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EMT MIDTERM > CH 1-16 > Flashcards

CH 1-16 Flashcards

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1
Q

Consent

A

Permission to render care

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2
Q

Implied consent

A

Applies only when a serious medical condition exists and should never be used unless there is a threat to life or limb

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3
Q

Informed consent

A

You have explained the nature of the treatment being offered, along with the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment, as well as potential consequences of refusing treatment, and the patient has given consent

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4
Q

Expressed consent

A

when the patient verbally or otherwise acknowledges that he or she wants you to provide care and transport.

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5
Q

Involuntary consent

A

Applies to patients who are: mentally ill, in a behavior crisis, developmentally delayed. Obtain consent from guardian or family, if possible.

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6
Q

Minors and Consent

A

Parent or legal guardian gives consent. In some states, minors may give consent (depending on age and maturity, emancipated minors (married, armed service, parents). If true emergency is present, treat the patient it is implied.

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7
Q

Anatomical Position

A

Position of reference is when the patient stands facing you, arms at side, with the palms of the hands facing towards you

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8
Q

Frontal (coronal) plane

A

Divides the body front and back (anterior and posterior)

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9
Q

Sagittal (lateral) plane

A

Divides the body left and right

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10
Q

Transverse (axial) plane

A

Divides the body superior and inferior

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11
Q

Midsagittal plane (midline)

A

Divides the body into equal left and right halves

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12
Q

Anterior

A

Front side

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13
Q

Posterior

A

Back side

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14
Q

Superior (Cephalic)

A

Top portion

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15
Q

Inferior (Caudal)

A

Bottom portion

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16
Q

Medial

A

More towards the center of the body

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17
Q

Lateral

A

More towards the extremities

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18
Q

Tidal Volume-

A

amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath (about 500 ml)

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19
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

A

amount of air that can be inhaled after normal inhalation (amount in addition to tidal volume)

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20
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

amount of air that can be exhaled following normal exhalation (average is 1200ml)

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21
Q

Residual Volume

A

air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration

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22
Q

Dead Space

A

portion of airway that does not contain air and can not participate in gas exchange, such as the trachea and bronchi

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23
Q

Red Blood Cell (RBC)

A

erythrocytes carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

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24
Q

White Blood Cell (WBC)

A

leukocytes fight infection

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25
Q

Platelets

A

clouts blood

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26
Q

Plasma

A

water proteins (Oxygen, carbon dioxide, Nitrogen) Nutrients Cell Waste (Lactic Acid, Carbon Dioxide) hormones

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27
Q

Sympathetic-

A

activates body in an emergency situation (fight-or-flight)

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28
Q

Parasympathetic

A

controls non-emergency functions (generally slows down the body, when eating blood moves to stomach processing, allows HR and respirations to slow for digestion)

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29
Q

Sensory Nerves

A

afferent (eyes, skin, muscle, joint, lungs)

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30
Q

Motor Nerves

A

Efferent (effect) from brain to muscles

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31
Q

Agonists

A

medication that causes stimulation of receptors

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32
Q

Antagonists

A

medication that binds to the receptor and blocks other medications

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33
Q

Enteral

A

Medications that enter the body through the digestive system

(Sublingual SL, Per Rectum PR, By Mouth PO)

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34
Q

Parenteral

A

medication that enters the body by a route other than the digestive system; skin or mucous membrane, usually liquid injections
(Intravenous IV, Intraosseous IO, Inhalation , Intranasal IN, Intramuscular IM,
subcutaneous SC, transcutaneous)

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35
Q

Unintended effects

A

effects which pose little risk to patient such as a headache after taking nitro

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36
Q

Untoward effects

A

effects that can be harmful like hypotension after taking nitro

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37
Q

Medication 6 Rights

A 
Right Patient
Right Medication
Right Dose
Right Route
Right Time
Right Documentation
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38
Q

Peer-Assisted Medication

A

when the EMT administers medication to him or herself or to their partner

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39
Q

Patient-Assisted Medication

A

when the EMT assists the patient with the administration of his or her own medication

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40
Q

EMT-Administered Medication

A

administration of medication by the EMT directly to the patient

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41
Q

Asthma-

A

acute spasm of smaller air passages bronchioles associated with excess mucous production and swelling of the mucous lining of respiratory passages

