CFII Exam Flashcards
1
Q
In a propellor driven aircraft, maximum range occurs at:
A
maximum lift/drag ratio
2
Q
Which characteristic of a spin is not a characteristic of a steep spiral?
A
Stalled wing
3
Q
The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
A
Stability
4
Q
An airplane has a normal stalling speed of 60 knots but is forced into an accelerated stall at twice that speed. What maximum load factor will result from this maneuver?
A
4 Gs
5
Q
Immediately after takeoff, a downwind turn close to the ground is not good practice because it:
A
Increases the hazards involved should an emergency landing become necessary
6
Q
Instrument and installation errors are most prominent at:
A
low airspeed
7
Q
Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of:
A
exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit
8
Q
What would the indicated stall speed be during a 40 deg banked turn with the gear down and flaps 45?
A
Refer to Fig 83 knots
9
Q
What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 30 deg bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?
A
Refer to Fig 108 knots
10
Q
What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 45 deg bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?
A
Refer to Fig 119 knots
11
Q
What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 50 deg bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?
A
Refer to Fig 124 knots
12
Q
Concerning the advantages of an aircraft generator or alternator, select the true statement:
A
An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator
13
Q
A common error during autorotation is:
A
Lowering the nose too abruptly
14
Q
FAR’s: What is the duration of a student pilot certificate for a person seeking an airplane rating who has not reached age 40?
A
60 calendar months from the month in which the medical certificate was issued
15
Q
FAR’s: What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate?
A
24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed
16
Q
FAR’s: If a second class medical certificate was issued to a commercial pilot 13 months ago, during the next 11 months this pilot may:
A
act as pilot in command and carry passengers or property, but not for compensation or hire
17
Q
FAR’s: A second class medical certificate issued January 18 of this year will expire:
A
January 31 of next year for commercial pilot privileges
18
Q
FAR’s: To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to:
A
receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
19
Q
FAR’s: Which of the following normally requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating?
A
Any turbojet-powered aircraft
20
Q
FAR’s: To act as a pilot in command of an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable propeller, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
A
receive ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement of proficiency.
21
Q
FAR’s: No person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized airplane with a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet unless that person has:
A
received ground and flight training in high altitude operations and a logbook endorsement certifying this training.
22
Q
FAR’s: Which is applicable to a private pilot with ASEL ratings who has never flown in a tailwheel airplane? The pilot:
A
must have received instruction and have a logbook endorsement before acting as pilot in command.
23
Q
FAR’s: A person who the Administrator finds has cheated or committed any unauthorized act while taking a knowledge test may not take another test within:
A
1 year
24
Q
FAR’s: A written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that an applicant has received the required training preparation for a practical test must be dated within:
A
2 calendar months preceding the month of the application
25
To be eligible for a practical test under 14CFR Part 61, an applicant must have passed the appropriate knowledge test (when required) within the preceding:
24 calendar months
26
An applicant who holds a Comm Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings is seeking a MEL rating at the commercial level. On Aug 1, 2007 the applicant shows you a second class medical dated January 2, 2006. May the applicant take the practical test?
Yes
27
If all increments for a practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed on one date, all remaining increments must be satisfactorily completed no later than:
2 calendar months after the month the test was begun
28
What is one requirement for an aircraft furnished for a practical test?
Must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any required area of operation
29
A flight instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when:
being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test.
30
An applicant who fails a practical test for the second time may apply for retesting after:
Receiving the necessary instruction and endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the training.
31
Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received?
All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.
32
What flight time must be recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
Only the flight time necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
33
When is a recreational pilot required to carry a logbook with the required endorsement?
On all flights when serving as pilot in command.
34
A flight review is not required if a pilot has completed, within the time specified:
A pilot proficiency check conducted by the FAA.
35
A flight review will consist of:
A minimum of 1 hour ground training and 1 hour flight training.
36
A flight instructor who has not satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or passed a required proficiency check within the prescribed time is:
Not authorized to fly solo
37
What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane?
Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months.
38
To meet the recent flight experience requirements for acting as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made, within the preceding 90 days and from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise, three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in:
the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required) of aircraft to be used.
39
A private pilot has completed three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in a tricycle-gear airplane, single-engine land, and decides to take a passenger for a flight in a tailwheel airplane, single engine land. Since these aircraft are of the same category and class, the pilot is current in:
The tricycle-gear airplane
40
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is:
1929
41
The holder of a pilot or instructor certificate who fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch in writing of a change of permanent mailing address may exercise the privileges of that certificate for how many days after the date of change?
