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cfii Flashcards

1
Q

When is a Instrument rating required?

A
  • When acting as PIC under IFR weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR.(61.3)
    -When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50nm or at night (61.133)
    -For flight in class A airspace
    -For special VFR between sunset and sunrise (91.157)
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2
Q

What are currency requirements for acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums?

A

66 HITS
-In the proceeding 6 calendar months
-6 Instrument approaches
-Holding procedures and tasks
-Intercepting
-Tracking through the use of Navigation systems

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3
Q

How can you log a instrument approach?

A

-Must operate aircraft by solely reference to instruments.
-Pilots must execute the entire IAP commencing at a Initial approach fix or associated feeder route and fly the initial segment, intermediate segment and final segment.
- However the pilot may receive actual or simulated radar vectors to the final approach course.
-If using simulated IMC, must continue whole approach down to the MDA, DA or DH
- If in IMC must continue down past the FAF, or use a view limiting device.

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4
Q

what do you need for the next 6 months if you are not current for IFR?

A

you have a additional 6 months to regain currency by performing 66 hits with a safety pilot

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5
Q

what do you need if it is more than 6 months from currency?

A

-A Instrument Procedure check (IPC) is required, administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person
-Guidelines are in the ACS
-Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD (see ACS)

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6
Q

How do you log a IAP for recency?

A

-Location and Type of each instrument approach
-The name of the safety pilot, if required

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7
Q

what are the requirements to be a safety pilot?

A

-Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class
-Holds a medical
-Dual flight controls
-Must log name of safety pilot

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8
Q

Decision making (DECIDE)

A

D- Detect, that a change has occurred
E-Estimate, the need to counter
C-Choose and desirable outcome
I-Identify solutions
D-Do the necessary actions
E-Evaluate the effects of the actions

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9
Q

Preflight info required for IFR?

A

NWKRAFT (91.103)
N- Notams
W- Weather reports and forecasts
K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R- Runway lengths of intended use
F- Fuel requirements
T- Take off and landing performance data

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10
Q

IFR Minimum fuel requirements?

A

-Fuel from departure to destination airport + Fuel from destination to most distant alternate (if alternate is required) + 45 minutes calculated at normal cruise

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11
Q

How do you know if you need a alternate?

A

1-2-3 Rule
A destination alternate is always required, unless
- an instrument approach is published and available for the destination, and
- for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA:
-ceilings will be at least 200ft above the airport and
-visibility will be at least 3sm

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12
Q

Min WX conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?

A

-For a precision approach
-600ft ceilings and 2sm visibility
-For a non precision approach
-800ft ceilings and 2sm visibility
-If no instrument approach available at the alternate
ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.

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13
Q

IFR takeoff Minimums?

A

(91.175)
No takeoff minimums mandated for part 91
-Part 121,125,129, and 135:
prescribed take off minimums for the runway, or if none:
-1-2 engines airplanes: 1sm Visibility
-More than 2 engines: 1/2sm visibility

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14
Q

What is a departure procedure? (DP)

A

-Ensures obstacle clearance , provided:
-the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35ft AGL
-reaches 400ft all before turning, and
-climbs at least 200ft Per/NM or as published otherwise on the chart

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15
Q

how do you calculate FPM from FPNM?

A

FPM = FPNM X Groundspeed / 60

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16
Q

when are pilots encouraged to file a DP?

A

at night, during marginal VMC or IMC

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17
Q

What are the 2 types of DPs?

A

Obstacle departure procedure (ODP)
-provides only obstacle clearance
-printed either textually or graphically
-graphic ODPs are titled “(Obstacle)”
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
-in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC Clearance and minimizing radio communications
-may depict special radio failure procedures
-Sids are always printed graphically

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18
Q

are you required to accept a DP?

A

No you are not, to avoid it state “NO SIDs” in the flight plans remarks sections.

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19
Q

What is a VCOA?

A

Visual Climb Over Airport
-A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC
-The pilot visually conducts turns over the airport up to the published “climb to” altitude
-Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA

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20
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
-Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made
-Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure
-Can state “NO STARS” in remarks section of flight plan to avoid it

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21
Q

What are the minimum IFR Altitudes?

