CFF Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary role of a forensic accountant acting as an expert witness?

A

To assist the trier of fact. The legal system allows the use of experts as a way of assisting the trier of fact (a judge or jury) rather than as advocates for a particular party. As expert witnesses, forensic accountants are not to be advocates for the defendant or plaintiff, but rather advocates for their opinion.

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2
Q

3 services forensic accountants acting as consultants can provide…

A
  1. Advice on a fraud risk mitigation.
  2. Valuation of an estate.
  3. Financial impact of mergers and acquisitions.

Forensic accountants do not provide opinions on the fair presentation of financial statements. The objective of audit engagements usually is to express an audit opinion on whether financial statements, taken as a whole, are fairly presented. In contrast, forensic accounting consulting engagements tend to focus on one or more particular areas of a dispute of investigation.

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3
Q

3 areas outside of accounting that are important for forensic accountants to have knowledge of…

A
  1. Information Technology. For example, analyzing the audit trail of a financial reporting system.
  2. Psychology. For example, forensic accountants may interview individuals involved in or related to an investigation.
  3. Criminology. For example, consideration of the Fraud Triangle (rationalization, financial pressure, and opportunity) in connection with a fraud investigation.
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4
Q

What is the Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee?

A

The AICPA body that has rule-making authority in the area of forensic and valuation services.

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5
Q

Which section of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct does not apply to forensic accountants?

A

The “Other Members” section. This section applies to unemployed or retired CPAs. Since all CFF’s have to be CPA’s, this does not apply.

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6
Q

What are 3 courses of action a member of the AICPA should consider when responding to an ethical conflict?

A
  1. Consulting with the appropriate persons within the firm or the organization that employs the member.
  2. Requesting the advice of other individuals in the field.
  3. Obtaining advice from appropriate professional bodies or legal counsel.
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7
Q

What are 3 valuation approached identified in VS section 100?

A
  1. Income approach.
  2. Market approach.
  3. Cost approach.
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8
Q

Do AICPA members need to comply with non-authoritative guidance issued by the AICPA?

A

No. Members are not required to comply with non-authoritative. They may deviate from non-authoritative guidance if the member can justify departures, particularly if the facts and circumstances of the member’s engagement are nearly similar to those of which the guidance applies.

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9
Q

List 3 major titles in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP).

A
  1. Trials.
  2. Pleadings & Orders.
  3. Evidence.
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10
Q

What is the “First Appearance”?

A

The initial appearance of the defendant before a judicial office is referred to as the first appearance.

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11
Q

What is a “Pleading”?

A

The initial stage of a civil lawsuit involves the filings of pleadings by the respective parties. The purpose of pleadings is to give notice to the parties and the court of the assertions of each side and to assist in the determination of the issues.

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12
Q

What is a “Preliminary Hearing”?

A

A preliminary hearing usually occurs after the initial appearance, bail hearing, or Gerstein decision; a preliminary hearing is not constitutionally required. A preliminary hearing takes place before a judicial officer.

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13
Q

What is an “Arraignment”?

A

The arraignment occurs after the indictment has been filed. The defendant is brought before the trial court and asked to enter a plea.

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14
Q

For an indictment, how many jurors must vote to indict?

A

A simple majority. A simple majority is sufficient to issue an indictment.

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15
Q

In civil actions, what is an “Injunction”?

A

An injunction is a judicial order that restrains a person from beginning or continuing an action threatening or invading the legal right of another, or that compels a person to carry out a certain act, e.g., to make restitution to an injured party.

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16
Q

In civil actions, what are “Orders for Specific Performance”?

A

Orders for specific performance is the performance of a contractual duty, where damages may not be adequate remedy.

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17
Q

In civil actions, what are “Money Damages”?

A

Money damages are those damages paid to a person as compensation for a loss or injury.

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18
Q

In civil actions, what is an “Attachment”?

A

An attachment is a court order permitting a court officer, such as a sheriff, to seize a debtor’s property?

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19
Q

What is the most important criteria evidence must satisfy before any considerations affecting admissibility?

A

Relevance.

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20
Q

What are 3 criteria that FRE rule 702 require of expert testimony?

A
  1. It must help the trier of fact to understand the evidence or determine a fact at issue.
  2. It must be based on sufficient facts or data.
  3. It must be the product of reliable principles and methods.
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21
Q

Who might undisputed discovery requests be directed to in federal courts?

A

Both parties and non-parties to the lawsuit. Discovery tools, such as deposition, may be directed to either a party to the lawsuit or a non-party, by subpoena.

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22
Q

Name 3 of th3 4 major types of discovery tools.

A
  1. Requests for admission.
  2. Interrogatories.
  3. Depositions.
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23
Q

Why are excessive discovery tactics an issue in the court system?

A

Lawyers can bill for more hours worked if discovery is more extensive. Additionally, lawyers can include the most relevant documents in a larger group of discovery in order to force opposing counsel to expend more effort to identify the most relevant documents.

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24
Q

Name 3 advantages of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) over traditional litigation.

A
  1. Cost effective. ADR typically costs less than court litigation.
  2. Private. ADR, in most cases, does not create any public record.
  3. Tends to build rather than destroy relationships. ADR can bring opposing parties together and resolve disputes out of the public eye in a way that the opposing parties feel is fair and reasonable.
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25
Q

What is the role of a non-testifying expert whose work is typically not subject to discovery?

A

Non-testifying experts provide a wide range of advice, opinion, analyses, and so on for their clients. They are typically not subject to discovery when retained by the attorney.

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26
Q

What does “conflicting out an expert” mean?

A

Conflicting out an expert involves familiarizing an expert with one’s case with no intention of ever retaining the expert, thereby forcing the expert to decline an engagement with the opposing party due to a conflict of interest.

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27
Q

Who does the board of directors typically delegate the fraud risk management responsibilities to?

A

The audit committee.

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28
Q

What is the correct sequence of events needed for the evidence collection process to proceed?

A

Review documents and other relevant information, then conduct interviews. Reviewing documents and obtaining relevant information provides a basis for asking the right questions in interviews, and also for identifying suspects.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of informational interview questions?

A

Information questions are designed to gain information relevant to the investigation.

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30
Q

What is the purpose of assessment interview questions?

A

Assessment questions are designed to determine if the subject shows signs of deception and to assess the interviewee’s honesty.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of admission-seeking interview questions?

A

Admission-seeking questions are asked of subjects that show signs of deception.

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32
Q

What is the purpose of introductory interview questions?

A

Introductory questions are asked at the very beginning of the interview and seek to establish rapport, gain general background information, and establish a baseline for how the subject honestly responds.

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33
Q

When are subjects who show deception asked concluding or closing questions?

A

After admission-seeking questions. Answers to admission-seeking questions may or may not include a confession. Either way, some concluding questions are appropriate, although some interviewers might skip the concluding questions when there is a signed confession.

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34
Q

Name 3 important considerations when gathering documentary evidence.

A
  1. Maintaining the chain of custody. The chain of custody communicates the characteristics of evidence transference and the integrity of the justice system and interjects accountability among its processes and procedures involving evidence, Accountability exists through the specifying of individuals between whom evidence is transferred and passed.
  2. Working with copies, not originals. Working with copies of documents preserves the original document for evidentiary purposes.
  3. Marking documents with identification numbers. Assigning document identification numbers assists with recalling documents and keeps documents organized.
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35
Q

Fraud schemes relating to vendors and purchasing…

A

Procurement fraud.

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36
Q

Fraud schemes relating to accounts receivable and cash collections…

A

Lapping schemes.

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37
Q

What are sales skimming schemes?

A

Sales skimming schemes involve misappropriation of incoming cash. Such schemes can be classified according to the point in the cash collection process when the cash is stolen. This point can be at any time from the point of sale until the cash is properly deposited in the bank.

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38
Q

Describe money laundering…

A

Money laundering is a process of transforming ill-gotten funds to what appears to be legitimate money or other assets.

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39
Q

What is check washing?

A

When checks are washed, the payee’s name is replaced with a name from a stolen identity. The check is then cashed or negotiated using the stolen identity. Check washing is associated with identity theft.

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40
Q

Describe payroll fraud…

A

Payroll fraud includes improper hiring, improper charges to employee personnel files, and improper reporting of employee activities.

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41
Q

Name 3 “job positions” in an identity theft scheme…

A
  1. Procurer. The procurer may purchase the information from “specialists” on the internet or obtain it directly from hacking and phishing schemes, street sources, or leakers from inside an organization.
  2. Shopper. The shopper is the one who actually goes out and does things like pass stolen checks and use fake or stolen credit cards.
  3. Document forger. A document forger will use information from the procurer to create forged documents.
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42
Q

Describe Chapter 13 bankruptcy…

A

Chapter 13 applies to individuals with means-tested income large enough to disqualify them from filing under Chapter 7. The court may discharge some of the debt and create a payment plan for the rest.

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43
Q

Describe Chapter 11 bankruptcy…

A

Chapter 11 involves the creation of a payment plan and does not involve total liquidation of the business or assets. If a debtor passes the means test, they cannot file a Chapter 11.

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44
Q

Describe Chapter 7 bankruptcy…

A

Chapter 7 applies to both individuals and businesses. Subject to certain exceptions, it provides for complete liquidation of all the debtor’s assets and the complete elimination of debtor’s obligations. Individual debtors who possess sufficient means as determined by a means test must file under Chapter 13 instead of Chapter 7.

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45
Q

Who does Chapter 12 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Chapter 12 applies to farming and fishing businesses.

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46
Q

Describe a fictitious bidder scheme…

A

A fictitious bidder scheme relates to the creation of a fictitious company in order to embezzle funds.

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47
Q

What does Chapter 9 bankruptcy relate to?

A

Chapter 9 relates to the reorganization of a municipality.

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48
Q

What does Chapter 15 bankruptcy relate to?

A

Chapter 15 relates to cross-border insolvency.

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49
Q

What are fraudulent conveyances?

A

A fraudulent conveyance occurs in bankruptcy when a debtor attempts to avoid a debt by transferring money to another person or company.

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50
Q

What are petition mills?

A

A petition mill is a fraud in which the perpetrator (typically a purported financial adviser) files hastily prepared bankruptcy documents in the name of victims who come to the perpetrator as clients.

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51
Q

What are Bust-outs?

A

Bust-outs are fraud schemes where an individual applies for a credit card, establishes a normal usage patter and repayment history, then makes substantial purchases. Subsequent to making the purchases, the perpetrator files for bankruptcy.

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52
Q

What is data carving?

A

Data carving is putting together pieces of deleted files.

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53
Q

What is a file viewer?

A

The file viewer allows previewing of files and email messages in a wide variety of formats.

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54
Q

What is a registry viewer?

A

The registry viewer assists the examiner in acquiring information from the Windows registry that is relevant to the investigation.

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55
Q

What is the principal concern of FINCEN?

A

Anti-money laundering.

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56
Q

What are 3 audit tasks a Computer Assisted Audit Tool (CAAT) will aid in?

A

1.Extracting data from accounting or ERP systems.
2. Running sophisticated queries against a data set.
3. Testing program logic and controls.

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57
Q

What are 3 items a practitioner needs to consider before accepting a matrimonial forensics engagement?

A
  1. That they can be objective.
  2. That they are competent in the area of matrimonial forensics.
  3. That they are good communicators.
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58
Q

Does a practitioner need to have experience performing matrimonial forensics engagements before accepting one?

A

Practitioners do not need to have previously performed a matrimonial forensic engagement as long as they believe they can accomplish the engagement competently and objectively, and clearly present their results.

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59
Q

In a divorce case, which takes precedence, federal or state law?

A

State law usually takes precedence over federal law.

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60
Q

What is earnings management and is it illegal?

A

Earnings management can encompass the deferral of sales by legitimate means (for example, deciding not to ship merchandise when sales are recorded to shipping terms), and is not illegal. The type of earnings management that is forbidden by GAAP is that which results in an intentional misstatement of financial position and results of operations. A certain amount of earnings management is expected by the market and most likely is incorporated into the market price of stock. Not everyone agrees that earnings management, even the legal type, is ethical.

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61
Q

What are accrued liabilities?

A

An accrued liability represents an expense that a business has incurred but has not yet paid.

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62
Q

What are cookie jar reserves?

A

Contingent liabilities that management can use to artificially increase income of subsequent periods are sometimes called cookie jar reserves.

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63
Q

What are accrued revenues?

A

Accrued revenue represents revenue that has been earned, but payment has yet to be received by the company.

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64
Q

What are deferred revenues?

A

Deferred revenues are a generally accepted account used to typically record payments received for amounts where revenue are not yet earned.

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65
Q

Explain why this scenario is a red flag: A company’s board of directors is composed mainly of inside directors.

A

Boards of directors composed mainly of inside directors is indicative of an increased risk of fraud because inside directors are believed to be less independent (and perhaps less objective) than are outside directors and thus have more to gain by engaging in inappropriate behavior.

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66
Q

Explain why this scenario is a red flag: Management has created voluntary and overly optimistic forecasted financial results.

A

Voluntary management forecasts that contain overly optimistic financial results are a red flag because management may feel pressure to meet those published forecasts and do so by engaging in inappropriate behavior.

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67
Q

Explain why this scenario is a red flag: A company’s financial condition has improved but the industry is not experiencing similar improvements.

A

An improved financial condition of a company is a red flag if its industry is not experiencing similar improvements, because the reason fore the improved financial condition could be an inappropriate form of earnings management.

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68
Q

Explain why this scenario is a red flag: There has been an abnormal decline in customer demand of products and services provided by a company.

A

An abnormal decline in customer demand of products or services provided by a company is a red flag because management may feel pressure to engage in financial statement misrepresentation to meet earnings targets so that the market price of stock does not decline and bonuses are received.

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69
Q

What is a bill-and-hold scheme?

A

A bill and hold is a form of sales arrangement in which a seller of goods bills a customer for products but does not ship the product until a later date. This results in improper revenue recognition.

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70
Q

What is channel stuffing?

A

Channel stuffing is a business practice in which a company, or a sales force within a company, inflates its sales figures by forcing more products through a distribution channel than the channel is capable of selling.

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71
Q

What are lapping schemes?

A

A lapping scheme is a fraudulent practice that involves altering accounts receivables to hide the fact that a receivables payment has been stolen.

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72
Q

What is an improper cutoff of sales scheme?

A

Recording revenues for sales received around year-end in the wrong period in order to manipulate revenues is a form of improper cutoff of sales.

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73
Q

What is the mitigation requirement relating to personal physical injuries?

A

If a person who was injured later becomes able to work, that person has a duty to go back to work to earn wages to stop or reduce personal economic losses.

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74
Q

Are damages related to personal physical injuries taxable?

A

According to U.S. federal tax law, damages related to personal physical injuries are not taxable.

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75
Q

Are a party’s lost wage damages measured from after-tax wages or gross wages?

A

Because an injured party will not be taxed on damages related to personal physical injuries, the party’s lost wage damages should be measured from after-tax wages rather than higher gross wages to make them whole; paying an injured party damages based on gross wages will make it more than whole because it does not pay taxes on these damages.

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76
Q

The 1933 U.S. Supreme Court opinion that viewed circumstances using the “book of wisdom” means what?

A

Use all information up to the present time. The “book of wisdom” in the Supreme Court opinion refers to using all information known through the present time (that is, hindsight is needed to obtain justice).