30
42
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of FAR 61.73 must hold at least a valid:
Private Pilot Certificate
43
A Private Pilot with an airplane single engine land rating may act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider if the pilot has:
three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft within 24 calendar months before the flight.
44
To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to airplanes, an applicant is required to be at least how old?
16 years
45
Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the students:
logbook and pilot certificate
46
A student is required to have his/her pilot certificate endorsed by a flight instructor for each:
Make and model of aircraft to be flown solo.
47
Who is responsible for administering the required knowledge test to a student pilot prior to solo flight?
The students authorized instructor
48
What subjects must be covered on the presolo knowledge test?
Applicable regulations, flight characteristics, and operational limitations of make and model aircraft to be flown.
49
Prior to solo flight, a student must have received flight instruction in:
ground reference maneuvers
50
Are students authorized to make repeated solo cross-country flights without each flight being logbook endorsed?
Yes, provided the flights take place under stipulated conditions.
51
One requirement for a student pilot to be authorized to make a solo cross-country flight is an endorsement:
in the students logbook that the preflight planning and preparation has been reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely.
52
May repeated solo cross-country flights over the same route be made by a student without receiving an endorsement from a flight instructor for each flight?
Yes, if the route is no more than 50 nm from the point of departure and instruction was given in both directions over the route.
53
To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has:
received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.
54
Who is authorized to endorse a student pilot logbook authorizing flight in Class B airspace?
Only the flight instructor who conducted the training.
55
Your student is not interested in flying at night. May he/she take the practical test for a Private Pilot Certificate without any night flight training?
No, your student must have logged at least 3 hours of night flight training in order to be issued a certificate.
56
Your student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country training including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and .6 hours. Is you student eligible to take the practical test?
Yes
57
What night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles.
58
With respect to day cross-country experience requirements, a private pilot airplane applicant must have a minimum of:
3 hours dual and 5 hours solo
59
Your student has received 3.0 hours of night flight training including five takeoffs and landings. Is your student eligible to take the Private Pilot practical test?
No
60
An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings presents a logbook with 254 hours total time. Of that 20 hours are logged as SIC in single engine airplanes certificated for single pilot operations. You determine this time was accumulated as safety pilot with another pilot who was flying under the hood. Does the applicant have enough total time to be eligible for the practical test?
Yes
61
Under FAR Part 61, a commercial pilot-airplane applicant is required to have a minimum of how much cross-country experience?
50 hours
62
What requirements must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare an applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate?
Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 200 hours of flight training.
63
The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained?
3 years
64
A flight instructor who applies for an additional rating on that certificate must have a minimum of how many hours as pilot in command in the category and class of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought?
15
65
To endorse a student pilots logbook for solo flight, an instructor is required, in part, to have:
given that student flight training in the type of aircraft involved.
66
The minimum pilot in command time requirement for a flight instructor with multi engine privileges to give flight training to a student for a Multi engine rating is:
Five hours in the make and model of aircraft in which training is to be given
66
The minimum pilot in command time requirement for a flight instructor with multi engine privileges to give flight training to a student for a Multi engine rating is:
Five hours in the make and model of aircraft in which training is to be given
67
The holder of an expired flight instructor certificate may exchange that certificate for a new one by:
Passing the appropriate practical test
68
A recreational pilot with less than 400 hours flight time may not act as pilot in command unless the pilot has:
Logged pilot in command time in the last 180 days
69
A turbine powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least:
1500 feet AGL
70
When operating VFR in class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
71
The minimum visibility for VFR flight in class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of:
10,000 feet MSL if above 1200 feet AGL
72
And airplane may be operated in on controlled airspace at night below 1200 feet above the surface under the following conditions:
Less then 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within 1/2 mile of the runway
73
While in class E airspace in VFR conditions what in-flight visability is required when flying more than n 1200 feet AGL & at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
5 statute miles
74
When operating an airplane within class T airspace under special V of whore, the flight visibility is required to be at least
1SM
75
No person may operate an airplane within class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the:
Airplane is equipped for instrument flight
76
Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR
Authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile
77
Which preflight action is required for every flight?
Determine runway length at airports of intended use
78
The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport
79
Which statement is true regarding the use of seat belts and shoulder harnesses?
The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts
80
Went two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
At the lower altitude
81
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right of way?