A

91.177
-Except for take off or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below-
-Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment or if none-
-Mountainous areas: 2000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course
-Non-Mountainous areas: 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a 4NM from the course

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22
Q

MCA?

A

Minimum Crossing altitude- the lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

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23
Q

MOCA?

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude- provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage up to 22NM of the VOR

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24
Q

MORA?

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude- Provides obstruction clearance within 10nm to either side of the airway centerlines and within a 10nm radius at the ends of the airways

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25
Q

MRA?

A

Minimum Reception Altitudes- The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids

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26
Q

OROCA?

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude- Provides obstruction clearance with a 1000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2000 ft buffer in mountainous terrain areas

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27
Q

what are the types of altitudes? (5)

A

Indicated- Indicated on altimeter
Pressure- Altitude above standard datum plane
Density- Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
True- MSL
Absolute- AGL

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28
Q

what are the types of airspeeds?

A

Indicated- indicated on the airspeed indicator
Calibrated- IAS corrected for instrument and position errors
True- actual speed through the air
Groundspeed- actual speed over the ground

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29
Q

Static port blockage for airspeed indicator?

A

Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude
-Higher Altitudes- airspeed indicates lower than it should be
-Lower Altitudes- Indicates higher than it should be

When using alternate static it indicates faster than it should

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30
Q

Static port blockage for altimeter?

A

Will freeze on the altitude where it was block

when using alternate static source it indicates higher than it should

31
Q

Static port blockage for VSI?

A

Freezes on zero

when using alternate static source it will momentarily show a climb

32
Q

Pitot Tube Blockage?

A

The only Instrument affected is the airspeed indicator
-Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero
-Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter
-When suspecting a blockage use pitot heat to melt away and ice

33
Q

Magnetic Compass Errors?

A

VDMONA
V-Variation- Difference between true north and magnetic north (east his least west is best)
D- Deviation- Aircraft instruments disrupt (deviation card)
M- Magnetic Dip- the tendency of a magnet to align with the Earth’s magnetic field lines, causing the north end of a compass needle to dip down in the northern hemisphere (positive dip) and up in the southern hemisphere (negative dip).
O-Oscillations- Airplanes movement and vibrations
N- North south turn errors (UNOS)
A- Acceleration errors (ANDS)

34
Q

IFR Required equipment?

A

GRABCARD
G-Generator/ Alternator
R-2 way radios
A-Altimeter with kolsman window
B-Ball (Slip skid indicator)
C- Clock- Shows hours, miniutes, and seconds, installed in the aircraft
A- Attitude indicator
R- Rate of turn indicator
D- Directional Gyro (heading indicator)

35
Q

what is the VOR frequency range?

A

108.0 to 117.95, excluding 108.10-111.95 (reserved for LOC frequencies)

36
Q

how many degrees is a full scale deflection for a VOR?

A

10 degrees

37
Q

How to identify if the VOR is operable and correct?

A

Morse code

38
Q

What is a VOR MON

A

Minimum Operational Network:
program ensures that as old VORS are decommissioned, a MON Airport is available within 100NM regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS

39
Q

When do you need to perform a VOR check?

A

Every 30 Days

40
Q

What are the different VOR Checks?

A

VOT- +-4
Repair Station +-4
VOR ground checkpoint +-4
VOR airborne checkpoint +-6
Dual VOR crosscheck +-4
Airborne check within 20nm +-6

41
Q

VOR check Sign off?

A

DEPS
D-Date
E-Error
P-Place
S-Signature

42
Q

VOR limitations?

A

Cone of confusions
Reverse Sensing
Requires line of sight

43
Q

What is the dimension of a LOC?

A

35 degrees for 10NM then 10 Degrees for another 8NM

44
Q

What are the different Marker beacons?

A

Outer Marker
Middle Marker
Inner Marker
Back Course Marker

45
Q

Details of a Outer Marker?

A

4-7 miles out
Indicates when the aircraft should intercept glide slope
Blue
“- - -“

46
Q

Details of a Middle Marker?

A

-3500ft from runway
GS meets the decision height
Amber color
“.- .-“

47
Q

Details of a inner marker?