42
Q

Atelectasis

A

collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs

43
Q

Bronchiolitis-

A

inflammation of bronchioles usually occurs in children younger than 2 and often caused by RSV

44
Q

Bronchitis

A

acute or chronic inflammation of lung may damage lung tissue, usually associated with cough and sputum also fever

45
Q

Carbon Dioxide Retention

A

condition characterized by chronically high blood level of CO2 in which the respiratory center no longer responds to high blood levels of C02

46
Q

COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, slow process of dilation and disruption of airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction

47
Q

Crackles

A

crackling/rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air space of the lungs (RALES)

48
Q

Croup

A

Inflammatory disease of upper respiratory system may cause a partial airway obstruction and is characterized by a barking cough usually seen in children

49
Q

Diphtheria

A

infectious disease in which a membrane forms, lining the pharynx. This lining can severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx

50
Q

Dyspnea

A

shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

51
Q

Embolus

A

blood clot or other substance in circulatory system that travels to a blood vessel where it causes a blockage

52
Q

Emphysema

A

disease of the lungs in which there is extreme dilation and destruction of pulmonary alveoli with poor exchange of oxygen and CO2, one form of COPD

53
Q

Epiglottis

A

epiglottis becomes inflamed and enlarged and may cause an upper airway obstruction

54
Q

Hay Fever

A

allergic response usually due to outdoor airborne allergens such as pollen or sometimes indoor allergens such as dust mites or pet dander also called allergic rhinitis

55
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Panic Attack, with absence of other problems respirations as high as 40 shallow breaths/min or as low as 20 very deep breaths/min

56
Q

Hypoxia

A

body’s cells and tissues do not have adequate oxygen

57
Q

Hypoxic Drive

A

chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood, which stimulates respiratory drive. Seen in patients with chronic lung disease.

58
Q

Orthopnea

A

severe dyspnea experienced when lying down and relieved when sitting

59
Q

Pandemic

A

An outbreak that occurs on a global scale

60
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

severe shortness of breath, especially at night after several hours of reclining, person is forced to sit up to breathe

61
Q

Pleural Effusion

A

collection of fluid between the lung and chest that is worsened by a deep breath or other chest wall movement often caused by inflammation or irritation of pleura

62
Q

Pneumothorax

A

partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space

63
Q

Pulmonary Edema

A

build up of fluid in the lung usually as a result of congestive heart failure

64
Q

Pulmonary embolism

A

blood clot that breaks off large vein and travels to blood vessels of lung causing obstruction of blood flow

65
Q

RSV

A

virus that causes infection of the lungs and breathing passages can lead to other serious illnesses that affect lungs or the heart, highly contagious and spread through droplets

66
Q

Rhonchi

A

coarse breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in airways

67
Q

Stidor

A

harsh, high pitched, barking inspiratory sound often heard in acute laryngeal obstruction

68
Q

Wheezing

A

high pitched, whistling breath sound characteristically heard on expiration in patients with asthma or copd

69
Q

Signs of Adequate respiration:

Normal Respiratory Rate Ranges

A

Adults- 12-20 breaths/min

Children- 15-30 breaths/min

Infants- 25-50 breaths/min

70
Q

Compensated Shock

A

early stages of shock, while the body can still compensate for blood loss

71
Q

Signs and Symptoms of compensated shock

A 
Agitation
   Anxiety
   Restlessness
   Feeling of impending doom
   Altered mental status
   Weak, rapid (thready) or absent pulse
   Clammy (pale, cool, moist) skin
    Pallor, with cyanosis about the lips
   Shallow, rapid breathing
    Air hunger (shortness of breath) especially if there is a chest injury 
    Nausea or vomiting
   Capillary refill of longer than 2 seconds in infants and children
    Marked thirst
    Narrowing pulse pressure
72
Q

Decompensated Shock

A

late stages of shock, when blood pressure is falling

73
Q

Signs and Symptoms of decompensated shock

A

Falling blood pressure (systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or lower in an adult)
Labored or irregular breathing
Ashen, mottled, or cyanotic skin
Thready or absent peripheral pulses
Dull eyes, dilated pupils
Poor urinary output

74
Q

Shock(hypoperfusion)

A

describes a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system (when the circulation of blood in the body becomes inadequate, the oxygen and nutrient needs of the cells cannot be met).