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77
Q

What are the 3 general valuation models?

A
  1. Absolute value models.
  2. Relative value models.
  3. Option pricing models.
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78
Q

What are the 3 standard valuation approaches?

A
  1. Income approach.
  2. Market approach.
  3. Asset approach.
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79
Q

What is the standard of value for taxation?

A

Fair market value.

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80
Q

What is the standard of value for GAAP?

A

Fair value.

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81
Q

What is the standard of value for minority shareholder litigation?

A

Fair value.

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82
Q

What is the standard of value for strategic acquisitions?

A

Investment value. Strategic buyers are generally in the same industry as the target firm and are interested in buying the firm for strategic reasons rather than investment return; investment value is generally the type of value in strategic acquisitions - the value to a particular buyer.

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83
Q

What is fair value?

A

Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date.

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84
Q

What is intrinsic value?

A

Intrinsic value is the perceived or calculated value of a company, including the tangible and intangible factors.

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85
Q

What is investment value?

A

Investment value is the value of a property to a particular investor.

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86
Q

What is fair market value?

A

Fair market value is the market value of a property, based on what a knowledgeable, willing, and unpressured buyer would probably pay to a knowledgeable, willing, and unpressured seller in the market.

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87
Q

What needs to be disclosed in a written valuation?

A
  1. Any assumptions made.
  2. Any limiting conditions.
  3. Any hypothetical conditions.

Compensation received does not need to be disclosed in a written valuation report.

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88
Q

What is the primary use of a forensic accountant an an expert witness?

A

To assist the trier of fact.

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89
Q

What is the first thing a forensic accountant should do when contacted by an attorney or a client about a forensic accounting engagement?

A

Perform a conflict of interest check.

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90
Q

What is the AICPA body designated by the AICPA Council as having rule-making authority in the area of forensic and valuation services?

A

Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee.

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91
Q

What types of services does SSCS No. 1 apply to?

A

Both forensic accounting services and valuation services.

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92
Q

The requirements for professional competence, due professional care, adequate planning and supervision, and obtaining sufficient relevant data stem from where?

A

The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct.

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93
Q

What is a criminal defendant’s initial appearance in court called?

A

Arraignment.

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94
Q

What are the 3 types of evidence?

A
  1. Physical.
  2. Demonstrative.
  3. Testimonial.
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95
Q

What is the most important article in the Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE)?

A

Relevance and its limits.

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96
Q

Being able to show that evidence is in substantially the same condition as it was when it was obtained or seized is knows as…

A

Authentication

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97
Q

What are 3 methods of alternative dispute resolution?

A
  1. Arbitration.
  2. Mediation.
  3. Settlement Conference.
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98
Q

Which section of a forensic accountant’s engagement letter should mention arbitration?

A

Dispute resolution.

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99
Q

Which type of question seeks to assess the interviewee’s honesty?

A

Assessment.

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100
Q

Which type of question is used to calibrate the subject’s response?

A

Introductory.

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101
Q

How are occupational frauds most frequently detected?

A

By tips.

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102
Q

What is the first line of defense in minimizing fraud risk?

A

An effective fraud detection system.

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103
Q

What are the 3 components of Dr. Cressey’s fraud triangle theory?

A
  1. Opportunity.
  2. Rationalization.
  3. Pressure.
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104
Q

Name 3 forms of vendor fraud…

A
  1. Short shipments.
  2. Supplying substandard goods.
  3. Fraudulent cost-plus billing.
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105
Q

How many estimates cases of identity theft are there in the United States each year?

A

Over 15 million.

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106
Q

What are 3 steps in the money laundering process?

A
  1. Placement.
  2. Layering.
  3. Integration.
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107
Q

Which type of bankruptcy is most likely to involve government officials?

A

Chapter 9.

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108
Q

Which chapter of the bankruptcy code allows an individual or business to reorganize?

A

Chapter 11.

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109
Q

Creating a forensic image of a computer’s hard drive’s content while it is turned on and operational is often referred to as a…

A

Ghost Acquisition.

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110
Q

The constitutional amendment that protects the people against unreasonable searches and seizures by the government is…

A

The Fourth Amendment.

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111
Q

Finding a location from where an email message was sent is referred to as…

A

IP Tracking.

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112
Q

The part of the web not indexed by typical search engines is often referred to as…

A

The dark web.

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113
Q

How many community property states exist in which all assets acquired during the marriage are considered marital assets?

A

9.

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114
Q

Where are you most likely to find clues to assets not listed in the list of assets?

A

Loan applications or personal financial statements.

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115
Q

In order to prove damages in court, they must be proven with…

A

Reasonable certainty.

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116
Q

Which general valuation model mathematically calculated the present value of an asset’s expected future cash flows?

A

Absolute value.

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117
Q

Which valuation approach relies on the value of an asset by an unrelated purchaser?

A

Market appraoch.

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118
Q

What is the first step in the business valuation process?

A

Determining independence.

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119
Q

What are the 2 broad categories of forensic accounting services?

A
  1. Litigation services (testifying expert, fact witness, non-testifying consultant).
  2. Investigative services (consultant in cases that do not involve actual or threatened litigation, fact witness).
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120
Q

What is required for guidance to be considered authoritative?

A

Guidance is authoritative if issued only after following a process that includes deliberation in meetings open to the public, public exposure of proposed statements, and a formal vote by the appropriate body designated by the AICPA to issue such guidance.

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121
Q

Name the 4 main sections on the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct…

A
  1. Preface
  2. Members in Public Practice
  3. Members in Business
  4. Other Members
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122
Q

What are the 3 main steps to applying the conceptual framework approach?

A
  1. Identify threats.
  2. Evaluate the significance of a threat.
  3. Identify and apply safeguards.
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123
Q

Name / describe the threats a forensic accountant may encounter…

A
  1. Adverse interest threat - A client threatens to sue the forensic accountant. Now there is an adverse situation between the client and the forensic accountant.
  2. Advocacy threat - Objectivity and independence is compromised.
  3. Familiarity threat - A close friend may ask us to perform work.
  4. Management participation threat - We don’t want to step in and take on the role of management.
  5. Self-interest threat - If work is performed under a contingent fee where some other benefit it available.
  6. Self-review threat - The forensic accountant may rely on the firm’s own work product in terms of determining an opinion or reaching a conclusion.
  7. Undue interest threat - A threat to dismiss if the forensic accountant does not reach a certain conclusion.
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124
Q

The 2 types of jurisdiction that exist…

A
  1. In personam - Does the court have the authority to hear a case based on location?
  2. In rem - The court has jurisdiction because of a particular subject matter.
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125
Q

If someone wants to bring a case before the U.S. Supreme Court, what needs to be done?

A

They need to file a writ of cert.

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126
Q

How many supreme court judges need to approve a writ of cert for the court to hear the case?

A

4.

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127
Q

What is a motion for judgment of pleadings?

A

The court is being asked to make a judgment simply based on the pleadings.

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128
Q

What is a motion for summary judgment?

A

Asks the court to dismiss the case based on everything that’s been argue up to that point of time.

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129
Q

What is an injunction?

A

A judicial order that restrains a person from beginning or continuing an action, or compels a person to carry out a certain act.

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130
Q

Name 3 tort remedies…

A
  1. Compensatory damages - Lost wages, lost earnings, due to a bad act.
  2. Nominal damages.
  3. Punitive damages - An amount that’s added on over and above compensatory damages, designed to punish the wrong-doer.
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131
Q

Types of Federal Courts…

A
  1. Federal District Courts.
  2. Federal Appeals Courts.
  3. United States Supreme Court.
  4. Tax Court - Has jurisdiction over disputed tax deficiencies before they are paid.
  5. Court of Federal Claims - Has exclusive jurisdiction over claims for money damages against the United States, including disputed federal contracts.
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132
Q

What are the 2 categories of evidence?

A
  1. Direct - Evidence that can be believed without inference. (Video of Toyota rear ending Chevy).
  2. Circumstantial - Depends on credibility and inferences of witnesses. (Photo of Toyota having damage to front and Chevy having damage to back).
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133
Q

What are the 3 types of evidence?

A
  1. Testimonial - Testimony by a witness who makes assertions; facts. (The drivers of the Toyota and Chevy’s memories of what happened).
  2. Real of Physical - Real of tangible items that are considered indisputable. (The damage that was done to the Chevy is real and indisputable).
  3. Demonstrative - Evidence that illustrates a matter of significance.
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134
Q

What criteria must be met for evidence to be admissible?

A
  1. It must be relevant.
  2. It must have a proper foundation.
  3. It must be in the proper form.
  4. No exceptions can apply.
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135
Q

Regarding the discovery process, what are interrogatories?

A

A set of written questions directed to the other party to the lawsuit. May relate to any matter that may be required into under the score of the discovery. Only the parties to who they are directed may answer. Sent out during the pre-trial process and limited to a maximum of 25 questions to each party. Must be answered under oath under a wet time limit.

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136
Q

What are the 2 types of interrogatories?

A
  1. Identification Interrogatories - These seek facts such as names, addresses of potential witnesses, and summaries of data.
  2. Contention Interrogatories - These seek to explore what a party is contending and the basis for those contentions. Often much more controversial and subject to much more abuse.
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137
Q

Regarding the discovery process, what are depositions?

A

The examination of a witness or a party under oath in the presence of a court reporter. Unlike interrogatories, anyone who has knowledge or expertise relevant to the case may be deposed, they don’t have to be a party to the lawsuit. If a party is deposed who is not a party to the lawsuit, they have to be subpoenaed.

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138
Q

Regarding the discovery process, what is document inspection or protection?

A

A request made to parties of the lawsuit and addresses having copies of evidence in the form of paper documents. Asking for all types of electronically stored evidence turned over (emails, working papers, etc.).

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139
Q

Regarding the discovery process, what is a medical exam?

A

Can only be served on a party to the litigation. The reason triggering the request for a medical exam must be raised directly by the pleadings or a factual contention through discovery.

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140
Q

Regarding the discovery process, what is a request for admission?

A

Used at the end of the discovery process to screen out matters and pleadings that have been clarified by discovery. There are no limits on the number of requests for admission.

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141
Q

Is an expert consultant’s work subject to discovery?

A

No. It is covered by the attorney-client privilege and it not subject to be produced to the other side.

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142
Q

Is an expert witness’ work subject to discovery?

A

Yes. Often times an attorney will engage a forensic accountant as a consultant just to get some advice, knowing that the advice won’t be turned over to the other side. An expert witness’ advice might be subject to discovery.

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143
Q

Does an expert consultant testify in court?

A

No.

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144
Q

Does an expert witness testify in court?

A

Yes. As a witness you could be asked questions about the work you perform. You could be asked questions above the advice that you give.

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145
Q

What does FRE 702 specifically address?

A

Testimony by Expert Witnesses.

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146
Q

What is a motion in Limine?

A

A written motion that requests the court to enter an order regarding the admissibility of particular evidence at trial, including expert testimony. This would include expert testimony.

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147
Q

What does FRE 703 address?

A

The basis of the expert opinion.

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148
Q

What does FRE 704 address?

A

Whether the opinion ultimately addresses the issue at hand.

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149
Q

What does FRE 705 address?

A

Disclosing the facts or data underlying the expert opinion. The info that the expert relies on in formulating their opinion.

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150
Q

What does FRE 706 address?

A

The concept of court-appointed expert witnesses.

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151
Q

What are the elements needed to prove professional negligence?

A
  1. There was a duty to exercise professional care.
  2. The duty above was breached.
  3. A causal relationship between the breach of duty and the resulting injury needs to be demonstrated.
  4. There must be an actual loss or damages.
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152
Q

What are 2 options to manage the risk of professional negligence lawsuits?

A
  1. To have professional liability insurance. If a claim does arise, to have a insurer behind you who can help defend and fund, and if there is an issue ultimately settle the claim.
  2. Obtain indemnity from the retaining client or attorney.
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153
Q

Why is ADR beneficial?

A
  1. ADR saves money. The litigation process is very expensive.
  2. There is stress, litigation, and anxiety that litigation can produce, that may be avoided under an ADR process.
  3. Can help to protect privacy. Litigation can be a public affair (pleadings), available for public to view. Public can literally show up in court and watch the proceedings. Media as well. These types of things are not made public in an ADR setting.
  4. ADR can build relationships. Litigation can make enemies.
  5. ADR is usually quicker than court litigation.
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154
Q

What is the objective of a fraud risk assessment?

A

To make residual risks significantly smaller than inherent risks.

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155
Q

What is inherent risk?

A

The risk that naturally occurs to an organization before the consideration of any mitigation actions / controls.

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156
Q

What is residual risk?

A

The portion risk that still remains after action has been taken to reduce inherent risks.

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157
Q

4 things that need to be considered when identifying risks…

A
  1. The nature of the business - On a practical level, business that operate in a mainly cash environment experience a higher susceptibility to certain fraud risks.
  2. The environment and jurisdictions that the business operated in - In certain countries around the world, paying bribes is a known cost of doing business, if an entity has operations in these countries, the risks of bribery and corruption become elevated.
  3. The business culture and staff - The ethics and the values of the organization and its employees.
  4. The known effectiveness of existing internal controls - It’s important to remember that no system of internal controls can fully eliminate the risk of fraud, but well designed and effective controls can deter it.
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158
Q

What are preventative controls?

A

Manual or automated processes that prevent something bad from happening before it occurs. An example would be a user ID to access the payroll register. The used ID limits access to only those people who need to have access.

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159
Q

What are detective controls

A

Manual or automated processes that are designed to detect something bad that has already occurred. An example is a report on all vendors who had payment info changed within the last month. This could detect if any unauthorized changes had taken place.

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160
Q

4 steps in the fraud risk assessment process…

A
  1. Identify risk
  2. Address the likelihood of each risk
  3. Respond to likely risks
  4. Document & discuss findings.
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161
Q

What are the 3 broad types of fraud?

A
  1. Occupational fraud- When an employee defrauds their employer.
  2. External fraud - Frauds committed against an organization by outsiders (vendors, hackers, suppliers).
  3. Individual fraud - Individuals are the victims.
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162
Q

What is occupational fraud?

A

The use of one’s employment to misappropriate cash or other assets. Also known as internal fraud or internal fraud.

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163
Q

What are the 3 main types of occupational fraud?

A
  1. Corruption.
  2. Asset misappropriation.
  3. Fraudulent Financial Statements.
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164
Q

Name 3 types of employee corruption schemes…

A
  1. Bribery
  2. Bid rigging
  3. Kickbacks
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165
Q

What is skimming?

A

The theft of cash from a company before its recorded in the books.

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166
Q

What are cash transmission schemes?

A

The theft of funds while they are in transit. Cash may be stolen while one transit from one individual to another, or while on transit to the bank.

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167
Q

What is lapping?

A

For this to work, the fraudster must have control over both the accounts receivable records and the bank deposits. The fraudster steals a customer’s incoming payment on account. Then, the fraudster steals a second customer’s payment on account to cover the first outstanding account balance. And so on.

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168
Q

3 steps of money laundering…

A
  1. Placement - Depositing the funds into a financial institution.
  2. Layering - Moving money, typically from one account to another, to disguise the initial deposit.
  3. Integration - Making the funds available for use.
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169
Q

Who does Chapter 7 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Individuals and businesses. It provides for the complete liquidation of all of the debtor’s assets and complete elimination of all of the debtor’s obligations.

