes EMT level of training?
A. provides basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth.
B. includes oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, and administration of certain medications
C. includes advanced assessment and management skills, various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions
D. includes advanced airway devices, intravenous and intraosseous access, and blood glucose monitoring

A

B - EMT level of training includes advanced assessment and management skills, various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions.

option A describes EMR training
option C describes paramedic training
option D describes AEMT training

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4
Q

EMT roles and responsibilities include
A. strong written and verbal communication skills
B. the ability to establish intraosseous access
C. initial investigation at a crime scene
D. swift water rescue operations

A

A - EMT roles and responsibilities include strong written and verbal communication skills

The other answers are not typically roles and responsibilities of the EMT.

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5
Q

Which of the following EMT activities is considered high risk for the patient?
A. assessment of vital signs
B. obtaining a blood glucose test
C. requesting permission to treat
D. transferring patient care

A

D - Transferring patient care is a high risk activity for the patient.

Transfer of care is one of the five high risk activities listed in the chapter (1. transfer, 2. lifting/moving, 3. transportation in ambulance, 4. spinal precautions, 5. administration of medications).

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6
Q

You are called to a business for a patient with dizziness, headache, and nausea. As you enter the business, you detect a strong odor and your eyes begin to water. You should immediately:
A. leave the area and call for additional resources.
B. attempt to locate the caller and remove him
C. apply a mask and safety goggles before continuing
D. determine the cause of the odor and notify your dispatcher.

A

A - Leave the area and call for additional resources.

Your safety is always the first priority

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7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?
A. EMT’s can avoid stress by eating healthy and exercising
B. stress will eventually cause most EMT’s to leave the profession
C. stress is an inevitable consequence of the profession
D. acute stress develops slowly due to repeat exposure to certain events

A

C - Stress is inevitable in EMS.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a formalized process to help emergency workers deal with stress?
A. paid time off
B. modified duty assignment
C. critical incident stress management
D. EMS stress management exercises

A

C - CISM is a formalized process to help emergency workers deal with stress

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9
Q

Which of the following provides the best protection from exposure to an airborne disease?
A. HEPA / N95 mask
B. simple mask
C. lone sleeve gown
D. mask with splash guard

A

A - A HEPA or N95 mask should be worn if you suspect the patient has an airborne disease

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10
Q

Which of the following moves is used when the scene is dangerous and the patient must be moved before providing care?
A. urgent move
B. emergency move
C. non-urgent move
D. critical move

A

B - emergency moves are used when the scene is dangerous and the patient must be moved immediately

Urgent moves (option A) are used when the patient has life-threatening injuries

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11
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the actions an EMS provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level?
A. duty to act
B. standard of care
C. scope of practice
D. doctrine of certification

A

C - scope of practice is the actions a provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level.

Duty to act (option A), the EMT had an obligation to respond and provide care.
Standard of care (option B) is the degree of care a reasonable person with similar training would provide in a similar situation

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12
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the degree of care a reasonable person with similar training should provide in a similar situation?
A. standard of care
B. scope of practice
C. standardized curriculum
D. EMS expectation clause

A

A - standard of care

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13
Q

Which of the following are specific to resuscitation efforts and do not affect treatment. prior to the patient entering cardiac arrest?
A. living will
B. advance directive
C. DNR order
D. medical power of attorney

A

C - DNR orders only apply to patients once they enter cardiac arrest

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14
Q

During a negligence lawsuit, it is shown that the injury to the plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to the EMT’s action or inaction. Which component of negligence is the EMT guilty of?
A. proximate cause
B. duty to act
C. breech of duty
D. gross incompetence

A

A - proximate cause or “causation”

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15
Q

Which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
A. decapitation
B. pulselessness
C. apnea
D. unresponsiveness

A

A - decapitation is a definitive sign of death

The other three options are presumptive signs of death.

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16
Q

What federal agency regulates all radio operations in the US?
A. Federal Trade Commission
B. Department of Transportation
C. National Registry of EMT’s
D. Federal Communications Commission

A

D - Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding EMS radio communications is correct?
A. begin and end radio transmissions with “please” and “thank you”
B. use the 10 codes approved by the NREMT
C. use clear text, not radio codes, for EMS communications
D. state “over and out” at the end of each radio transmission

A

C - use clear text, not radio codes, for EMS communications

18
Q

Which of the following is an example of an objective observation?
A. the patient has slurred speech and unsteady gait
B. the patient is high on something
C. the patient is obviously intoxicated
D. the patient is under the influence of alcohol or drugs

A

A - This answer demonstrates objective observation.

The other three options demonstrate subjective observation.

19
Q

Your medical direction has just ordered administration of a medication for your patient. You should immediately:
A. administer the medication as directed
B. check with one additional physician to confirm the order is correct
C. repeat the order back to ensure you have understood it correctly
D. ask the physician to verbally acknowledge that you are allowed to give the medication

A

C - repeat the order back to ensure you have understood it correctly

Always repeat the order back (echoing) to ensure you heard it correctly. This should be done before the medication is administered.

20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the transfer of care report is correct?
A. transfer of care must always be to the accepting physician
B. transfer of care must include a verbal report to an equal or higher medical authority
C. transfer of care is not allowed until your complete your documentation form
D. transfer of care can be made to anyone as long as the patient agrees.

A

B - transfer of care must include a verbal report to an equal or higher medical authority

A copy of the PCR (Patient Care Report) must be provided, but it does not delay the transfer of care.

21
Q

Which of the following suggestions should you follow regarding patient care reports (PCR)?
A. always keep a copy of the PCR for your own records
B. if you didn’t do it, don’t write that you did
C. have the patient review the PCR once it is complete
D. leave your name off the PCR if you have concerns about the call

A

B - If you didn’t do it, don’t write that you did.

All of the other choices are completely inappropriate

22
Q

The minimum data set on a PCR includes:
A. dispatch times
B. patient diagnosis
C. insurance information
D. the medical director’s name

A

A - dispatch times

23
Q

Your PCR has a section that allows you to free text a description of the call. This is known as the:
A. dispatch section
B. treatment section
C. physical exam section
D. narrative section

A

D - narrative section

24
Q

Your patient is complaining of knee pain following a fall from a bicycle. You ask the patient if he has any neck pain and he states he does not. In this case, neck pain would be considered:
A. a pertinent negative
B. an associated symptom
C. multi-system trauma
D. an irrelevant question

A

A - a pertinent negative

the question is relevant and important to ask. Since it is not present, it would be considered a pertinent negative. If the patient answered “yes”, then neck pain would be considered an associated symptom (option B).

25
Q

What abbreviation should you use on your PCR?
A. any abbreviation you like, as long as you are consistent
B. any abbreviation a senior EMT or paramedic uses
C. only abbreviations approved by your agency and medical director
D. only abbreviations approved by the NREMT

A

C - only abbreviations approved by your agency or medical director

You should only use abbreviations approved by your agency or medical director. The NREMT does not approve medical abbreviations