75
Q

Obstructive Shock

A

caused by a mechanical obstruction which prevents an adequate volume of blood to fill the heart chambers. Three of the most common examples of obstructive shock are cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism

76
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A

compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output

77
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

is the accumulation of air in the pleural space, which eventually compresses the heart and great vessels

78
Q

Pulmonary embolism-

A

a blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung, causing obstruction of blood flow

79
Q

Distributive Shock

A

a condition that occurs when there is a widespread dilation of the small arteriales, small venules, or both. As a result, the circulating blood volume pools in the extended vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases. The four most common types of distributive shock are septic shock, neurogenic shock, anaphylactic shock, and psychogenic shock.

80
Q

septic shock

A

shock caused by severe infection, usually a bacterial infection.

81
Q

neurogenic Shock

A

circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation; seen in patients with spinal cord injuries.

82
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A

severe shock caused by an allergic reaction

83
Q

sensitization

A

becoming sensitive to a substance that did not initially cause a reaction.

84
Q

Psychogenic Shock

A

shock caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that causes fainting (syncope)

85
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A

shock caused by fluid or blood loss. Result of an inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the circulatory system. There are hemorrhagic and non-hemorrhagic cause of hypovolemic Shock.

86
Q

dehydration

A

loss of water or fluid from body tissues, can cause or aggravate shock.

87
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A

caused by inadequate function of the heart, or pump failure (circulation of blood throughout the vascular system requires the constant pumping action of a normal and vigorous heart muscle).

88
Q

Edema

A

the presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area.

89
Q

Preload

A

the pressure that is accumulated inside of the ventricles as the heart relaxes, letting blood in to fill the chambers. (Precontraction pressure)

90
Q

Afterload

A

the resistance against the heart as it contracts for it to overcome and eject the blood out through the aorta and pulmonary arteries.

91
Q

ACS

A

(Acute Coronary Syndrome)

(Myocardial Infarction)- “Heart attack”

92
Q

Chest pain (Men)

A
  • “L” arm, shoulder, jaw
  • Dyspnea “difficulty breathing”
  • Pale, cool, diaphoretic
  • N/V/D
93
Q

AED

A

be aware of surface that patient is lying on.

  • what is the age of patient
  • does patient have medication patch
  • does patient have pacemaker

If patient is unresponsive and does not have a pulse apply AED and push analyze

If resuscitation is possible ROSC Monitor for spontaneous respirations provide 02 via BVM at 10-12 breaths/min assess bp if ALS is not on scene being transport

94
Q

L-Sided vs R-Sided Heart Failure

Right-Sided

A

Back-ups in the area that collects “used” blood

95
Q

L-Sided vs R-Sided Heart Failure

Left-Sided

A

The left ventricle can’t pump blood out to the body as fast as it returns from the lungs which begins to back up in the blood vessels of the lungs (Pulmonary Edema)

96
Q

Congestive heart failure

A

Fluid backs up into the lungs and tissues

97
Q

Arrhythmias leading to cardiac arrest

A
  • Ventricular Fibrillation (V-fib) - Disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles, no blood is being pumped through the body
  • Ventricular Tachycardia (V-tach) - Rapid heart rhythm that doesn’t allow the chambers to refill
98
Q

Pertinent Negatives

A

-Negative findings that indicate no care or intervention
Finding out the signs and symptoms that the patient does not have
-Helpful in identifying a patient’s problem and choosing an appropriate treatment

99
Q

Pulse Oximetry

A

An assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds
Oxygen saturation is the measure of the % of hemoglobin molecules that are bound in arterial blood

100
Q

GCS (with particular emphasis on what responses garner which point score)

Best Eye Response:

A

Spontaneous- 4
In response to speech- 3
In response to pain- 2
Unresponsive- 1

101
Q

GCS (with particular emphasis on what responses garner which point score)

Best Verbal Response:

A 
Oriented conversation- 5
Confused conversation- 4
Inappropriate words- 3
Incomprehensible sounds- 2
Unresponsive- 1
102
Q

GCS (with particular emphasis on what responses garner which point score)

Best Motor Response:

A 
Obeys commands- 6
Localize pain- 5
Withdraws to pain- 4
Abnormal flexion- 3
Abnormal extension- 2
Unresponsive- 1

EMT MIDTERM (1 decks)

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