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170
Q

Who does Chapter 9 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Municipalities.

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171
Q

Who does Chapter 11 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Businesses and some individuals. Different from Chapter 7 because there is not a complete discharge of all debts but rather the court focuses on developing a payment plan that will satisfy the creditors.

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172
Q

Who does Chapter 12 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Farming and Fishing businesses.

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173
Q

Who does Chapter 13 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Individuals with above-average income.

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174
Q

Who does Chapter 15 bankruptcy apply to?

A

Foreign parties, but they obtain access to the US courts.

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175
Q

What are the common types of bankruptcy fraud?

A
  1. Concealment of assets - Not making known the assets that you possess, ultimately defrauding creditors who have claims.
  2. Fraudulent Conveyances - Asserts of the party filing bankruptcy were conveyed to other parties prior to the bankruptcy filing.
  3. Petition mills - Bankruptcies are filed in massive numbers.
  4. Multiple filing schemes - Bankruptcies are filed in different jurisdictions.
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176
Q

What are the similarities of a bust-out and a bleed-out scheme?

A

They both typically involve setting up a company, collecting money from customers, not paying vendors, and then filing for bankruptcy.

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177
Q

What are the differences between bust-out schemes and bleed-out schemes?

A

Bust-out schemes typically involve companies that are very short-lived, they are often premised on financial statements fraud.

Bleed-out schemes tend to take a little longer, something like the depletion of a pension funds, often takes time to do.

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178
Q

Most common type of fraud in a divorce case…

A

Concealment of assets.

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179
Q

What are the 5 phases of the digital forensic process?

A
  1. Assessment - The seriousness of the matter is considered, as well as the urgency of performing the digital image and processing. Should also consider the sophistication of the fraud scheme.
  2. Collection - How data is collected determines future admissibility. This step includes taking photographs and providing a written description of where the evidence was found and the condition it was in.
  3. Examination - Consider whether you have encrypted or non-encrypted devices. If encrypted, you need to consider how you will go about obtaining the encryption key.
  4. Analysis - Examine system log files, when was it accessed and by who. Also want to see if any other devices were connected to the device under investigation.
  5. Reporting - Provide a factual summary of activities and steps taken, including the chain of custody.
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180
Q

Name some documents and resources that could be helpful in identifying assets…

A
  1. Tax Returns.
  2. Bank & brokerage statements.
  3. Credit card statements.
  4. Personal financial statements.
  5. Loan agreements.
  6. Insurance policies.
  7. Internet services.
  8. Online search firms.
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181
Q

What are defined benefit plans?

A

Promises workers a specific monthly benefit at retirement. The amount of the benefit is known in advance, typically a formula that’s imbedded in the plan documents that lays out how the benefit is calculated, typically a function of age, earnings over course of employment, and number of years of service the individual has given to the company. (etc. 1% of last year’s salary x number of years of service). Pensions.

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182
Q

What are defined contribution plans?

A

The contribution is defined, but the ultimate benefit is not. Typically relates to savings plans, 401ks, ESPOS, etc.

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183
Q

What is ERISA?

A

Employee Retirement Income Security Act. A federal law. Covers private investment plans. States that it supersedes any and all state laws that relate to any employee benefit plan.

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184
Q

Define financial statement representations…

A

Quantitative or qualitative statements that are included or excluded from an entity’s financial statements that cause the financial statements to portray financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in a manner that is not consistent with the entity’s underlying financial position, results of operations, and cash flow.

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185
Q

What is ordinary negligence?

A

The absence of a reasonable level of care that is expected of persons in similar situations. A transposition error, for example, can lead to ordinary negligence. No intent to decieve.

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186
Q

What is gross negligence?

A

Due professional care was not exercised. Those charged with preparing the financial statements exhibited a reckless disregard for the duty owed to the known users of the financial statements. (Failing to make a material accrual). Didn’t intend to deceive.

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187
Q

What is constructive fraud?

A

Extreme negligence. No intent to deceive.

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188
Q

When does earnings management become fraud?

A

When companies intentionally provide misstated information with the intent to deceive users.

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189
Q

Most common method of financial statement fraud…

A

Improperly recognizing revenue and overstating assets.

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190
Q

Company characteristics that result in red flags for fraud…

A
  1. Complex organizational structure - Generally speaking, the more complex the organizational structure is, the higher susceptibility of financial statement fraud.
  2. Weak governance structure - Whenever you have weak governance or there are weak control processes, the company opens itself up for financials to be misstated.
  3. Complex third-party transactions - The more complex the transactions are, the more likely that hey might not be understood or misrepresented in the financials.
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191
Q

Management and personnel characteristics that result in red flags for fraud…

A
  1. Aggressive management style - High importance on operating targets, a culture of results first and people second. Increases likelihood of aggressive practices and financial fraud.
  2. Inadequate personnel practices.
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192
Q

Accounting anomalies that result in red flags for fraud…

A
  1. Unusual accounting practices - If a practice is not following any type of reporting framework (GAAP, IFRS).
  2. High frequency of financial statement restatements.
  3. Unusual transactions recorded at year end.
  4. Misreported or unrecorded transactions.
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193
Q

Operating anomalies that result in red flags for fraud…

A
  1. Frequent transfers among entity bank accounts - Particularly if the purposes for the transfers are not explained.
  2. Unusual transactions in the records - Off-shore bank accounts for example, especially if unusual for the entity.
  3. Frequent of unusual related party transactions.
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194
Q

Red flags for fraud relating to the financial condition of the organization…

A
  1. Abnormal declines in demand for a company’s products or services.
  2. Any type of worsening company operations or financial conditions (lawsuits against entity, health concerns against products an entity releases).
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195
Q

The most common investigation techniques employed by a forensic accountant when fraud is suspected…

A
  1. Public document reviews & background investigations.
  2. Interviews of knowledgeable persons.
  3. Use of confidential sources.
  4. Analysis of physical and electronic evidence.
  5. Physical and electronic surveillance.
  6. Undercover operations.
  7. Nontraditional analysis of financial transactions.
  8. Ratio analysis.
  9. Vertical & horizontal analysis.
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196
Q

What is the “ex ante” approach in terms of calculating damages?

A

The “ex ante” approach takes damages and discounts them back to the date of the bad act, and then those damages are brought up to the date of trail using a pre-judgment interest rate. This relates to time value of money.

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197
Q

What is the “ex post” approach in terms of calculating damages?

A

Takes past losses and brings them forward to the date of trial using a pre-judgment interest rate, and then projected losses beyond the date of trial are brought back to the date of trial via a present value calculation

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198
Q

What is the “book of wisdom” in terms of calculating damages?

A

A concept introduced by the US Supreme Court. All info that may be available through the present time should be considered when calculating damages. (significant growth in the industry after the date of the bad act).

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199
Q

What are the 4 levels of criteria needing to me bet for a patent holder to establish lost profits in a patent infringement case?

A
  1. Demand existed for the patented product during the period of infringement.
  2. Acceptable non-infringing substitutes were not available to satisfy demand during the period of infringment.
  3. The patent owner possessed the manufacturing and marketing capacity to have supplied the patented product to customers who purchases the infringing product.
  4. The amount of profit the patent holder would have made.
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200
Q

What are purchase price adjustments in terms of mergers and acquisitions?

A

Typically pertain to balance sheet measures. If the acquirer is acquiring things like inventory or working capital or net assets, the M&A agreement may contain a contractually defined purchase amount known as the “peg”. Typically these amounts are defined before the transaction closes, and there are provisions written into merger and acquisition agreements that provide for a true-up post-closing, purchase price adjustments.

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201
Q

What are purchase price adjustments in terms of mergers and acquisitions?

A

Typically pertain to balance sheet measures. If the acquirer is acquiring things like inventory or working capital or net assets, the M&A agreement may contain a contractually defined purchase amount known as the “peg”. Typically these amounts are defined before the transaction closes, and there are provisions written into merger and acquisition agreements that provide for a true-up post-closing, purchase price adjustments.

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202
Q

What are earnout provisions in terms of mergers and acquisitions?

A

A provision that is often used to bridge the gap in value between what the buyer wants to pay and the seller wants to receive. Over a period of time, the seller may be able to receive additional purchase consideration based on the performance of the acquired company post-transaction.

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203
Q

What are material adverse changes in terms of mergers and acquisitions?

A

Clauses incorporated into a M&A agreement that allow for the termination of a merger or acquisition prior to closing in the event that there is a material change to the target’s business operations or assets.

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204
Q

What are the 3 general valuation models?

A
  1. Relative value model.
  2. Absolute value model.
  3. Option pricing model.
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205
Q

What is the relative value model in terms of valuation?

A

Estimates the value of something by observing prices of similar things. Referred to as observational techniques or methods.

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206
Q

What is the absolute value model in terms of valuation?

A

Mathematically calculate the present value of an asset’s expected future cash flows. A stock or a bond that pays interest or dividends over time and there’s a value to can be assigned to that particular security based on the present value of those expected future cash flows coming from the stock or the bond/.

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207
Q

What is the option pricing model in terms of valuation?

A

Complex form of absolute value model that values enterprises still needing substantial development to teach their economic potential. A start-up entity that has one product that is starting to be developed and that may or may not succeed.

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208
Q

What are the 3 general approaches that are applied to actually performing a valuation?

A
  1. Income approach.
  2. Market approach.
  3. Asset approach.
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209
Q

What is the income approach in terms of valuation?

A

Looks at a set of expected cash flows or income out into the future that is discounted to present value and that present value under the income approach represents the value of the asset.

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210
Q

What is the market approach in terms of valuation?

A

Estimates the value of something by observing prices of similar things.

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211
Q

What is the asset approach in terms of valuation?

A

The value of a firm is determined by considered the value of individual assets. They are added to together. To the extent there are liabilities, they are considered. And the net represents the net asset value (firm value).

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212
Q

What is the Capital Asset Pricing Model formula?

A

Ri = Rf + Bi (Rm - Rf)

Ri = Expected equity return of the asset
Rf = Return on a risk free asset (such as a government bond)
Bi = Beta (how a particular security moves in relation to the rest of the market)
Rm = Return on the market portfolio

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213
Q

What is the cost approach in terms in valuation?

A

What did it takes in terms of costs to build up that asset, that is the value. Often used with intangible assets.

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214
Q

What are the 2 typical methods that are applied when performing a valuation using the income approach?

A
  1. Discounted cash flow approach - Looks at the cash flows over a period of time, variability in the cash flows is expected.
  2. Constant growth models - Value is derived using a single period cash flow metric divided by a capitalization rate (discount rate - an expected growth rate). Variability not expected, constant growth is expected.
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215
Q

What are the 2 methods that are used in performing a valuation using the market approach?

A
  1. Guideline public company method - Public companies are identified and the data from those companies is used to derive the pricing multiples that are then brought back to value to subject company.
  2. Guideline company transaction method - Data is typically obtained from databases (which show company transactions) and used to come up with pricing multiples that then can be applied to the subject company.
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216
Q

What is intrinsic value?

A

The value of a company including it’s tangible and intangible assets.

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217
Q

What is the going concern premise of value?

A

Assumes that a firm will continue to operate as a business enterprise. (Won’t file for bankruptcy).

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218
Q

What is the orderly liquidation premise of value?

A

Assumes a firm will no longer operate and will take steps to maximize net proceeds from selling off its assets. Assumes company will go out of business, that it will sell its assets, but it will take whatever time is necessary to expose those assets to the marketplace to achieve the maximum value.

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219
Q

What is the forced liquidation premise of value?

A

Assumes that a firm will no longer operate and that the assets will be sold quickly, even if the proceeds are not maximized. A “fire-sale”.

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220
Q

What are some of the typical assumptions and limiting conditions that are included in a valuation engagement letter, as identified in VS 100?

A
  1. The valuation may only be used for it’s stated purpose. It can’t be used for a different purpose. If it’s for litigation, the client can’t take that valuation and use it for financing purposes.
  2. We as valuation analysts are not auditing the financial information that is provided. We are accepting financial info that is provided to us as is.
  3. We are not providing opinions on the achievability of forecasts. We may get a forecast in a valuation, we may use it and do some procedures to rely on it, but we are not providing an opinion on whether or not it will be achieved.
  4. Environmental obligations.
  5. We are not trying to assess the effects of future possible legislation. (Changes in tax laws etc., that might affect valuation).
  6. We are relying on management’s representations. Similar to us saying we are not auditing the info we were provided.
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221
Q

5 litigation services that can be performed by forensic accountants…

A
  1. Litigation consultant.
  2. Expert witness.
  3. Mediator.
  4. Arbitrator.
  5. Bankruptcy trustee.
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222
Q

2 main differences between expert consultants and expert witnesses…

A
  1. Expert consultants are not subject to discovery and they do not testify in court.
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223
Q

Elements needed to prove professional negligence…

A
  1. There was a duty to exercise professional care.
  2. That duty was breached.
  3. There needs to have been a causal relationship between that breach of duty and whatever the resulting injury may be.
  4. There must be an actual loss or damage.
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224
Q

The 2 options to manage the risk of professional negligence lawsuits…

A
  1. To have professional liability insurance.
  2. Obtain indemnity from the retaining client or attorney (within an engagement letter).
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225
Q

2 types of ADR…

A
  1. Arbitration - Essentially where the neutral third party ultimately makes a decision as a trier of fact on the items in dispute.
  2. Mediation - A negotiation, a little more informal than an arbitration.
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226
Q

Reasons why ADR is advantageous compared to the litigation process…

A
  1. It saves money. Litigation is very expensive.
  2. Stress, anxiety (etc.), that litigation can produce can be minimized by ADR.
  3. The ADR process can help to protect privacy. Litigation in federal and state courts is a public affair.
  4. ADR can build relationships. Litigation can be very destructive and it can turn business partners into enemies, ADR can bring he parties together.
  5. ADR is usually quicker than litigation.
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227
Q

Roles a forensic accountant might play in a divorce proceeding…

A
  1. Identifying evidence. Essentially making requests for information that may assist in the divorce proceeding.
  2. Analyzing the evidence of information that is received.
  3. Serving as a consultant to the attorney who is handling the divorce for one of the parties.
  4. Performing business valuation services. Particularly when there is a business or business interest that is subject to division, a valuation is required.
  5. Performing asset tracing services.
  6. Searching for hidden assets.
  7. Determining Income.
  8. Serving a an expert witness.
  9. Serving as an arbitrator. Some forensic accountants may also act as mediators. Might also be involved in calculating child support payments.
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228
Q

What does a forensic accountant need to consider when presented with an opportunity to work on a divorce engagement?

A
  1. Evaluating whether they have the right expertise to take on the matter. Includes professional competence and whether they can appropriately communicate findings in the matter.
  2. Whether they can uphold integrity and objectivity.
  3. Whether they have sufficient staffing to undertake the project.
  4. Timing. Divorce matters often have deadlines and are subject to court schedules.
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229
Q

How many states in the US are community property states?

A
  1. This means that all assets acquired during marriage are considered marital assets.
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230
Q

Documents and resources for identifying assets…

A

1.Tax returns.
2. Bank and brokerage statements.
3. Credit card statements.
4. Personal financial statements,
5. Loan agreements.
6. Insurance policies.
7. Internet services.
8. Online search firms.