The airship
82
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed which an aircraft may be flown in a satellite airport traffic pattern located with in class B airspace?
250 knots
83
Unless otherwise authorized or required by air traffic control, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots
84
The minimum distance at which an airplane may be operated over a structure which is located in a sparsely populated area is
500 feet from the structure
85
Which courses and altitudes are appropriate for VFR aircraft operating more than 3000 feet AGL, but below 18,000 feet MSL?
Magnetic course 180° to 359° inclusive, even thousands +500 feet
86
What are the requirements, if any, to overfly class C airspace?
Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL
87
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
Magnetic direction indicator
88
When an aircraft is being flown over water, under what circumstances must approved flotation gear be readily available to each occupant?
When operating for hire beyond power off gliding distance from shore
89
What is the maximum distance from an airport that an aircraft engaged in training operations may be operated without an emergency locator transmitter?
50 NM
90
When are emergency locator transmitter batteries required to be replaced or recharged?
After 1 cumulative hour of use
91
And aircraft not equipped with the required position lights must terminate flight
At sunset
92
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a cabin pressure altitude of
15,000 feet MSL
93
The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list MEL is to
List the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft
94
Which action is appropriate if an aircraft, operating under FAR part 91 and for which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed, is determined to have an inopperative instrument or piece of equipment that does not constitute a hazard to the aircraft? The item should be
Deactivated and placarded "inoperative" but repairs can be deferred indefinitely
95
How long before the proposed operation should a request be submitted to the controlling ATC facility to operate in class C airspace without the required altitude reporting transponder?
1hour
96
A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required for all controlled airspace
At & above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding airspace at or below 2500 feet AGL
97
And altitude reporting coded transponder is required for all airspace:
At and above 10,000 feet Msl and below the floor of class A airspace excluding airspace at or below 2500 feet AGL
98
What is the minimum altitude required for aerobatic flight?
1500 feet AGL
99
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator of the aircraft
100
Assuring compliance with airworthiness directive's is the responsibility of the:
Owner or operator of the aircraft
101
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of an aircraft to service should always be indicated by:
The appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records
102
And aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12 this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
July 31 next year
103
10 aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100 hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100 hours inspection should be due after:
100 hours time in service
104
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
It's use is not permitted
105
What is the maximum time period during which a person may use an ATC transponder after it has been tested and inspected?
24 calendar months
106
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of
Life Limited parts of each airframe engine propeller rotor and appliance
107
What limitation is imposed on a newly certified commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights of more than 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited
108
A student pilot certificate may be issued by:
And aviation medical examiner, designated pilot examiner, or FAA inspector
109
You endorse the back of a student pilot certificate for solo cross-country privileges in airplanes. As a flight instructor you know that:
The student must have a logbook endorsement authorizing solo cross-country privileges in the specific make and model
110
In order to give the required aircraft flight training and the endorsement for a CE – 500 type rating, not limited to VFR you must have:
A flight instructor certificate with an instrument airplane rating and a CE – 500 type rating on your pilot certificate
111
The addition of a multi engine class rating to an existing private or commercial pilot certificate with an airplane single engine rating will require
Practical test, a logbook endorsement attesting to proficiency in multi engine airplanes, and no specified minimum dual or solo time in multi engine airplanes
112
Your airplane student, age 43, just obtained a combination student pilot certificate and first class airman medical certificate. You inform the student that
The student pilot certificate is valid and will expire 24 calendar months after the date the medical certificate was issued
113
Your student is a foreign national who logged duel instruction and solo flight experience in his home country toward a foreign private pilot certificate. You advise him or her that
If requirements of 14 CFR part 61 are met his or her previous flight training may be credited toward the requirements for a US pilot certificate
114
Your student holds a private pilot certificate with a rotorcraft/helicopter rating and wants to obtain an airplane category rating. You inform the student that
Some of the training/flight experience required toward the helicopter rating can be used to meet the requirements for an airplane rating
115
As a certified flight instructor or you know that:
Any instrument training as defined by 14 CFR 61 required for a pilot certificate must be given by the holder of a flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating
116
With regard to instructor privileges and endorsements an authorized flight instructor may not
Make a self endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, or knowledge test.
117
You endorse a student pilots logbook for a specific solo cross-country flight. As a flight instructor you know that:
You may, as part of the endorsement, include any limitations you deem necessary.
118
What documents must you have with you while operating as a flight instructor in an aircraft?
