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CFII > CFII > Flashcards

CFII Flashcards

1
Q

What do you need to do to remain current for instrument flight rules

A

Within the preceding 6 calendar months you must have completed 6 instrument approaches, demonstrated holding, intercepting, and tracking
You have a 6 month grace period after your currency lapses to complete the required items, once the grace period ends you must complete an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC)

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2
Q

Who can preform an IPC

A

CFII
Examiner
DPE
Person authorized by the U.S. armed forces
Check pilot

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3
Q

PIC currency requirements

A

Within the preceding 90 days you must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings in the same category, class, type, etc. of aircraft you intend to fly with passengers
For night currency the takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop and preformed between sunset and sunrise
Tailwheel currency must also be to a full stop

Flight review every 24 calendar months

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4
Q

Where can you find the items that need to be covered during an IPC

A

The ACS
A-13 in the instrument ACS (I believe)

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5
Q

When can you log instrument time

A

Simulated: when flying solely in reference to the instruments with a qualified safety pilot
Actual: in IMC

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6
Q

What is CRM

A

Crew resource management
Effective and efficient use of all resources

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7
Q

What is ADM

A

Aeronautical decision making
A systematic approach to the decision making process
PPP and PPPPP
PAVE - CARE - TEAM
IMSAFE
GAVIATE
ARROW
NWKRAFT

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8
Q

What is SRM

A

Single pilot crew resource management
Much like CRM but you’re down a resource, your second pilot

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9
Q

What is spatial disorientation

A

The pilot is unable to accurately interpret their position in space

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10
Q

What systems do we use to orient ourselves

A

Somatosensory
Vestibular
Visual

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11
Q

How does your visual system work

A

Rods: night time, sensitive to light
Cones: day time, sensitive to color
Rhodopsin helps your eyes to adjust to light
Roughly 30 minutes for your eyes to fully adjust to a different lighting environment
Blind spot where the optic nerve attaches

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12
Q

How does your vestibular system work

A

Three semicircular canals (3 axis in space)
Otolith organ (cupula) (acceleration and deceleration)
Eustachian tube (equalize the pressure)

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13
Q

Illusions

A

Inversion
Coriolis
Elevator
False horizon
Leans
Autokinesis
Graveyard spiral
Somatogravic

Blackhole effect

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14
Q

Flying by the seat of your pants

A

Naughty

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15
Q

Instrument scanning errors

A

Emphasis - looking at certain instruments too much in comparison to others
Fixation - just focused on one
Omission

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16
Q

Anti-ice vs deicing equipment

A

Anti-icing: weeping wing, heated surface, pito heat, cabin heat/defrost
Deice: boot

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17
Q

If you encounter icing

A

Turn around, climb through to the top, descend
Go where you know the icing conditions (visible moisture, freezing temperatures) don’t exist
AFM checklist

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18
Q

Traditional pito/static instruments

A

I’m not writing all that out I know you know that shit already

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19
Q

Pito/static instrument blockages

A
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20
Q

ADC inputs and outputs

A

Inputs: OAT, pito, static, alternate static
Outputs: OAT, indicated airspeed, vertical speed, TAS, altitude, mode C, E6B calculations

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21
Q

AHRS inputs and outputs

A

Inputs: GPS, magnetometer, ADC
Outputs: attitude, heading, rate of turn, slip and skid, wind vector

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22
Q

Gyroscopic principles

A

Precession, rigidity in space

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23
Q

Attitude indicator

A

Vertically mounted about the horizontal axis
Relies on rigidity

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24
Q

Heading indicator

A

Horizontally mounted about the vertical axis
Relies on rigidity

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25
Q

Turn coordinator

A

Canted 30 degrees
Relies on precession

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26
Q

Magnetic compass errors

A

Oscillation
Variation
Deviation
Dip
Turning errors and acceleration errors (ANDS/UNOS) (1/2 latitude + 15)

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27
Q

G1000 components

A

Alex: 3212664579

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28
Q

ADSB is required where

A

A,B,C (above as well), Mode C veil, above 10000’ MSL

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29
Q

Hold entries

A
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30
Q

Holding airspeed limitations

A

Below 6000’: 200kts
From 6000-14000’: 230kts
Above 14000’: 265kts

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31
Q

IFR takeoff criteria

A

35’ above the runway
200 fpnm climb
No turns until 400’ AGL

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32
Q

When may you engage autopilot

A

800’ AGL

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33
Q

Ways to begin an approach

A

Vectors
Hold in lieu
Procedure turn
Procedure track

34
Q

Going missed procedure

A

Power up
Pitch up
Clean up
Fess up

35
Q

If you’re circling and you loose sight of the runway what should you do

A

Turn towards the runway, then follow the published missed approach procedure

36
Q

Cold temperature airports

A

Must change the altitudes for the approach
(conversion table AIM 7-3-4)

37
Q

Different types of AWOS

A
38
Q

WAAS

A

Accurate within 3 meters 90% of the time
6 satellites required

39
Q

How many satellites give you what

A

2D: 3
3D: 4
RAIM: 5 (fault detection)
Fault exclusion: 6

40
Q

GPS

A

Minimum of 24 satellites
6 orbital planes, 4 minimum on each

41
Q

What does a GPS satellite send

A

Position, time, ID

42
Q

GPS errors

A

Position, timing, atmospheric

43
Q

If you get a RAIM alert on an approach what do you do

A

If you’ve crossed the FAF, go missed
If you haven’t crossed the FAF, switch to LNAV minimums