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231
Q

Specific court orders, with respect to retirement plans, that are entered to divide retirement assets (in divorces)…

A
  1. Debt relief orders (DRO).
  2. Qualified domestic relations orders (QDRO). Court order that directs the pension plan to award a portion of a participant’s pension benefits to the employee’s former spouse.
  3. Qualified court order (QCO).
  4. Military order (MO).
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232
Q

2 categories of evidence…

A
  1. Direct - Can be believed without inference.
  2. Circumstantial - Depends on credibility and inferences of witnesses.
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233
Q

3 types of evidence…

A
  1. Testimonial - testimony by a witness who makes assertions, facts.
  2. Real or physical - Real or tangible items that are considered indisputable.
  3. Demonstrative - Tangible evidence that illustrates a matter of significance.
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234
Q

What is needed for evidence to be admissible?

A
  1. It must be relevant. Not unfairly prejudicial.
  2. It must have a proper foundation. It must be reliable, and must have been obtained though a proper chain of custody.
  3. It must be in the proper form. IT needs to be properly authenticated.
  4. No exceptions can apply. Exceptions can include that the evidence is unduly prejudicial, threatens to confuse the jury, causes an unnecessary delay, or wastes time.
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235
Q

Privileges recognized by courts…

A
  1. Attorney-client. The most important for forensic practitioners. U.S. v. Kovel.
  2. Marital. Communications between spouses. A valid marriage must exist at the time.
  3. Physician-patient.
  4. Psychotherapist-patient.
  5. Priest-penitent.
  6. Against self-incrimination. Plead the 5th.
  7. Law enforcement. Informants identity remaining secret.

*Accountant-client privilege is not recognized.

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236
Q

3 court cases that shaped the “Opinions” section of the Federal Rules of Evidence…

A
  1. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals. 1993.
  2. Kumho Tire Co. v. Carmichael. 1999 product liability case. Case rested solely on the opinion of a tire expert. First time an expert’s opinion who was not a scientific expert was considered.
  3. General Electric Co. v. Joiner. 1997 product liability.
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237
Q

What does FRE 901 address?

A

Authentication of evidence. Before a doc can be admitted into evidence, it must be found to be authentic, substantially in the same condition it was when it was found. In the case of a written statement’ “Did you write this, did you sign this?”

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238
Q

Best evidence rule (FRE 1001 - 1008)…

A

In fraud cases, original documents (best evidence) must be presented if it is claimed they were forged or altered.

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239
Q

6 types of bankruptcy proceedings under Title 11…

A
  1. Chapter 7 - Individuals and businesses. Provides for complete liquidation of all debtor’s assets and complete elimination of all of the debtor’s obligations.
  2. Chapter 9 - Municipalities. Cities, towns going bankrupt.
  3. Chapter 11 - Businesses and some individuals. Not the same as Ch.7, it’s not a complete discharge of all debts, the court rather focuses on payment plans to satisfy creditors.
  4. Chapter 12 - Farming and Fishing Businesses.
  5. Chapter 13 - Individuals with above - average income. “Means-tested” income. Also different from Ch. 7. The court may discharge some of the debts and create a payment plan for the rest.
  6. Chapter 15 - Foreign parties. A party to the bankruptcy proceeding is located outside of the United States but they obtain access to the U.S. courts.
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240
Q

Walk through the steps in the bankruptcy process…

A
  1. Initial filing.
  2. A trustee is appointed to oversee the case.
  3. The trustee will then convene a meeting of the creditors. In that meeting, claims by the creditors are brought forward.
  4. Liquidation of debts and payment plan is developed.
  5. Ultimately when the bankruptcy is resolved there will be a full or partial discharge of the debts (depending on the type of bankruptcy proceeding).
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241
Q

General types of bankruptcy fraud…

A
  1. Concealment of assets.
  2. Fraudulent Conveyances.
  3. Petition mills.
  4. Multiple filing schemes.
  5. Bust-outs and Bleed-outs.
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242
Q

What are the common characteristics of bust-out and bleed-out schemes?

A

Both schemes involve setting up a company, collecting money from customers, not paying vendors, and then filing for bankruptcy.

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243
Q

What are bust-out schemes?

A

Typically involve companies that are very short-lived. The comp may be established following a suspicious buyout where someone buys all or some of a particular company. They are often premised on financial statement fraud being presented to vendors to obtain credit. Could have fictitious credit references. Usually very low or no A/R, similarly, low inventories, because the central feature of the bust-out is using credit that’s obtained to buy inventory, and then sell the inventory at a very significant discount, then leave the vendor’s without payment. Bust-outs typically rely on part-time employees and might have a history of business failures.

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244
Q

What are bleed-out schemes?

A

Takes longer than bust-out schemes. A new parallel company is established, usually via a leveraged buyout (a recent change in ownership). Pension funds will be depleted. Repayment of loans to investors takes priority over the payment of loans to other creditors. There can be changes in the cash-flow patterns as well as changes in the payment patterns.

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245
Q

What is Rule 2004 of the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure?

A

States that the court may order the examination of any entity (does not need to be a debtor or a creditor in the bankruptcy proceeding), also provides that an attorney with an interest in the case can issue subpoenas.

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246
Q

What are the 3 main types of occupational fraud?

A

Also known as internal fraud or employee fraud.

3 main types:

  1. Corruption. Employee commits acts that are not in the best interest of the organization because of some type of influence that affects the employee’s conduct (a purchaser might purchase goods from a friend or family at a premium, because of influence from that relative).
  2. Asset misappropriation. The improper conversion of an asset for personal use. Does not require that an employee actually steals an asset, might just borrow or misuse it for personal reasons. Cash is subject to the highest risk of misappropriation, since it can be easily converted to other assets. The 2 most common types of misappropriation are skimming or revenue receipts and fraudulent disbursements.
  3. Fraudulent financial statements. Revenue recognition fraud is the most common type.
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247
Q

The fraud triangle…

A
  1. Opportunity. Weak internal controls, or a lack of oversight of supervision by management, provide an opportunity to perpetuate a fraud.
  2. Rationalization. The justification by the individual for their fraudulent actions. “I’m only borrowing the asset”, “I haven’t received a raise”, “It’s not a lot of money”.
  3. Pressure. Exists when an employee has significant financial problems.
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248
Q

Types of employee corruption schemes…

A
  1. Bribery. The offering, giving, receiving, or soliciting, any item of value, to influence an other person or official.
  2. Bid rigging. The manipulation of a bidding process so that the outcome / reward is secretly predetermined, closely related to kickbacks. Bid suppression, rewarding someone for not bidding. Complementary bidding, rewarding bidders for entering fake bids that will clearly be rejected.
  3. Kickbacks. A form of negotiated bribery, a commission is paid to the bribe taker in exchange for services rendered or some type of business advantage provided.
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249
Q

Types of asset misappropriation schemes related to the revenue cycle…

A
  1. Sales skimming schemes. The theft of cash from a company before it’s recorded on the books. (stealing cash at time of sale and not recording the sale).
  2. Cash transmission schemes. Theft of funds while in transit (from one individual to the next or while on it’s way to the bank).
  3. Accounts receivable fraud. Lapping is the most common. Fraudster steals an income payment on account, then a second customer’s payment is stolen to cover the first customer’s balance, and so on.
  4. Improper credits to customer accounts. Credit is granted to unqualified customers due to improper influence.
  5. Improper write offs. Fraudster executes write off without authorization or forges an authorization.
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250
Q

Types of asset misappropriation schemes related to the expenditure cycle…

A
  1. Improper purchases. The purchase is not made in accordance with company polices and procedures (collusion, override of controls, etc.).
  2. Misappropriation of petty cash.
  3. Abuse of company credit cards and expense accounts.
  4. Unauthorized payments.
  5. Theft of company checks.
  6. Payroll fraud. Improper hiring, improper changes to personnel files (resulting in unauthorized pay raises or benefits), improper reporting of company activities.
  7. Production cycle frauds. Inventory-related, employees might be able to steal raw materials.
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251
Q

Types of asset misappropriation schemes related to the expenditure cycle…

A
  1. Improper purchases. The purchase is not made in accordance with company polices and procedures (collusion, override of controls, etc.).
  2. Misappropriation of petty cash.
  3. Abuse of company credit cards and expense accounts.
  4. Unauthorized payments.
  5. Theft of company checks.
  6. Payroll fraud. Improper hiring, improper changes to personnel files (resulting in unauthorized pay raises or benefits), improper reporting of company activities.
  7. Production cycle frauds. Inventory-related, employees might be able to steal raw materials.
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252
Q

Common types of vendor fraud…

A
  1. Short shipments. Shipping incomplete orders but billing as it it’s complete.
  2. Balance billing. Vendor bills company for balance on account rather than invoice for specific items.
  3. Fraudulent cost-plus billing. Change orders. Adding on to an agreed upon price for services.
  4. Supplying substandard goods.
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253
Q

How many cases of identity fraud occur in the United States each year?

A

Over 15 million.

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254
Q

Job positions in an identity theft ring…

A
  1. The procurer. Purchases identity info or obtains info from hacking or phishing schemes.
  2. The document forger. Specialized in check washing and making false ID cards.
  3. Sales manager. May sell some or all of the stolen ID info.
  4. The shopper. The one who goes out and passes stolen checks and uses fake or stolen credit cards.
  5. The money launderer. Puts the groups money into the financial system.
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255
Q

What is money laundering?

A

Process of placing illegally obtained funds into the financial system by making the funds appear to come from a legitimate source. The goal of money laundered is to make it appear as though the funds have come from legitimate sources.

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256
Q

3 steps of the money laundering process…

A
  1. Placement. Depositing the funds into a financial institution. Smurfing is common, breaking large deposits of money into smaller increments lower that $10,000 each.
  2. Layering. Moving money to disguise the initial deposit.
  3. Integration. Making the funds available for use. Off-shore accounts often used.
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257
Q

2 main types of services a forensic accounting performs…

A
  1. Investigative Services.
  2. Litigation Services.
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258
Q

3 sub-units of the types of litigation services a forensic accountant performs…

A
  1. Expert Witness. Rendering an opinion before a trier of fact based on the member’s expertise rather than his or her knowledge of the facts or events.
  2. Litigation Consultant. Provides advice about the facts, issues, and strategy of the matter but does not testify before a trier of fact.
  3. Other. Serves as a trier of fact or an expert.
    a. Arbitrator.
    b. Mediator.
    c. Bankruptcy Trustee.
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259
Q

Examples of services or engagements a forensic might undertake…

A
  1. Computation of economic damages.
  2. Punitive damage studies.
  3. Professional standards analysis.
  4. Valuation of businesses, pensions, and intangibles.
  5. Fraud prevention, detection, and investigation.
  6. Bankruptcy consultant, trustee, and examiner.
  7. Tax analysis.
  8. Marital dissolution assessment and analysis.
  9. Contract cost and claims analysis.
  10. Historical results analysis.
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260
Q

What are some of the common components of an engagement letter?

A
  1. Introductory information - Basic facts of engagement.
  2. Description of services - What will be done.
  3. Scope of services - How we are going to do the job.
  4. Conflicts of interest - Stating which conflicts exist if any, or stating that no conflicts exist.
  5. Rights and duties - Establishing rules and responsibilities.
  6. Termination or expiration provision - Issuance of a report.
  7. Privacy, confidentiality, ownership - What type of communication is preferred.
  8. Dispute resolution - ADR or litigation.
  9. Choice of law provision - Which body governs the engagement.
  10. Limitations of liability and damages.
  11. Fees - How the fees will be structured.
  12. Other - Timeline, staff to be used.

Not all of these need to be included in each engagement letter. These are essentially template items.

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261
Q

What are some of the ways a forensic accountant may be subject to abuse or unreasonable demands?

A
  1. Uncompensated use of the expert’s name and reputation - Issue a report for financial statement purposes only, and then it gets used for litigation, with your name on it.
  2. Preliminary opinions without being retained.
  3. Stealing the expert’s opinion.
  4. “Conflicting out” the expert - One party retains experts so that another party can’t retain them.
  5. Late payments and non-payments.
  6. Attempting to shape the expert’s opinion or testimony - Attorney might want you to analyze something a certain way or make assumptions without a reasonable basis.
  7. Withholding information from the expert.
  8. Rush cases - Lawyers may overstate the info that is available and understate the amount of time allowed, causing the expert to rush, leading to errors or flawed wording / theories.
  9. Harassments at depositions.
  10. Pressure to act in unethical ways - WIthholding info from the other party.
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262
Q

Distinction between earnings management and fraud…

A

Not only is a certain amount of earnings management allowed, it is even expected by the marked given the desirability of management to make it’s company appear as financially profitable as possible. Reporting frameworks such as GAAP, allow for choices in the application of accounting practices, allowing management the ability to select from various methods when computing earnings. Management can manage earnings by timing business activities or recording business activities selectively, and still be in compliance with their reporting framework. Earnings management becomes fraud when companies intentionally provide misstated info with the intent to deceive users.

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263
Q

Methods to commit financial statement fraud - Improper revenue recognition…

A
  1. Sham sales. Seem as if they occurred, but have not met the revenue recognition criteria. Sometimes, no sale at all. Sometimes an arrangement between the buyer and seller to return the items after the balance sheet date.
  2. Premature revenue recognition.
  3. Improper cutoff of sales. Holding books open so the following year’s sales can be recorded in the current year. Sales did exist, just reported incorrectly.
  4. Recognition of conditional sales. Common on sales when a customer pays in installments. Profit is supposed to be recognized as the payments come in.
  5. Misstatement of percentage-of-completion contracts. Percentage of completion method requires several estimates, opening up the potential for fraud.
  6. Chanel stuffing. Involves making unauthorized shipments. A company will ship more productions than their distribution channel permits, typically more goods than the customer ordered. The reason is to increase sales and A/R. Can also occur by shipping defective or partially completed merchandise, but billing for the full product.
  7. Consignment sales. Product is owned by consignee and sold by consignor. Fraud occurs when consignor records revenue when goods are shipped to consignee before the goods are sold.
  8. Bill-and-hold sales. Sales which are billed, but goods have not been shipped to the buyer.
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264
Q

Methods to commit financial statement fraud - Asset misstatement…

A
  1. Commonly misstated assets.
    a. A/R due to fictitious sales or re-dating (extending due date).
    b. Inventory.
    c. Property, plant , and equipment accounts. Capitalizing amounts that should be
    expenses (repair and maintenance, research and development)
  2. Embezzlement or misappropriation of assets can lead to asset overstatements.
  3. Kiting and lapping can lead to overstatements on financial statements. in kiting, the
    suspect writes a check on a bank account, with not enough funds in the account the
    honor the check, next the suspect deposits the check into another bank account, the
    bank realizes, the suspect has stolen the funds.
  4. Ponzi schemes create fictitious assets. Taking money from investors, and using funds
    for alternative purposes, more investors then begin investing.
  5. Assets can be misstates by understating their bases. Often the case for good will and
    depreciable assets.
  6. In divorces, assets may be purposely understated.
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265
Q

Methods to commit financial statement fraud - Misstatement of expenses and liabilities…

A
  1. Understatement of expense often occurs at the end of an accounting period.
  2. 3 basic approached to understating expenses.
    a. Failure to record accrued expenses. Likely lawsuits, etc.
    b. Misclassification of expenses as assets. Often an area where judgment is involved.
    c. Undervaluation of expenses.
  3. Liabilities can be overstated when companies establish cookie jar reserves. Recording
    contingent liabilities that aren’t real, therefore, the company can book revenue in a
    subsequent period when the write off the contingency.
  4. Other methods to commit fraud include off-the-book arrangements and
    inappropriate financial presentation. Enron, off balance sheet financing.
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266
Q