A

Indicates where the GS meets the DH on a Cat II ILS approach
White
“. . .”

48
Q

Details of a Back Course marker?

A

Indicates FAF on back course approaches
White
“.. ..”

49
Q

what position does 3 satellites get you?

A

3 satellites are required for 2D position

50
Q

what position does 4 satellites get you?

A

4 Satellites are required for 3D position

51
Q

What is RAIM?

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring- is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
-RAIM (fault detection) requires a minimum of 5 Satellites or 4 + an altimeter input
-To eliminate a corrupt satellite ( fault exclusion) rain needs a additional satellite (total of 6 or 5 with baro-aid)

52
Q

How many Satellites do you need for each thing and RAIM?

A

3-2D
4-3D, or RAIM FD if has BARO-AID
5-RAIM FD, or RAIM FE if has BARO-AID
6-RAIM FE

53
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System
Ground Stations (wide area reference and wide area master stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals
-Covers a wide area

54
Q

What is GBAS?

A

Ground Based Augmentation System
-Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS-enabled GPS receivers
-GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area
-Allows for category I and above approaches to GLS DA minimums

55
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation Performance
US Approaches with RNAV (RNP) in the title are AR (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft, and operation.

56
Q

Basic attitude instrument flying skills?

A

-Cross check
-Instrument interpretation
-Aircraft Control

57
Q

Common Scanning errors?

A

Fixation
omission
emphasis

58
Q

What is the Control and Performance Method?

A

Divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments.
-First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments
Control Instruments
-Power- Tach
-Attitude- Attitude indicator
Performance Instruments
-Pitch: Altimeter, Airspeed,VSI
-Bank: Heading indicator, turn indicator, and magnetic compass

59
Q

What is the Primary and Supporting Method?

A

Divides the cockpit panel by pitch, bank, and power instruments
Pitch Instruments- Attitude indicator, altimeter, Airspeed indicator, and VSI
Bank Instruments- Attitude indicator, heading indicator, turn coordinator, and mag compass
Power Instruments- Airspeed, tachometer, manifold pressure

60
Q

Required Reports Under IFR? (Marvelous VFR 500)

A

Marvelous VFR 500
M-Missed approach
A-airspeed +- 10kts / 5% change of files TAS (whichever is greater)
R- Reaching a holding fix (report time and altitude)
V- VFR on top- when a altitude change will be made
E-ETA changed +- 2Min, or +-3min in North Atlantic
L-Leaving a holding fix/point
O-Outer marker (or fix)
U-Unforcasted weather (91.183)
S-Safety of flight
V-Vacating a altitude / FL
F-Final Approach Fix
R- Radio/nav/approach equipment failure
C-Compulsory reporting points
500- unable climb descent 500 FPM

61
Q

Holding pattern timing?

A

-At or below 14,000 MSL- 1 min
-Above 14,000 MSL- 1.5 min

62
Q

What are the holding speeds?

A

-6000 or below- 200kts
-6001-14,000- 230kts
-14,001 and above- 265kts

Airfare fields 310kts
navy fields 230kts

63
Q

Lost Communication procedure for altitude to fly?

A

MEA
The highest of:
M- MEA
E- Expected
A- Assigned
*highest for the route segment flown

64
Q

Lost communication procedure for route to fly?

A

AVEF
Select route by this order
A- Assigned route
V-Vectored (Fly to fix, route,airway last vectored to)
E- last expected route
F-Filed route

65
Q

what are the components of GPS?

A

Space
Control
User

66
Q

what does the space element of GPS consist of?

A

Consists of 32 satellites

67
Q

what does the control element of GPS consist of?

A

1 Master control station
6 monitoring stations
3 ground antennas
ensures accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks

68
Q

what does the user element of GPS consist of?

A

antennas and receivers/processors onboard the aircraft that provide positioning

69
Q
A
70
Q

What are the 3 components to a ILS?

A

Guidance
Range
Visual

71
Q

What does the Guidance component of a ILS consist of?

A

Localizer
Glide slope

72
Q

What does the range component of the ILS consist of?

A

Marker beacons
Or DME

73
Q

What is the visual component of the ILS?

A

Approach lighting system
Runway markings

cfii (2 decks)

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