An appropriate pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate.
119
Over other than congested areas, the minimum altitude at which a helicopter may be operated is
Less than 500 feet capital AGL, if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property
120
Over congested areas, the minimum altitude at which a helicopter may be operated is
And altitude that does not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface
121
Motion sickness is caused bye
Continued stimulation of the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance
122
During level turns in side-by-side airplanes, which is characteristic of student performance?
Diving during left turns because the nose appears to rise during entry into these terms
123
What suggestion could you make to students who are experiencing motion sickness?
Tell the students to avoid unnecessary head movement and to keep their eyes on a point outside the aircraft
124
An above glidepath indication from a tricolor VASI is
An amber light symbol
125
During a climb to 18,000 feet, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere
Remains the same
126
Hypoxia is the result of
Reduced barometric pressures at altitude
127
Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause:
Hyperventilation
128
Anemic hypoxia has the same symptoms as hypoxic hypoxia but it is most often a result of
A leaking exhaust manifold
129
What is the sequence of procedure for spin recovery?
Decrease power, neutralize ailerons, apply full opposite rudder against the rotation, apply a positive and brisk straight forward movement of the elevator control forward of neutral to break the stall, then after spin rotation stops neutralize the rudder
130
The runway threshold bar marking indicates
Beginning of runway available for landing
131
Which of the following is true concerning stall/spin awareness training?
In-flight stall/spin awareness training should include demonstration maneuvers such as cross control stalls, even if not required by practical test standards
132
The grade and viscosity of oil and grease used in cold-weather operation
Must be those specified by the manufacturer
133
Refer to figure 42. At which aircraft position would you receive any indication U?
6 only
134
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
Reduced power, correct bank angle, and raise nose to a level attitude
135
Refer to figure 45. Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over McCampbell airport?
718 feet MSL
136
Refer to figure 45. What is the elevation of the highest obstruction located approximately two nautical miles south of McCampbell airport?
549 feet MSL
137
Refer to figure 47. What is the normal radius of the outer area?
20 nautical miles
138
Refer to figure 47. What is the radius of the surface area?
5 miles
139
Refer to figure 47. What is the radius of the shelf area Circle A?
10 miles
140
Refer to figure 47. The outer shelf area from B to a normal he extends from
5 nautical mile to 10 nautical mile
141
Refer to figure 47. The shelf area radius from C- A is?
10 miles
142
Refer to figure 46. Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over half Moon Bay airport area 1?
700 feet AGL
143
Refer to figure 46. The minimum avionics equipment necessary to operate in the airspace above 10,000 feet MSL over San Francisco international Airport area 6 is?
Transponder and encoding altimeter
144
Refer to figure 44. What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3000 feet MSL over Northwest airport area 2?
Transponder and encoding altimeter
145
When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or Unicom, you should broadcast your intentions on
122.9 MHZ
146
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments
147
Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to
Cabin pressure altitude above 5000 feet
148
The aeronautical decision making process identify several steps involved in good decision-making. One of the steps is
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight
149
Many experienced pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at sometime. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include
Pier pressure, loss of situational awareness, and operating with inadequate fuel reserves
150
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
And appropriate antidote
151
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at sometime. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability
152
In the aeronautical decision making process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
Recognizing hazardous thoughts
153
During a stall recovery, instructor allows the student to exceed maneuvering speed. Which best illustrates and antiauthority reaction by the instructor?
The aircraft can handle a lot more than the maneuvering speed
154
Success in reducing stress associated with a crisis in the cockpit begins with
Assessing stress areas in one's personal life
155
To help manage cockpit stress, a pilot should
Try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress
156
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during the level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?
90° and 270°
157
The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in on accelerated straight and level flight?
Magnetic compass
158
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of the role and rate of turn
159
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right
160
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns
161
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Instrument crosscheck, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control
162
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument crosscheck
163
As power is reduced to change air speed from high to low cruise and level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer
164
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard return his established?
Turn coordinator
165
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?
Altimeter
166
Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively when establishing a level standard rate turn?
Attitude indicator and turn coordinator
167
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement
168
Which practical test should be made on the electric Gyro instruments prior to starting an engine
Turn on electrical power and listen for any unusual or a regular mechanical noise
169
What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn
170
During pre-flight instrument check, if no altimeter setting is available, and the OAT is 10°, the altimeter should be set to
The published field elevation
171
Your fuel consumption is 10.3 GPH with a ground speed of 117 knots , and the usable fuel capacity is 40 gallons. You should have the aircraft on the ground
No later than 3 hours and 22 minutes after takeoff and the fuel gauge indicates 5.5 gallons of fuel remaining
172
How far will an aircraft travel in 3 1/2 minutes if it's groundspeed is 55 knots ?