Red flags of financial statement fraud relating to company characteristics…

A
  1. Complex organizational structure.
  2. Weak governance structure.
  3. Weak internal control processes.
  4. Complex third-parts transactions.
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267
Q

Red flags of financial statement fraud relating to management and personnel…

A
  1. Aggressive management style.
  2. High dependence on operating performance.
  3. Inadequate personnel practices.
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268
Q

Red flags of financial statement fraud relating to accounting anomalies…

A
  1. Unusual accounting practices.
  2. High frequency of financial statement restatements.
  3. Unusual transactions recorded at year-end.
  4. Misreported or unrecorded transactions.
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269
Q

Red flags of financial statement fraud relating to operating anomalies…

A
  1. Frequent transfers among entity bank accounts.
  2. Unusual transactions in records.
  3. Unusual transfers to offshore banks.
  4. Frequent or unusual related-arty transactions.
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270
Q

Red flags of financial statement fraud relating to a company’s financial condition…

A
  1. Weak (or weakening) financial condition.
  2. Worsening company operations.
  3. Worsening industry and conditions.
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271
Q

6 pillars of corporate governance…

A
  1. Board of directors - Highest level of management. Responsible for establishing broad corporate polices and objectives. Includes inside directors as well as outsiders. Usually about 9 members.
  2. Audit committee - Sub-group of the board charged with overseeing financial reporting and disclosure, including appropriateness of accounting policies. Must be independent outside directors and at least one member must be a financial expert (such as a CPA).
  3. Internal auditor - Examines financial position and results of operations of the comp. Internal to the organization.
  4. CEO and CFO - Ability to set tone at the top relating to fair presentation of financial statements. Required under sarbanes oxley to file reports with the SEC certifying that the financials are fairly presented.
  5. External auditor - Serves as a preventive and detective method of preventing fraud. Required to brainstorm how fraud could be committed and how internal controls could allow for it to happen. Audit is then planned and performed with these concerns in mind.
  6. Public oversight orgs - SEC, PCAOB, GASB, etc. Protects the public.
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272
Q

Investigation techniques utilized by a forensic accountant…

A
  1. Public document reviews and background investigations. May be used to discover insider trading activities, related-party transactions, or businesses owned by the subject of the investigation that should be looked in to.
  2. Interviews of knowledgeable persons.
  3. Use of confidential sources.
  4. Analysis of physical and electronic evidence.
  5. Physical and electronic surveillance.
  6. Undercovers operations. Usually done by law enforcement, not the forensic accountant. But the forensic accountant can recommend the client use this technique.
  7. Nontraditional analysis of financial transactions. Round dollar entries, cut-off procedures, reversals / restatements, ratios.
  8. Ratio analysis.
  9. Vertical and horizontal analysis.
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273
Q

2 forms of dispute resolution…

A
  1. Civil resolution (court).
  2. Alternative dispute resolution.
    a. Negotiation.
    b. Arbitration.
    c. Mediator.
    d. Other.
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274
Q

Steps in civil trials…

A
  1. Filing of a complaint. Pleadings, etc.
  2. Serving defendant(s).
  3. Scheduling conference.
  4. Discovery and investigation. Exchange of info between parties.
  5. Pre-trial motions.
  6. Settlement of pre-trial conference.
  7. Trial.
  8. Post-trial motions.
  9. Appeal.
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275
Q

What is meant by joinder of claims?

A

A litigant asserting a claim for relief may join as many claims as she or he has against an adversary, regardless of subject matter. Multiple parties can be brought in to ensure a complete result in the case.

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276
Q

When is a compulsory joinder of claims required?

A

For any person who has a material interest in the case if in his or her absence, complete relief cannot be accorded, or his or her interest is such that proceeding without him or her would be prejudicial.

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277
Q

What is permissive joinder of claims?

A

Applies to parties who may be joined when they are considered to be proper parties.

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278
Q

What is impleader joinder of claims?

A

A special type of joinder for which a defendant can bring in a 3rd party who may be liable for the plaintiff’s claim.

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279
Q

Important motions in civil trials…

A
  1. Motion to dismiss.
    a. Lack of jurisdiction over subject matter or person.
    b. Improper venue.
    c. Insufficiency of process or service of process.
    d. Failure to state a claim upon which relief may be granted.
    e. Failure to join a necessary party.
  2. Motion for judgment on pleadings. Where the parties would say that the complaint, or the response to the complaint (counter-claim), that the court should make a judgment simply based on the pleadings.
  3. Motion for summary judgment. Asks court to dismiss simply on everything that has been argued to that point in time.
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280
Q

Remedies available in civil trials…

A
  1. Legal remedies.
    a. Monetary damages. When calculating lost profits, for example, we are addressing
    the concept of monetary damages.
  2. Equitable remedies.
    a. Injunctions such as restraining orders.
    b. Orders for specific performance.
  3. Tort remedies. Non-contract matters (personal injury claims)..
    a. Compensatory damages.
    b. Nominal damages.
    c. Punitive damages. Amount added over and above compensatory damages, to
    punish the wrong-doer.
  4. Provisional remedies under FRCP 64 (Federal Rules of Civil Procedure).
    a. Attachment.
    b. Garnishment.
    c. Replevin.
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281
Q

What is an injunction?

A

A judicial order that restrains from beginning or continuing an action, or that compels a person to carry out a certain act.

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282
Q

Steps in criminal proceedings…

A
  1. Arrest or summons issued. (In place of a complaint in civil proceedings).
  2. First appearance.
  3. Preliminary hearing.
  4. Filing of information or grand jury indictment.
  5. Discovery and pre-trial motions. (Exchange of info / evidence between parties).
  6. Trial.
  7. Sentencing.
  8. Post-conviction remedies. (Appeals).
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283
Q

Digital Forensics can be broken down into 2 main sub-units, what are they?

A
  1. Computer Forensics - Focuses on obtaining evidence from computers.
  2. Network Forensics - Focuses on obtaining evidence from computer and storage networks.
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284
Q

In a digital forensics environment, the investigator must be concerned with what main issues?

A
  1. Protecting the crime scene and evidence from alteration.
  2. Deciding what evidence to collect.
  3. Storing and cataloging evidence collected.
  4. Maintaining a secure and documented chain of custody.
  5. Interacting with other investigators on the scene.
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285
Q

What are the phases of the digital forensic process?

A
  1. Assess
    a. Seriousness.
    b. Urgency.
    c. Sophistication.
    d. Whether to power down the device.
  2. Collect
    a. Secure and document the site.
    b. Log evidence (relevant serial numbers).
    c. Secure evidence bags.
    d. Take photographs.
  3. Examination
    a. Encrypted vs non-encrypted devices.
    b. Looking for countermeasures.
    c. Securing a forensic image (bit-by-bit image: original copy, client copy, counsel copy,
    working copy).
  4. Analysis
    a. Booting a disk copy vs mounting a disk copy.
    b. Examine system log files.
    c. Using indexing to locate keywords.
    d. Recover deleted files.
  5. Reporting
    a. Factual summary of activities and steps taken.
    b. Evidences maintenance of chain-of-custody.
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286
Q

What are some of the general features of computer forensics software?

A
  1. Ability to make an image of a target computer. Not the same as a copy and paste. A
    forensic image is preserving the inherent metadata (info housed within the file) of the
    file. Goal is to be able to authenticate the data and render it admissible in court.
  2. Recover passwords.
  3. Recover deleted files.
  4. Recover data from slack space.
  5. Analyze hidden contents, metadata, logs, and email headers. (Not accessible from
    normal computers).
  6. Analyze unallocated storage space.
  7. Index large numbers of files.
  8. Connect to databases and accounting systems.
  9. Log examiner activities and create reports.
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287
Q

What are the general types of Computer-assisted audit techniques (CAAT)?

A
  1. Data analysis software. Most used by auditors. Can create test data to test controls.
  2. Network security evaluations software.
  3. Operating system and database system evaluation software.
  4. Software-testing tools.
288
Q

What are some of the most common functions of Computer-assisted audit techniques?

A
  1. Sample extractions.
  2. Sophisticated data queries.
  3. Completion checks.
  4. Duplicate checks.
  5. Missing sequence identification.
  6. Reasonableness checks.
    7.Statistical analysis and calculations.
  7. Test application and logic controls.
289
Q

What are some alternative sources for data recovery regarding network forensic analysis?

A
  1. Consider backup drives. If the organization’s servers are not cloud-based, they must exist somewhere in a physical form, and likely, those servers have a back-up source for disaster recovery purposes.
  2. Cloud drives.
  3. Email messages.
  4. Printouts.
290
Q

What is IAFIS?

A

Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System. Managed by the FBI. Uses include; some employment checks, many criminal investigations, some firearm purchases.

291
Q

What is FINCEN?

A

Financial Crimes Enforcement Network. Focuses on money laundering and related crimes including terrorism and narcotics. Receives Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) from banks and other FIs.

292
Q

What is NLETS?

A

National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System. Criminal Justice Network connecting 50 states and federal agencies.

293
Q

What is NCIC?

A

National Crime Information Center. Managed by the FBI. Provides real time searches of theft reports, warrants fugitives, etc.

294
Q

When is guidance considered to be authoritative?

A

Guidance is authoritative if issued only after following a process that includes deliberation in meetings open to the public, public exposure of proposed statements, and a formal vote by the appropriate body designated by the AICPA to issue such guidance.

295
Q

What is the function of the Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee?

A

Has been granted the authority by the AICPA to issue guidance and profession standards for forensic and valuation series?

296
Q

4 main sections of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct…

A
  1. Preface.
  2. Members in Public Practice.
  3. Member in Business.
  4. Other Members
297
Q

What main section of the Code of Professional Conduct applies to most services a CPA performs, but does not necessarily apply in a forensic accounting engagement?

A

Independence.

298
Q

When a forensic accountant is contacted to perform an engagement, what is the first thing they need to do?

A

Perform a conflict of interest check.

299
Q

If the AICPA’s Professional Ethics Executive Committee (PEEC) determines that a violation of the code has occurred by a member, what are some potential courses of action they will take?

A
  1. Offer a public settlement to the member.
  2. Issue a confidential letter of corrective action.
  3. Present the case before the Joint Trial Board.
300
Q

What does Statement on Standards for Forensic Services No. 1 (SSFS 1) apply to?

A

AICPA members who provide services to a client as part of a litigation or investigation engagement.

301
Q

Who must follow Valuation Services (VS) section 100, Valuation of a Business, Business Ownership Interest, Security, or Intangible Asset (AICPA Professional Standards)?

A

All AICPA members who perform valuation services, litigation services, personal financial planning, tax, or accounting engagements.

302
Q

2 types of engagements, specifically identified by SSFS 1…

A
  1. Litigation engagements - An actual or potential legal or regulatory proceeding before a trier of fact or regulatory body where we as forensic accountants are retained as an expert witness, consultant, natural, mediator, or arbitrator in connection with a dispute between parties. (Not limited to formal litigation, ADR as well).
  2. Investigation engagements - A matter conducted in response to specific concerns of wrongdoing in which the member is engaged to perform procedures to collect, analyze, evaluate, or interpret certain evidential matter to assist stakeholders (the client) in reaching on the conclusion on the merits of the concerns.
303
Q

When does VS section 100 apply to an engagement?

A

When the engagement involves estimating the value of a subject interest including a business or business ownership interest, a security, or an intangible asset.

304
Q

Some examples of non-authoritative guidance…

A
  1. Practice aids.
  2. Special reports.
  3. White papers.
  4. Other aids and publications.
305
Q

Some examples of non-authoritative guidance…

A
  1. Practice aids.
  2. Special reports.
  3. White papers.
  4. Other aids and publications.

These do not represent official pronouncements by the AICPA, they don’t follow the formal approval process as required for authoritative guidance.

306
Q

2 most common forms of AICPA authoritative guidance relating to forensic accounting services…

A
  1. SSFS 1.
  2. VS Section 100.
307
Q

What type of valuation model does the income approach fall under?

A

Absolute value model. This is because it applies mathematical techniques and calculations to deriving the ultimate value. This is done through the analysis of cash flows, particularly the timing of those cash flows, as well as the analysis of the required rate of return that evaluates the risk and uncertainty that goes with those particular cash flows.

308
Q

What type of valuation model does the asset approach fall under?

A

Both the absolute value model and relative value model. This is because of the fact that the asset approach required a restatement of each asset on the balance sheet. The restatement of a particular asset, such as an intangible would require the use of an income approach (an absolute value approach) (looking at the cash flows that might be generated by that asset). However, there are other assets, such as machinery and equipment, which would require a market approach. An appraiser might be hired to assess the value of the machinery based on other similar assets in the market, which is the application of an observational or relative value model approach.

309
Q

What type of valuation model does the market approach fall under?

A

Relative value model. Value is calculated by assessing comparable assets.

310
Q

What are the 2 common methodologies in applying the income valuation approach?

A
  1. Discounted cash flow approach. Looks at the cash flows over a period of time, expectation is that there will be variability in the cash flows.
  2. Constant growth models. Under these models, the way that the value is derived is using a single period cash flow metric divided by a capitalization rate.

There are hybrid models that might also be used (A discrete discounted cash flow period and then a constant growth out into the future).

311
Q

What does VS section 100 call the discounted cash flow model?

A

The discounted future benefits method.

312
Q

What does VS section 100 call constant growth models?

A

The capitalization of benefits method.

313
Q

How is the market approach of valuation typically applied?

A

One will go out and look at transactions, and gets price multiples (maybe a price to earnings multiple or a price to EBITDA metric), that can ultimately be used to calculate the value of the subject interest.

314
Q

What are the 2 methods that are used, as set forth in VS section 100, in applying the market approach to valuation?

A
  1. The guideline public company method. Public companies are identified, and the data from those public companies is used to derive the pricing multiples that are then brought back to value the subject interest.
  2. The guideline company transaction method. Company transaction data is typically obtained from databases, this data is then used to come up with pricing multiples which are then applied to value the particular entity.

The key / challenge is to ensure that the comparable companies or transactions are truly comparable.

315
Q

How is that asset approach to valuation applied?

A

Each asset on the balance sheet is identified and valued separately. Value may be derived using either an absolute or relative value model.

316
Q

What does VS section 100 call the asset approach?

A

The adjusted net method.

317
Q

What is meant by “Standard of Value”?

A

The identified value that is going to be used for a particular value.

318
Q

Define “Fair Market Value”.

A

The price, expressed in terms of cash equivalents (no other assets), at which property would change hands between a hypothetical willing and able buyer and able seller, acting at arms length in an open and unrestricted market, when neither is under compulsion to buy or sell and when both have reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts.

This is the standard of value that is used for taxation in the US. Often used in shareholder / partnership buyout agreements as well.

319
Q

Define “Investment Value”.

A

The value to a particular investor based on individual investment requirements and expectations.

Doesn’t consider any hypothetical scenarios, as does the definition of fair market value, this standard of value is looking at an actual investor’s requirements and expectations.

320
Q

Define “Fair Value”.

A

The price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date.

321
Q

Define “Intrinsic Value”.