44
Q

Alternate minimums and filing

A

1-2-3 rule
600-2 for precision
800-2 non precision

45
Q

Lost comms procedures

A

Confirm you actually do have lost comms
Squawk 7600 (in IMC) squawk 1200 (in VMC)
If you’re cleared and en route to an airport and loose comms, fly over the airport and then shoot the approach

46
Q

If you’ve started an approach and you’re picking up ice should you abort or continue the approach

A

Continue the approach
No flaps landing
Come in faster than you normally would

47
Q

If you’re in ice and your engine runs rough what should you do

A

Open alternate air

48
Q

Types of VOR

A

High: up to 130nm (varies with altitude)
Low: 40nm
Terminal: 25nm

49
Q

VOR service volumes

A

High: up to 60000’
Low: 18000’
Terminal: 12000’

50
Q

What must you have for a VOR to be useful

A

Line of sight must be maintained

51
Q

VOR minimum operation network

A

Must be within 100nm of a legacy VOR

52
Q

VOR receiver checks

A

Must be checked every 30 days for IFR
Airborne: +/-6 degrees
Dual: +/- 4
Ground:+/-4
VOT: +/-4 (180 to indication)

Date, error, bearing, place, signature

91.171

53
Q

Hypoxia

A

Hypoxic
Histotoxic
Hypemic
Stagnant

54
Q

Alcohol regulation

A

8 hours bottle to throttle
.04% BAC
No side effects felt

55
Q

When may you log instrument time

A

In actual
As the CFII you may not log the approaches your students do, to log the approach you must fly beyond the FAF

56
Q

As a CFII what are you required to record

A

Name of the person you’re instructing, and what the instruction was for (rating they’re working on)
Endorsements given (keep for 3 years)
If you sent someone to a test you have to keep a log of the results (pass/fail) of their test

57
Q

Types of approaches

A

Precision: ILS, MLS, PAR
Non precision: LOC, VOR, LNAV, NDB, LOC back course
Precision like: LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV+V (guidance only on the vertical(advisory glide path))

58
Q

Inoperative instruments and equipment

A

91.213
91.205

KOEL

59
Q

Light gun signals

A
60
Q

Enhanced taxiway centerline is how long

A

150’ maximum
Shows you’re approaching a runway just for situational awareness purposes

61
Q

Minimum fuel requirements for IFR

A

Enough fuel to fly to your destination, to your alternate there after, and 45 extra minutes of cruise fuel burn

62
Q

IFR cruising altitudes

A

East: odd thousand or flight levels
West: even thousand or flight levels

63
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A

N/A for part 91
For parts 135, 121, 125, or 129
One engine: 1sm
Two or more engines: 1/2sm

64
Q

What is clearance void time

A

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff
You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart

65
Q

‘Hold for release’

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure

66
Q

Release time

A

The earliest time an aircraft may depart for an IFR flight

67
Q

IFR minimum altitudes

A

Mountainous: 2000’
Non-mountainous: 1000’

68
Q

IFR altitudes

A
69
Q

DME

A

Distance measuring equipment
The Airborne DME unit transmits an
interrogation signal
The ground DME facility receives and
replies to the interrogation
Airborne unit calculates the slant range
distance to the station based on the
reply time
Due to slant range error, when flying
overhead the station, DME indication is
not “0”
Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM
from the DME station per every 1000ft

70
Q

NDB

A

ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB station

71
Q

Components of the ILS

A

Lighting
Glideslope
Localizer
Marker beacons

VERTICAL, LATERAL, AND DISTANCE GUIDANCE

The ILS is getting it’s own deck go look at that on it’s own

72
Q

Control and performance

A

Divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments
Set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments

Control instruments: power, attitude indicator
Performance Instruments: pitch (altimeter, airspeed and VSI), bank (heading indicator, turn coordinator, and magnetic compass)

Establish, trim, crosscheck, adjust

73
Q

Required reporting points

A

AIM 5-3-3
It’s on my kneeboard

ID, position, time, altitude, flight plan, ETA and fix, name of the next fix, remarks

74
Q

Holding time limitations

A

Below 14000’: 1 minute
Above 14000’: 1.5 minutes

75
Q

Hold entries

A

Direct: upon crossing the fix turn to
follow the holding pattern
Parallel: upon crossing the fix, turn to
a heading parallel to the holding course
outbound for 1 minute. Then turn into
the the hold pattern to intercept the
inbound course
Teardrop: upon crossing the fix,
turn outbound to a heading 30º into
the pattern. Fly it for 1 minute, then
turn in the direction of the hold turns to
intercept the inbound course

76
Q

Lost comms procedures

A

FAR 91.185
Altitude (choose the highest):
MEA
Expected
Assigned

Route (order of priority):
Assigned
Vectors
Expected
Filed

77
Q

Operation below minimums

A
78
Q

RNAV

A

RNAV is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations

79
Q

GNSS

A

Broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems
GPS is the GNSS system used within the United States

80
Q

PBN

A

Performance based navigation
General basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts (final approach, enroute, missed approach)

81
Q

RNP

A

RNP is a specific statement of PBN for the flight segment and aircraft capability, also defined as RNAV + navigation monitoring and alerting functionality
RAIM or built-in monitoring in WAAS provide this capability

Terminal: 2nm accuracy
Enroute: 1nm accuracy
Final approach: 0.3nm accuracy
Advanced: higher standard

82
Q

3 things for operations below minimums

A

Wx minimums, stabilized approach, visual

CFII (3 decks)

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