3.2 nautical miles
173
Your fuel consumption is 10.3 GPH with a groundspeed of 117 knots , and you travel 620 nautical miles. How many gallons of fuel will you burn?
55
174
If you fly an aircraft for five minutes at a ground speed of 75 knots , how far will you travel?
6.2 miles
175
On a cross-country flight point X is crossed at 10:15. If the aircraft is cruising at 75 KIAS, what time will it Cross point Y?
1032
176
On a cross-country flight point X is crossed at 10:15 if the aircraft is cruising at 105 KIAS, what time will it Crosspoint Y?
1027
177
Your fuel consumption is 10.3 GPA with a groundspeed of 170 knots , and the usable fuel capacity is 40 gallons. You should have the aircraft on the ground
No later than three hours and 22 minutes after takeoff or one the fuel gauge indicates 30 minutes of fuel remaining during date flight
178
Your fuel consumption is 15.3 GPH with a ground speed of 117 knots , and the usable fuel capacity is 40 gallons. For a day flight you should have the helicopter on the ground
No later than 2 hours and 16 minutes after take off with reserve
179
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Restricted visibility
180
Cool air moving over a warm surface is generally characterized by
Instability and showers
181
Consider the following statement about mountain waves
2 and 3
182
Which is an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing?
In order for structural ice to form, the temperature at the point where the moisture strikes year craft must be 0°C or colder
183
Advection fog is formed as a result of
Moist air moving over a colder surface
184
Refer to figure 3. The temperature/dewpoint spread at KAUS is
4°C
185
Refer to figure 3. What is that reported duration of the rain at KBRO?
6 minutes
186
Refer to figure 5. What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
1800Z to 1800Z
187
Refer to figure 5. In the TAF for KMEM, what does SHRA stand for?
Rain showers
188
When teaching from the known to the unknown an instructor is using the students
Previous experiences and knowledge
189
In organizing lesson material, which step sets the stage for everything to come?
Introduction
190
The first step in preparing a lecture is to
Establish the objective and desired outcome
191
The distinguishing characteristic of an informal lecture is the
Active student participation
192
Which teaching method is the most economical in terms of the time required to present a given amount of material?
Teaching lecture method
193
Which is a true statement regarding the teaching lecture?
The instructor must develop a keen perception for subtle responses from class
194
Perhaps the most significant characteristic of group learning is that students tend to
Actively participate in the learning process
195
The main reason that students are put in cooperative learning groups is so they
Can individually achieve greater success than if they were to study alone
196
And instructional strategy which organizes students into small groups so that they can work together to maximize their own and each other's learning is called
Cooperative learning
197
Hey question directed to an entire group to stimulate thought and response from each group member is identified as
Overhead
198
Which question would be best as a leadoff question for a guided discussion on the subject of to work?
How does torque affect an airplane?
199
In a guided discussion leadoff questions should usually begin with
Why or how
200
In a guided discussion learning is achieved through
Skillful use of questions
201
In the demonstration/performance method of instruction, which two separate actions are performed concurrently?
Student performance and instructor supervision
202
What is the last step in the demonstration/performance method?
Evaluation
203
What are the essential steps in the demonstration/performance method of teaching?
Explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, and evaluation
204
Some of the more advanced computer-based training applications allow students to progress through a series of interactive segments where the presentation varies as a result of their
Responses
205
Practical test for pilot certification are:
Criterion-referenced
206
The objective of the practical test standards is to ensure the certification of Pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with
Safety
207
To be effective in Oral quizzes during the conduct of a lesson, a question should
Be adapted to the stage of training
208
Which is a valid reason for the use of proper oral quizzing during a lesson?
Reveals the effectiveness of the instructors training methods
209
Regarding oral quizzes what kind of questions would be answered based on memory or recall?
A fact question
210
Proper oral quizzing by the instructor during a lesson can have which result?
Identifies points which need more emphasis
211
To answer a students question it is most important that the instructor
Clearly understand the question
212
The use of instructional aids should be based on their ability to support a specific point in the lesson. What is the first step in determining if and where instructional aids are necessary?