A

The value that is perceived or calculated for a company, including both it’s tangible and intangible assets. Typically not used in litigation matters or in financial statement valuation.

322
Q

What are some of the common “Standards of Value”?

A
  1. Fair Market Value.
  2. Investment Value.
  3. Fair Value.
  4. Intrinsic Value.
323
Q

Describe the “Going Concern” premise of value.

A

Assumes a firm will continue to operate as a business enterprise out into the future. Won’t file for bankruptcy or other transaction that will cause the firm to go out of business.

324
Q

Describe the “Orderly Liquidation” premise of value.

A

Assumes a firm will no longer operate and will maximize net proceeds from selling off its assets. Assumes comp goes out of business, will sell at it’s assets, and will take steps to achieve the maximum value for the assets.

325
Q

Describe the “Forced Liquidation” premise of value.

A

Assumes a firm will no longer operate and assets must be sold quickly, even if net proceeds are not maximized. Fire-sale of company assets, will accept whatever they can.

326
Q

What are some of the common “Premises of Value”?

A
  1. Going Concern.
  2. Orderly Liquidation.
  3. Forced Liquidation.
327
Q

What does VS 100 say, with regard to a valuation report, needs to be listed out in the report, at a minimum?

A
  1. The identity of the client. Who is the client that retained us and for whom the valuation is being performed.
  2. The purpose and the intended use of the valuation.
  3. Who the intended users of the valuation are. Beyond just who the client is.
  4. Who is the subject entity, the entity being subject to valuation.
  5. Who is the subject interest Which means the ownership interest subject to valuation (we are valuing a 25% ownership interest in XYZ Company).
  6. The ownership control characteristics of the subject entity.
  7. The degree of marketability that goes with the subject interest.
  8. The valuation date. Can be different than the report date.
  9. Whether it is a summary report or a detailed report.
  10. The applicable premise of value. (Going concern, orderly liquidation, forced liquidation).
  11. The applicable standard of value (FMV, Fair Val, investment value, etc.).
  12. The sources of information that were used in the valuation.
  13. Any assumptions and limiting conditions that go with the valuation.
  14. The score of the work that was performed and the data that was available (including any restrictions and limitations with respect to the use of that data).
  15. Hypothetical conditions that were used in the valuation.
  16. If the work of a specialist (real estate appraiser, actuary for pensions, etc.) was used in the valuation, and how this work was used.
  17. The valuation approaches and methods that were used.
  18. Any subsequent events.
  19. Any jurisdictional exceptions.
  20. Representations of the valuation analyst.
  21. Signature of preparer.
  22. Reconciliation of how the valuation might be different under a different valuation approach (income, cost, market, etc.).
  23. A statement that the valuation analyst has no obligation to update the report / calculation of value for subsequent info coming to their attention after the date of the report.
328
Q

Under VS 100, what are some unique items relating to valuation engagements that need to be included in engagement letters for valuation assignments?

A
  1. Identification of the asset being valued.
  2. The valuation date. Can be different than the report date.
  3. The standard of value that will be used.
  4. The premise of value that will be used.
  5. The intended purpose of the valuation.
329
Q

What are assumptions and limiting conditions with respect to a valuation engagement (VS Section 100)?

A

The parameters and boundaries under which a valuation is performed. Need to be disclosed in the report as well as the engagement letter. Some typical ones would be…

a. The valuation may only be used for it’s stated purpose. Can’t be used for a different purpose. If it’s for an litigation matter, the client can’t use it for financing purposes.
b. Statement that we are not auditing the financial information provided, we are accepting the info we are provided with and using it.
c. Provision that we are not providing an opinion on the achievability of forecast. We ay use forecasts or projections in our engagement, but not providing any opinion on achievability.
d. Provisions regarding environmental obligations and liabilities.
e. Provision saying we are not trying to assess the possible affects of future legislation. (Tax laws, etc., that will affect valuation), we are not trying to forecast any legislation changes, positive or negative.
f. We are relying on representations that we received from management, again, we are not auditing the info we are provided.

330
Q

What are hypothetical conditions with respect to valuation engagements (VS Section 100)?

A

Assumptions that are made for the purpose of a valuation analysis that may be contrary to actual conditions. Such as a situation where we are doing a valuation on the context of a potential acquisition, we may have a hypothetical condition where estimate the value based on the effects of things that are not in existence.

331
Q

What is the role of the board of directors with respect to fraud risk management?

A

Setting the tone at the top. Specifically implementing a business ethics program, understanding fraud risks, maintaining oversight if fraud risk assessment, monitoring management fraud and related activities, overseeing internal controls established by management, having the ability to retain experts, providing to external auditors evidence of their active involvement.

332
Q

Who does the board of directors typically delegate principal oversight for fraud and misconduct management to?

A

The audit committee (or sometimes a risk committee or governance committee). The audit committee should be composed of independent board members and include at least one financial expert. Should meet regularly alone with the internal auditor without the presence of management. Must be proactive in overseeing fraud risk mananegment and should have an open dialogue with the external auditor.

333
Q

4 steps in the fraud risk assessment process…

A
  1. Identify risk. Includes consideration of the nature of the business (cash-intensive), as well as the environment the business operates in (foreign country), also consider known effectiveness of existing internal controls.
  2. Address likelihood of each risk. Evaluating the potential damage each risk could cause as well as the likelihood of each risk happening. Also consider the potential loss exposure, and a cost-benefit analysis, might not be worth it financially to implement a control.
  3. Respond to likely risks. Plan of attack, usually based on likelihood of risks and loss exposure.
  4. Document and discuss findings.
334
Q

First line of defense in minimizing fraud…

A

Having an effective fraud detection system in place.

335
Q

What are some of the most common ways that fraud is detected?

A
  1. By tip lines. Most common way fraud is detected. Mandated by Sarbanes Oxley.
  2. By accident.
  3. By external auditors.
  4. By internal auditors or inspector generals.
  5. By dedicated departments.
336
Q

Steps in the fraud investigation process…

A
  1. Develop an investigation plan based on board-approved investigation protocols.
  2. Assemble an investigation team (with members from various departments).
  3. Refer the case to outside investigators, as appropriate.
  4. Collect evidence. (Review of internal records coupled with reviews of external records first, then interview individuals relevant to the investigation second).
  5. Report results.
  6. Take corrective action.
337
Q

What are some objectives of a fraud investigation?

A
  1. Stopping an ongoing fraud.
  2. Providing support for an insurance claim.
  3. Documenting a tax loss.
  4. Deterring future frauds.
  5. Controlling embarrassing reports in the media.
  6. Discovering and impairing internal control weaknesses.
  7. Punishing the guilty and obtaining restitution.
338
Q

Steps in the fraud theory approach…

A
  1. Data. As data is gathered, the theory is formed. The theory often includes who was involved, why did they do it, when did it happen, how did they do it.
  2. Develop the theory and hypothesis regarding fraud. Should consider is this point, does the data I have gathered support the hypothesis? If not, go back and reconsider theory.
339
Q

What are the 3 categories of evidence?

A
  1. Testimonial. Testimony by a witness who makes assertions; facts.
  2. Real or Physical. Real or tangible items that are considered indisputable.
  3. Demonstrative. Tangible evidence that illustrates a matter of significance.
340
Q

Important considerations that must be considered when gathering physical evidence…

A
  1. Protect evidence from loss or damage. If the evidence is electronic, anti-static bags are recommended to protect from data loss.
  2. Collect and inventory. Preferably using serial numbering.
  3. Maintain chain of custody.
341
Q

Important considerations that must be considered when gathering documentary evidence…

A
  1. Can be paper or electronic.
  2. Must be catalogued, typically by using Bates numbers.
  3. Comes from 4 general sources.
    a. Public domain (from public sources, such as social media or public records) or
    trash.
    b. Released by consent. Tax Returns for example.
    c. Obtained by subpoena or duces tecum.
    d. Obtained by search warrant. Only applies in criminal cases in the US. (In Canada, it
    can apply to civil cases).
342
Q

Describe introductory questions in interviewing…

A

Very basic questions intended to build a rapport and establish the purpose of the interview. Good opportunity to obeserve the interviewee’s responses to basic questions, gives a baseline to compare the interviewee’s responses to later questions.

343
Q

What is the purpose of assessment questions in interviewing…

A

To determine whether the subject shows deception and assess their honesty. The insured’s responses are compared to earlier non-stressful questions.

344
Q

If a subject shows deception when asked an assessment question, what is the next step for the interviewer?

A

Move on to admission seeking questions, to try to get a confession.

345
Q

Describe information questions in interviewing…

A

Non-confrontational questions. Used to gather information relevant to the investigation. Want to avoid complex questions.

346
Q

Describe admission-seeking questions in interviewing…

A

Given only to suspects who show deception in the assessment questions. The aim is to identify the interviewee’s knowledge or involvement in an alleged incident or scheme. “I have solid evidence that you are guilty of this”. Important to note that a confession must be made freely and not under duress.

347
Q

Describe concluding or closing questions in interviewing…

A

Given to suspects who show no signs of deception in assessment questions, and to non-suspects. Goal is to wrap up the interview, obtain any additional info that may be gained, and to gain future cooperation.

348
Q

What are the 3 general valuation models?

A
  1. Relative value - Estimate the value of something by observing prices of similar things. Also referred to as observational techniques or methods. For example, valuing a home by evaluating the price at which other similar homes are sold.
  2. Absolute value - Mathematically calculate the present value of an asset’s expected future cash flows. For example, a stock or a bond that pays interest or dividends over time, the value is given tot hat security based on the present value of those expected future cash flows.
  3. Option pricing - Complex form of absolute value model that values enterprises still needing substantial development to reach their economic potential. A start-up entity for example.
349
Q

What are the 3 general valuation approaches?

A
  1. Income approach - Looks at a set of expected cash flows or income out into the future that is discounted to present value, and that present value, under the income approach, represents the value of the asset.
  2. Market approach - Observational. Valuing an asset based on the price of similar assets, homes for example.
  3. Asset approach - The value of individual assets are determined, they are added together, liabilities are considered as an offset, and the total represents the net asset value.
350
Q

Walk through the income approach to valuation…

A

Under the income approach, there are 3 main components that need to be identified and assessed when estimating the value of an asset.
1. The amount of the expected future cash flows (this is a forward-looking exercise).
2. The timing of those cash flows. The timing can affect how we value these cash
flows.
3. The interest rate. Considers risk and uncertainty.

Important to understand that all 3 of those variables are estimates, they cannot be directly observed.

As a formula this looks like price of asset = f(amount and timing of future cash flows, interest rate).

The assessment of both the amount and timing of future cash flows is not an easy task, requires detailed projections and assumptions.

351
Q

Describe the Capital Asset Pricing Model…

A

This explains asset returns with consideration of one risk factor, market risk. The risk above a risk-free rate (the extra return that an investor requires for investing in a risky asset).

352
Q

What is the Capital Asset Pricing Model formula?

A

Ri = Rf + Bi (Rm - Rf).

Ri = Expected equity return of the asset.
Rf = Return on a risk free asset.
Bi = Beta.
Rm = Return on the market portfolio.

353
Q

How does the modified capital asset pricing model differ from the capital asset pricing model?

A

It factors in a size premium, views smaller companies as more risky than large companies.

Reflects specific risks associated with an individual company.

354
Q

Describe the market approach of valuation…

A

Estimates the unobservable price of an asset based on the observable price of comparable assets.

Empirical (actual) evidence is used to determine pricing benchmarks of comparable assets. Don’t need to use estimates like the income approach.

When observing prices of assets of different sized, scaled prices may be used.

Price to earnings (P/E) ratios are the most recognizable kind of scaled price.

355
Q

Describe the asset approach of valuation…

A

The theory of the asset approach is that the value of a firm is based on the sum of the values of is individual assets.

Typically used when valuing holding companies, operating firms with little to no expected profitability, or liquidating firms.

Steps in the asset approach:
1. Identify all tangible, intangible, and redundant assets owned by the firm.
2. Value each asset using the income, market, or cost approach.
3. Calculate the total of the asset values and subtract liabilities.

356
Q

What must an injured party prove in order for damages to be awarded in civil litigation?

A
  1. Another party committed a wrongdoing.
  2. As a result, the injured party suffered damages.
357
Q

2 main types of damages that can be awarded in an economic damages claim…

A
  1. Compensatory damages.
  2. Punitive damages.
358
Q

Describe compensatory damages…

A

Damages that are awarded to make an injured party whole, to put them in the same economic position they would have been in.

The types of compensatory damages a CPA might be asked to evaluate are…
1. Lost profits.
2. Loss of value. Value of a business before a bad act, ad then the value after the bad
act. The difference between the two is the loss of value
3. Unjust enrichment. The benefit that was received by the wrongdoer.
4. Extra out-of-pocket costs.

359
Q

The types of compensatory damages a CPA might be asked to evaluate are…

A
  1. Lost profits.
  2. Loss of value. Value of a business before a bad act, ad then the value after the bad act. The difference between the two is the loss of value
  3. Unjust enrichment. The benefit that was received by the wrongdoer.
  4. Extra out-of-pocket costs.
360
Q

Describe punitive damages…

A

An additional measure designed to punish the wrongdoer / party at fault and to deter future behavior. These damages are over and above compensatory damages that are awarded.

361
Q

When calculating lost profits, what are some of the practical constraints that need to be considered that could potentially limit the loss?

A
  1. Production Capacity. Did the company actually have the ability to produce at the level
    we are projecting?
  2. Financing Capacity. Did the company actually have the ability from a financial level to
    perform at the level we are projecting?
  3. Managerial Capacity. More relevant with smaller firms. Does it have the managerial
    workforce to enable the company to perform at our projections?
  4. Technical know-how. If the lost revenue / lost profits measurements assume the
    company had a certain level of technical expertise, did they actually have that?
  5. Market share constraints. Does the projection represent the company’s market share,
    where they stand in their industry?
362
Q

In terms of the consideration of the time value of money in damages calculations, what is the ex ante approach?

A

This approach takes damages, and discounts them back to the date of the loss / bad act. Then those damages are brought up to the date of trial using a pre-judgment interest rate. All damages are discounted to the date of loss, then brought forward to date of trial using a pre-judgment interest rate.

363
Q

In terms of the consideration of the time value of money in damages calculations, what is the ex post approach?

A

This approach takes past losses and brings them forward to the date of trial using a pre-judgment interest rate, and then projected losses beyond the date of trial are brought back to the date of trial using a present value calculation.

364
Q

What is meant by “Using the Book of Wisdom” in calculating damages / losses?

A

Not a method used to calculate damages, but a concept (introduced by the US Supreme Court in the 1930s), that suggests that all info that is available through the present time should be considered when calculating damages. For example, if there is growth in an industry after the date of loss / bad act, and that growth would have been applicable the the plaintiff’s losses, that growth can be applied in the calculate of damages. This is in contrast to how a valuation works, where the valuation depends on the determined “valuation date”.

365
Q

What is meant by “proximate cause” in relation to lost profits calculations?

A

The loss needs to be proximately linked to the bad act. The bad act caused the loss.

366
Q

What is meant by “reasonable certainty” in relation to lost profits calculations?

A

There needs to be some level of certainty that there were losses, doesn’t have to be absolute certainty, has to be a recognition of the fact that there were damages.

367
Q

What is meant by “foreseeability” in relation to lost profits calculations?

A

The damages were foreseeable by the parties by virtue of the bad act, it was known that the bad act was going to result in a loss.

368
Q

What is meant by “expert opinion admissibility” in relation to lost profits calculations?

A

An expert opinion regarding damages needs to meet the admissibility requirements set by the court, in order to be presented as evidence at a trial.

369
Q

What are the common types of intellectual property disputes that exist?

A
  1. Patent disputes. Involves utility patents, plant patents, and design patents.
  2. Trademark disputes.
  3. Copyright disputes.
  4. Trade secret disputes.
370
Q

What is the 4 factor test needed for a patent holder to establish entitlement to lost profits as set forth by the Panduit Copt. v. Stahlin Bros. Fibre Works, Inc court case?

A
  1. Demand existed for the patented product during the period of infringement.
  2. Acceptable non-infringing substitutes were not available to satisfy demand during t he period of infringement.
  3. The patent owner possessed the manufacturing and marketing capacity to have supplied the patented product to customers who purchased the infringing product.
  4. The amount of profit the patent holder would have made.
371
Q

Describe “Unjust enrichment” in intellectual property damages cases?

A

Alternative measure of damages (opposed to lost profits), essentially seeks to deprive the defendant of the benefit it obtained from the wrongdoing (patent infringement). These are common in intellectual property cases. Can not be duplicative of lost profits, can only claim one or the other. Plaintiff only bears the burden of proving the defendant’s sales, the burden then shifts to the defendant that should be deducted from those sales (plaintiff doesn’t have to measure the avoided or shifted costs).

372
Q

Apart from lost profits and unjust enrichment, what are some other measures of intellectual property damages?

A
  1. Statutory damages. Provide a specific dollar amount based on each incidence of infringement.
    a. Trademark.
    b. Copyright.
  2. Corrective advertising.
    a. Trademark.
  3. Loss of Value
    a. Trademark.
    b. Copyright.
    c. Trade secrets.
373
Q

What is the discovery process?

A

The formal process that litigants use to obtain information from opposing parties.

374
Q

What are the objectives of the discovery process?

A
  1. Enables the parties to know before the trial starts what evidence may be presented.
  2. Minimizes surprises. Both sides know what to expect.
  3. Lowers transaction costs of dispute resolution. Increases the percentage of settled cases as parties may decide the to settle before trial.
  4. Improves the accuracy of trials. Parties will have narrowed down their differences.
  5. Filters out frivolous disputes.
375
Q

What are the common types of discovery tools?

A
  1. Interrogatories. Can be served on a party to the lawsuit, but not on a non-party.
  2. Depositions. Can be served on a party to the lawsuit, as well as a non-party by subpoena.
  3. Document inspection or protection. Can be served on a party to the lawsuit, as well as a non-party by subpoena.
  4. Medical exam. Can be served on a party to the lawsuit, but not on a non-party.
  5. Request for admission. Can be served on a party to the lawsuit, but not on a non-party.
376
Q

What are the 2 most common forms of discovery abuse?

A
  1. Excessive or improper use of discovery devices to harass, cause delay, or wear down an adversary by increased costs.
  2. Stonewalling or opposing otherwise proper discovery requests for the purpose of frustrating the other party.
377
Q

What are the 3 most common forms of discovery abuse?

A
  1. Excessive or improper use of discovery devices to harass, cause delay, or wear down an adversary by increased costs.
  2. Stonewalling or opposing otherwise proper discovery requests for the purpose of frustrating the other party.
  3. Document dumping. Providing a huge number of excess documents that the other side will have to review to drive up costs.
378
Q

What are some of the most common sources of electronically stored information that need to be considered in the discovery process?

A
  1. Mainframe computers.
  2. Server hard drives.
  3. Backup tapes.
  4. Cellphones.
  5. Jump drives.
  6. Clouds.
  7. DVDs.
  8. Cloud.
379
Q

There have been some recent amendment to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure that have been enacted to respond to the legal community’s concerns in 3 main areas, what are they?

A
  1. Early and effective case management.
  2. Enhancing the means of keeping discovery proportional.
  3. Advancing cooperation among lawyers.
380
Q

What are the 2 broad categories of forensic accounting services?

A
  1. Litigation services.
    a. Testifying expert. Provides an opinion based on the scope of docs reviewed, and
    the people that were interviewed.
    b. Fact witness. Testifies on something that he or she directly perceived through their
    senses (saw, heard, etc.).
    c. Non-testifying consultant. Serves as a litigation consultant by advising on a strategy,
    retained by one of the parties in the dispute to assist that party’s attorney in
    understanding the other parties expert report and explaining how another expert
    approach could be questioned.
  2. Investigative services.
    a. Consultant in cases that do not involve actual or threatened litigation.
    b. Fact witness.
381
Q

What are some knowledge areas and skills that are helpful for a forensic accountant to have?

A
  1. Accounting.
  2. Auditing.
  3. Investigative.
  4. Criminology.
  5. Digital Forensics.
  6. Information Systems.
  7. Economics.
  8. Risk Analysis.
  9. Communication.
  10. Psychology.
  11. Information Technology.
  12. Problem Solving.
  13. Legal.
  14. Data Analysis.
382
Q

What are some of the most common professional opportunities forensic accountants?

A
  1. Investigative services.
  2. Fraud risk management.
  3. Expert consulting.
  4. Expert testimony.
  5. Business valuation.
  6. Alternative dispute resolution.
  7. Trust services.
  8. Bankruptcy.
383
Q

What is the purpose of a forensic accountant who is serving as an expert witness?

A

The use of a forensic accountant serving as an expert witness is to provide testimony in court to assist the trier of fact (judge or jury). They do not settle disputes and do not act as advocates for the defendant or plaintiff.

384
Q

What is the focus of a forensic accounting consulting engagement?

A

Forensic accounting consulting engagements tend to focus on one or more areas of a dispute or investigation. Some examples are providing advice on fraud risk mitigation, giving advice on the value of an estate, or providing advice on the financial impact of mergers and acquisitions.

385
Q

What is the function of the Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee?

A

The Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee is the AICPA body that has rule-making authority in the area of forensic and valuation services.

386
Q

What is the point of non-authoritative guidance issued by the AICPA?

A

To help practitioners implement authoritative guidance.

387
Q

Do practitioners need to comply with non-authoritative guidance?

A

No, but they may need to justify departures. Particularly if the facts and circumstances of the practitioner’s engagement are similar to which the guidance applies.

388
Q

What is an arraignment?

A

Occurs after the indictment has been filed. The defendant is brought before the trial court and asked to enter into a plea.

389
Q

What are pleadings?

A

The initial stage of a civil lawsuit involves the filings of pleadings by the respective parties. The purpose of pleadings is to give notice to the parties and the court of the assertions of each side and to assist in the determination of the issues.

390
Q

What is a criminal defendant’s initial appearance before a juducial officer called?

A

First appearance.

391
Q

How many jurors must vote to issue an indictment?

A

A simple majority.

392
Q

In civil actions, what are attachments?

A

An attachment is a court order allowing a court officer, such as a sheriff, to seize a debtor’s property.

393
Q

The first criteria an item or piece of evidence must satisfy before considering other Federal Rules of Evidence that affect admissibility

A

Relevancy. Relevance and it’s limits is the most important article in the Federal Rules of Evidence.

394
Q

What are 3 requirements of expert testimony set forth by Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE) 702?

A
  1. It must help the trier of fact understand the evidence or determine a fact at issue.
  2. It must be based on sufficient facts or data.
  3. It must be the product of reliable principles and methods.
395
Q

Why are excessive discovery tactics an issue in the court system?

A

Lawyers have an incentive to increase discovery costs. Additionally, lawyers can include the most relevant documents in a larger group of discovery in order to force opposing counsel to expend more effort to identify the most relevant documents.

396
Q

Generally speaking, which of the following applies to non-attest consulting services?
a. Independence only
b. Objectivity only
c. Both independence and objectivity
d. Neither independence nor objectivity

A

Objectivity only.

397
Q

SSVS No. 1 describes a valuation engagement, which results in .
a. A conclusion of value or calculated value
b. A conclusion of fraud based on calculated value
c. A conclusion of value based on legal precedent
d. A conclusion of fraud based on professional opinion

A

A conclusion of value of calculated value.

398
Q

The requirements for professional competence, due professional care, adequate planning and supervision, and the obtaining of sufficient relevant data primarily stem from .
a. SSCS No. 1
b. SSVS No. 1
c. AICPA Code of Professional Conduct
d. SSFS No. 1

A

AICPA Code of Professional Conduct.

399
Q

Which of the following is not considered a subject interest under SSVS No. 1?
a. A business
b. A nonprofit activity
c. A security
d. All of the above may be considered subject interests under
Statement on Standards for Valuation Services No. 1

A

All of the above may be considered subject interests under Statement on Standards for Valuation Services No. 1.

400
Q

In cases of internal use assignments from employers to employee-members not in the practice of public accounting, SSVS No.1
a. Applies in all assignments
b. Does not apply
c. Applies only if the member does not have the CFF credential
d. Applies only if the member applies valuation approaches and
methods

A

Does not apply.

401
Q

According to Interpretation No. 101-3, CPAs who provide attest services for a client may impair their attest independence by also .
a. Providing any witness testimony for the attest client
b. Providing valuation services to the attest client that have a
material effect on the client’s financial statements
c. Providing forensic accounting services for an owner of the attest
client in a divorce matter
d. All of the above

A

All of the above.

402
Q

When performing litigation consulting services, the member does not provide .
a. Advice about the facts or issues of a matter
b. Advice about strategy in a matter
c. Expert testimony in a matter
d. The member may provide any of the above in litigation consulting
services

A

Expert testimony in a matter.

403
Q

Which of the following is a litigation service?
a. Establishing litigation reserves for financial reporting
b. Investigating potentially improper claims for reimbursement
c. Serving as a member of an arbitrator panel
d. All of the above are litigation services

A

Serving as a member of an arbitrator panel.

404
Q

Having knowledge in which of the following areas is important for a forensic accountant?
a. Information technology
b. Psychology
c. Criminology
d. All of the above

A

All of the above.

405
Q

If a forensic accountant advertises his or her services, under AICPA Professional Standard which of the following may be stated in the ad?
a. We guarantee favorable results
b. We only get paid if we win
c. We are members of the AICPA
d. We know all the judges

A

We are members of the AICPA.

406
Q

How does forensic accounting differ from auditing?
a. Auditors look only at the past, whereas forensic accountants look
at the present and future.
b. Only auditors can express opinions.
c. Forensic accountants must consider the legal rules of procedure
and evidence.
d. Staff auditors do not need to be CPAs, whereas all forensic
accountants must be CPAs.

A

Forensic accountants must consider the legal rules of procedure and evidence.

407
Q

Which of the following is not a typical forensic accounting service?
a. Providing an opinion on the presentation of a company’s financial
statements.
b. Providing a valuation of a business in a divorce case.
c. Investigation fraudulent financial transactions posted in the books.
d. Searching for hidden assets in a bankruptcy case.

A

Providing an opinion on the presentation of a company’s financial statements.

408
Q

Forensic accountants should have knowledge of all of the following except?
a. The U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence.
b. The U.S. Federal rules for taking suspects into custody.
c. The U.S. Federal rules of civil procedure.
d. State and local court procedures and rules.

A

The U.S. Federal rules for taking suspects into custody.

409
Q

A forensic accountant would not normally be engaged to do which of the following?
a. Assist a company in writing internal controls to prevent and detect
fraud.
b. Provide the value of a business for an estate tax return.
c. Serve as a fact witness at a trial.
d. Investigate fraud in a government or not-for-profit entity.

A

Serve as a fact witness at trial.

410
Q

Which of the following is not required to establish authoritative guidance for the AICPA?
a. Deliberation in meetings open to the public
b. Publishing exposure drafts of proposed statements
c. A formal vote by the appropriate AICPA body
d. A formal vote by the AICPA membership

A

A formal vote by the AICPA membership.

411
Q

Which of the following is one of the four main sections of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Preface
b. Rules for Auditors
c. General Standards
d. Reporting Standards

A

Preface

412
Q

Which of the following is least likely to pertain to a forensic accountant conducting a fraud investigation?
a. Integrity and Objectivity
b. Accounting Principles
c. Independence
d. Acts Discreditable

A

Independence.

413
Q

What is the first thing a forensic accountant should do when contacted by an attorney or a client about a forensic accounting engagement?
a. Obtain a signed engagement letter.
b. Perform a conflict-of-interest check.
c. Get a retainer from the client or attorney.
d. Get court approval to serve as an expert.

A

Perform a conflict-of-interest check.

414
Q

Which of the following is not one of the disciplinary actions available to the Professional Ethics Executive Committee (PEEC)?
a. Offer a public settlement to the member.
b. Revoke the member’s CPA license.
c. Issue a confidential letter of corrective action.
d. Present the case before the Joint Trial Board.

A

Revoke the member’s CPA license.

415
Q

The Standard for Consulting Services (SSCS) No. 1 does not provide standards for which of the following services?
a. Advisory Services
b. Product Services
c. Implementation Services
d. Financial Planning Services

A

Financial Planning Services.

416
Q

The Standard for Valuation Services (SSVS) No. 1 does not provide standards for estimating the value of which of the following services?
a. A business or business ownership interest
b. Tangible Assets
c. Securities
d. Intangible Assets

A

Tangible Assets.

417
Q

Which of the following is considered authoritative guidance in a forensic accounting engagement?
a. Practice Aids
b. Special Reports
c. Case Law
d. White Papers

A

Case Law.

418
Q

Which of the following is the AICPA body designated by the AICPA Council as having rule- making authority in the area of forensic and valuation services?
a. Auditing Standards Board
b. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board
c. Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee
d. Consulting and Litigation Standards Committee

A

Forensic and Valuation Services Executive Committee.

419
Q

Which of the following sections of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct is least likely to apply to a forensic accountant providing services to attorneys?
a. Preface
b. Members in Public Practice
c. Members in Business
d. Other Members

A

Other Members.

420
Q

Before choosing a course of action when responding to an ethical conflict, a member of the AICPA considers doing which of the following?
a. Consult with the appropriate persons within the member’s firm or
organization.
b. Request the advice of other individuals in resolving the ethical
conflict or obtain advice from an appropriate professional body
(such as the AICPA) or legal counsel
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b).

421
Q

Forensic services may fall under the authoritative requirements of
a. SSCS No. 1
b. SSVS No. 1
c. SSFS No. 1
d. Any of the above

A

Any of the above.

422
Q

In which of the following roles is the practitioner not permitted to serve in bankruptcy proceedings?
a. Consultant
b. Trustee
c. Examiner
d. The practitioner is permitted to serve in all the above roles

A

The practitioner is permitted to serve in all the above roles.

423
Q

A valuation performed for a matter before a court, an arbitrator, a mediator or other facilitator, or a matter in a governmental or administrative proceeding, ____SSVS No. 1 reporting guidelines.
a. Has additional
b. Has special
c. Is exempt from
d. Is identical to

A

Is exempt from.

424
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of alternative dispute resolution over traditional litigation?
a. Less costly
b. Private
c. Provides a clear winner
d. Tends to build rather than destroy relationships

A

Provides a clear winner.