Clearly established the lesson objective, being certain what must be communicated
213
Which statement is true regarding positive or negative approach is in aviation instructional techniques?
A positive approach to be effective, will point out the pleasurable features of Aviation before the unpleasant possibilities are discussed
214
Faulty performance due to student overconfidence should be corrected by:
Increasing the standard of performance for each lesson
215
An instructor can most effectively maintain a high level of student motivation by:
Making each lesson an enjoyable experience
216
What should an instructor do with a student who assumes that correction of errors is unimportant?
Raise the standard of performance for each lesson, demanding greater effort
217
Confusion, disinterest, and uneasiness on the part of the student could happen as a result of not knowing the
Objective of each period of instruction
218
Examples of all common endorsements can be found in the current issue of
AC 61-65, appendix 1
219
The student should be capable of handling problems that might occur, such as traffic pattern congestion, change in active runway, or unexpected Crosswinds prior to
Initial solo
220
When the instructor keeps the student informed of lesson objectives and completion standards, it minimizes the students feelings of
Insecurity
221
Aviation instructors should be constantly alert for ways to improve the services they provide to their students, their effectiveness, and their:
Qualifications
222
The basic demonstration/performance method of instruction consist of several steps in proper order. They are
Instructor tells instructor does; student tells instructor does; student tells student does
223
During integrated flight instruction instructor must be sure the student
Develops the habit of looking for other traffic in addition to referencing flight instruments
224
Integrated flight instruction has many benefits but, the main objective is to
Help the student develop a habit patterns for observance of an reference to flight instruments
225
Students who grow impatient when learning the basic elements of a task are those who
Should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goals for each step
226
Which is one of the ways in which anxiety will affect a student?
Anxiety may limit the students ability to learn from perceptions
227
What is the primary consideration in determining the link and frequency of flight instruction periods?
Fatigue
228
In planning any instructional activities, the first consideration should be too
Determine the overall objectives and standards
229
Which statement is true concerning extraneous blocks of instruction during the course of training?
They detract from the completion of the final objective
230
After the overall training objectives have been established the next step is to
Identify blocks of learning which constitute the necessary parts of the total objective
231
Each lesson of a training syllabus includes
Objective, content, and completion standards
232
Which statement is true about lesson plans?
The use of standard lesson plans may not be effective for students requiring a different approach
233
With regards to the characteristics of a well-planned lesson, each lesson should contain
New material that is related to the lesson previously presented
234
What adverse action may result from using test preparation material in preparing students for FAA tests?
Students may fail to learn other critical info essential for safe piloting
235
What systematic approach to the mental process does the pilot consistently apply to take the best course of action in any given situation?
Aeronautical decision making
236
Students who recognize that the instructor is in adequately prepared can become
Apathetic
237
What is one advantage of a lecture?
A lecture is effective in showing relationships between theory and practice
238
What is the antidote for an anti-authority hazardous attitude?
Follow the rules
239
And instructor can correct student inpatience by
Presenting the necessary preliminary training one step at a time with clearly stated goals for each step
240
Commercial he developed test preparation materials
Should be considered only as a supplement to FAA material and instructor led training
241
When a student performs on maneuver correctly, but the instructor suspects the student does not fully understand the principles and objectives involved, the instructor should
Apply the same elements to the performance of other maneuvers for verification
242
Assignment of goals the student considers difficult
Can be an effective method of promoting motivation and learning
243
Drill and practice method of training delivery is based on the learning principle of:
Exercise
244
A major shortcoming of commercial he developed test preparation material is
That the emphasis is on rote learning
245
Which of the following correctly identifies the accurate perception and understanding of the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements that affect flight safety?
Situational awareness
246
Chronic fatigue
Is a combination of both physiological problems and psychological issues
247
Acute fatigue
Manifest itself by performance deficiencies that are apparent to others before the individual notices any physical signs of fatigue
248
Recovery from chronic fatigue requires
A prolonged and deliberate solution the mitigates the underline physiological/psychological cause
249
Which is true regarding the length of time devoted to practice?
A beginning student may reach a point at which additional practice can be unproductive and may even be harmful
250
A sign that a student may be experiencing acute fatigue is
Lack of awareness of error accumulation
251
Which is true regarding learning plateaus?
The instructor can bring it on by over practice
252
In a guided discussion leadoff questions should usually begin with
Where, how or why
253
The assignment of reasonable goals that a student considers difficult, but possible
Usually provides a challenge and promotes learning