425
Q

Alternative dispute resolution methods generally do not include .
a. Negotiation and arbitration
b. Mediation and arbitration
c. Negotiation, mediation, and arbitration
d. Litigation

A

Litigation.

426
Q

In alternative dispute resolution, negotiation .
a. Leads to a binding agreement
b. May lead to a binding agreement
c. Leads to binding arbitration
d. Never leads to binding agreements

A

May lead to a binding agreement.

427
Q

Which of the following does not justify a court excluding evidence because its probative value is substantially outweighed by a danger?
a. Unfair prejudice
b. Confusing delay
c. Needlessly presenting cumulative evidence
d. All of the above justify a court excluding evidence because its
probative value is substantially outweighed by a danger

A

All of the above justify a court excluding evidence because its probative value is substantially outweighed by a danger

428
Q

Regarding expert testimony, which of the following is not required by Rule 702?
a. It must help the trier of fact to understand the evidence or
determine a fact in issue
b. It must be based on sufficient facts or data
c. It must be a product of reliable principles and methods
d. It must reliably apply training and expert opinion to the facts of
the case

A

It must reliably apply training and expert opinion to the facts of the case.

429
Q

Given that the general qualifications are met, the expert may base an opinion on .
a. Facts or data in the case that the expert has introduced into
evidence
b. Facts or data in the case from percipient witness testimony
c. Facts or data in the case that the expert has been made aware of
or has personally observed
d. Facts but not data from the case

A

Facts or data in the case that the expert has been made aware of or has personally observed.

430
Q

The general rule is that hearsay is not admissible. There are exceptions to this rule.
a. No
b. A very small number of
c. Nearly a couple of dozen
d. Over 50

A

Nearly a couple of dozen.

431
Q

Normally, the proponent must produce sufficient evidence to support a finding that an item be admitted as evidence. However, an official state signed, and sealed document might be admitted without the proponent being required to produce such sufficient evidence. Such a document being admitted would involve an exception to which rule (or title)?
a. Contents, writings, recordings, and photographs
b. Opinions and expert testimony
c. Authentication and identification
d. Expert testimony but not opinions

A

Authentication and identification.

432
Q

Which of the following is true regarding legal rules in the United States?
a. Many states base their rules, at least in part, on the U.S. Federal
Rules of Evidence
b. Generally speaking, state rules of evidence bear little resemblance
to the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence
c. All states have codified the U.S. U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence as
their written rules
d. States never codify the U.S. U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence as their
written rules

A

Many states base their rules, at least in part, on the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence.

433
Q

Which of the following is not required to be filed by a defendant in a civil lawsuit?
a. An answer to the plaintiff’s complaint
b. An admission or denial of every element of the plaintiff’s complaint
c. Any affirmative defenses
d. All of the above are required

A

All of the above are required.

434
Q

In U.S. Federal lawsuits, __ can be pursued against a defendant.
a. Only related claims
b. Unrelated claims
c. Court designated claims
d. Discoverable claims

A

Unrelated claims.

435
Q

In U.S. Federal courts, discovery requests may be directed to .
a. Only parties to the lawsuit
b. Only parties joined to the lawsuit, as approved by the court
c. Parties and nonparties to the lawsuit
d. Nonparties but not parties to the lawsuit

A

Parties and nonparties to the lawsuit.

436
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four major types of discovery tools?
a. Requests for admissions
b. Interrogatories
c. Depositions
d. All of the above are major types of discovery tools

A

All of the above are major types of discovery tools.

437
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding witness lists in U.S. Federal Courts?
a. Their production does not require a discovery request
b. Their production requires a subpoena
c. Their production requires court approval
d. Their production requires a discovery request

A

Their production does not require a discovery request.

438
Q

Which of the following may not be commanded by a subpoena?
a. Testimony
b. The production of documents
c. Seizing of documents
d. All of the above may be commanded by a subpoena

A

Seizing of documents.

439
Q

Which item is not the formal name of a major title in the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence?
a. Trial
b. Venue
c. Sentencing
d. Preliminary proceedings

A

Sentencing.

440
Q

If a U.S. Federal arrest is made with a summons or warrant,____ must be filed with the initial criminal complaint.
a. An indictment
b. The information
c. An affidavit
d. A subpoena

A

An affidavit.

441
Q

The criminal defendant’s initial appearance in court is called .
a. The arraignment
b. The preliminary hearing
c. The pleading
d. The examination

A

The arraignment.

442
Q

A hearing in which a magistrate judge decides whether there is sufficient probable cause to require the defendant to appear for further proceedings is called .
a. The arraignment
b. The preliminary hearing
c. The pleading
d. The examination

A

The preliminary hearing.

443
Q

The defendant is advised in court of his or her rights to bail .
a. Before the arraignment
b. At the preliminary hearing
c. At the arraignment
d. The examination

A

At the arraignment.

444
Q

If the defendant is charged by a grand jury indictment, the preliminary hearing is generally .
a. Very important
b. Unnecessary
c. Waived by the prosecutor
d. Replaced with a mini trial

A

Unnecessary.

445
Q

Grand juries include how many members.
a. 12
b. 12–16
c. 16–23
d. Any number of

A

16 - 23.

446
Q

For a U.S. Federal Court indictment, how many jurors must vote to indict.
a. A simple majority of
b. A two-thirds majority of
c. At least 12
d. All

A

At least 12.

447
Q

In U.S. Federal Courts, prosecution takes place in the district in which.
a. The victim lives
b. The defendant lives
c. The offense took place
d. The prosecutor requests

A

The offense took place.

448
Q

In the normal order, the _ first presents its opening arguments.
a. Prosecution
b. Defense
c. Prosecution or defense, depending on the court’s order
d. Prosecution in some districts and the defense in other districts

A

Prosecution.

449
Q

Which side presents its case first?
a. The prosecution
b. The defense
c. The prosecution or defense, depending on the court’s order
d. The prosecution in some districts and the defense in other districts

A

The prosecution.

450
Q

If the prosecution is presenting its case and calls a witness, the defendant’s questioning of that witness is called .
a. Direct examination
b. Cross-examination
c. Redirect examination
d. Initial examination

A

Cross-examination.

451
Q

After the defense rests its case, the prosecution presents its closing arguments, which are followed by the defense’s closing arguments, which are then followed by _ .
a. A possible motion to dismiss
b. Rebuttal arguments by the prosecution
c. Jury instructions
d. Rebuttal arguments by the defendant

A

Jury instructions.

452
Q

The government may make a motion for a sentence reduction .
a. Immediately before the sentence is entered
b. Immediately after a sentence is entered and after a motion for a
new trial is made
c. Any time before the sentence is final
d. After a 12-month waiting period, following the sentence

A

Immediately after a sentence is entered and after a motion for a new trial is made.

453
Q

The U.S. Federal Rules of Bankruptcy include nine active parts. Which of the following is not one of the named active parts?
a. The Debtor: Duties and Benefits
b. Courts and Clerks
c. The Examination of the Creditor
d. All of the above are named parts

A

The examination of the creditor.

454
Q

The U.S. Federal bankruptcy chapter that deals with businesses and individuals and offers payment plans with no liquidation of the business is .
a. Chapter 7
b. Chapter 11
c. Chapter 13
d. Both (a) and (b)

A

Chapter 11.

455
Q

The U.S. Federal bankruptcy chapter that deals with individual and business liquidation is
a. Chapter 7
b. Chapter 11
c. Chapter 13
d. Both (b) and (c)

A

Chapter 7.

456
Q

In U.S. Federal Courts, bankruptcy proceedings are administered by
a. A judge
b. A trustee mutually acceptable to the attorneys involved
c. A trustee appointed by the U.S. Department of Justice
d. A publicly elected trustee

A

A trustee appointed by the U.S. Department of Justice.

457
Q

In bankruptcy proceedings held in special bankruptcy courts, disputes regarding facts may arise and involve a trial-type process. Such disputes
a. Are referred to a U.S. Federal District Court for resolution
b. Are resolved in the court in which such disputes arise
c. Are resolved by the trustee acting as a trier of fact
d. Are referred to the U.S. Treasury Department for resolution

A

Are referred to a U.S. Federal District Count for resolution.

458
Q

The U.S. Federal Court system involves how many tiers.
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Seven

A

Three.

459
Q

Which court(s) serves as the trier of fact in the U.S. Federal Court system?
a. Only the U.S. District Courts
b. Only the U.S. Federal Circuit Courts of Appeal
c. The U.S. District Courts and the Federal Circuit Courts of Appeal
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Only the U.S. District Courts.

460
Q

The U.S. Federal Tax Courts have jurisdiction over disputed tax deficiencies. These courts only hear cases in which
a. The taxpayers have been denied administrative appeals
b. The amount of taxes in dispute exceeds a threshold
c. The taxes in dispute have already been paid
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

461
Q

State Supreme Court decisions relating to U.S. Federal issues may be appealed
a. Directly to the appropriate U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals
b. Directly to the U.S. Supreme Court
c. Directly to the appropriate U.S. District Court
d. Both (a) and (c)

A

Directly to the U.S. Supreme Court.

462
Q

The U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is
a. An independent government agency
b. Hosted by the U.S. Department of Justice
c. Hosted by the U.S. Department of State
d. An independent law enforcement agency

A

Hosted by the U.S. Department of Justice.

463
Q

The U.S. Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) is useful in what type of investigations?
a. Terrorist
b. Money laundering
c. Both terrorist and money laundering
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both terrorist and money laundering.

464
Q

The U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) was enacted in 1977 to address the issue of corporate______.
a. Financial statement fraud
b. Bribery of foreign officials
c. Corruption
d. Cyber crime

A

Bribery of foreign officials.

465
Q

The U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) defines corrupt payments as _____.
a. Payments or gifts made to foreign officials to obtain or keep business, regardless of whether the bribe produces actual business
b. Improper payments or gifts through third parties made at the behest of foreign officials, including charitable and political contributions
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b).

466
Q

With respect to the U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA), _____ to corrupt payments.
a. A materiality threshold based on the auditor’s judgments applies
b. A materiality threshold based on the management’s judgments applies
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

467
Q

The U.S. Department of Justice encourages ______ of U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) violations.
a. Self-reporting
b. Auditor reporting
c. Financial reporting
d. Legal reporting

A

Self-reporting.

468
Q

A parent company can be liable for U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) violations of a merged or acquired business _____ a merger or acquisition.
a. Upon the auditing of
b. At the time of
c. Within one fiscal year of
d. Subsequent to the fiscal year of

A

At the time of.

469
Q

Which of the following is not protected by the Copyright Act of 1976?
a. Software programs
b. Literary works
c. Published scientific discoveries
d. All of the above are protected

A

Published scientific discoveries.

470
Q

Generally speaking, copyright protection automatically exists from _____.
a. The date on which the work is filed
b. The date on which the copyright is approved
c. The date on which the work is first created
d. The date on which the copyright is first filed

A

The date on which the work is first created.

471
Q

Under U.S. patent law, a patent application can be based on _____.
a. An existing invention
b. An existing idea of an inventor, even if the inventor has not physically built or tested the idea to see whether it works
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Either (a) or (b).

472
Q

The operative U.S. Federal law governing trademarks and trade names is _____.
a. The Uniform Trademark Law
b. The Lanham Act
c. The Slesinger Act
d. The Uniform Commercial Code

A

The Lanham Act.

473
Q

An unregistered trademark ______.
a. Is guaranteed protection under the law
b. May offer protection in a given geographic area
c. Offers national protection
d. None of the above

A

May offer protection in a given geographic area.

474
Q

Which of the following is not associated with identity theft?
a. Hackers
b. Shoulder surfers
c. Street thieves
d. All of the above are associated with identity theft

A

All of the above are associated with identity theft.

475
Q

Which money-laundering technique involves using multiple people to make many small deposits in
different locations?
a. Currency structuring
b. Smurfing
c. Finance intermediaries
d. Surfing

A

Smurfing.

476
Q

Which of the following is not a traditional area of crime for the LCN?
a. Loansharking
b. Labor racketeering
c. Gambling
d. All of the above are traditional areas of crime for the LCN

A

All of the above are traditional areas of crime for the LCN.

477
Q

Terrorism represents ____________.
a. A special type of organized crime
b. An organization that may engage in reverse money laundering
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b).

478
Q

____ provides an exemption for workplace investigations for suspected misconduct relating to
employment, a suspected violation of state or U.S. Federal laws, or a violation of a preexisting
written company policy.
a. The Internet False Identification Prevention Act
b. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
c. The Fair and Accurate Credit Transaction Act (FACTA)
d. The Internet Fair Identification Prevention Act

A

The fair and accurate credit transaction act (FACTA).

479
Q

Which statement best describes the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?
a. FinCEN is the primary government organization that enforces Anti-Money Laundering (AML) laws in the U.S.
b. FinCEN operates under the U.S. Department of Treasury
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. FinCEN is the primary branch of the World Trade Organization (WTO) enforcing Anti-Money Laundering (AML) laws worldwide

A

Both (a) and (b) are correct.

480
Q

The Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) requires banks and other financial institutions to file currency transaction reports (CTRs) for cash transactions over:
a. $10,000
b. $15,000
c. $20,000
d. $100,000

A

$10,000.

481
Q

The Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) requires banks and other financial institutions to file currency transaction reports for:
a. Suspicious Anti-laundering Reports (SARs) for transactions that might be related to money laundering
b. Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) for transactions that might be related to money laundering
c. Supervised Activity Registers (SARs) that might be related to money laundering
d. Suspicious Activity Registers (SARs) for transactions that might be related to money laundering

A

Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) for transactions that might be related to money laundering.

482
Q

SARS are made available to authorized officials from FinCEN:
a. Through FinCEN’s BSA Direct Internet portal
b. Through FinCEN’s World Trade Organization (WTO) Internet portal
c. Upon Direct Inquiry through FinCEN’s World Services portal
d. Upon request from participating World Trade Organization (WTO) members

A

Through FinCEN’s BSA Direct Internet portal.

483
Q

_____ seek to covertly convert legitimate money into illegitimate money, whereas traditional organized crime groups seek to covertly convert illegitimate money into legitimate money.
a. Ordinary organized crime groups
b. Terrorist organizations
c. Digital asset markets
d. Smurfing groups

A

Terrorist organizations.

484
Q

One enforcement weapon in the fight against corruption has been the Racketeer Influenced Corrupt Organizations (RICO) Act. This act permits:
a. The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) to interfere with international monetary transfers
b. The Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) to intervene with international monetary transfers
c. The U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to intervene even if evidence is only at a state level
d. Fraud investigators to interview suspects across international jurisdictions

A

The U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to intervene even if evidence is only at a state level.

485
Q

In narcotics trafficking investigations, forensic practitioners may trace money associated with drug trafficking to identify the source of the funds. Often drug traffickers will use money laundering to obfuscate the fact that the money was earned by dealing in drugs. Forensic accountants can be utilized to help:
a. Identify suspicious financial laundering activity in banks and other types of companies.
b. Create and implement controls designed to detect money laundering activities so that companies do not experience injury that can accompany these activities.
c. Serve as U.S. Trustees.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct.

486
Q

Forensic accountants sometimes follow the money to determine the sources and uses of the funds. In counter-terrorism engagements, these stops may be focused on eliminating the source of funds and curtailing terrorist activity. The logic behind this includes:
a. Without money, terrorism cannot operate
b. Even though the trail of money from its source to its use can be complex, a trail (such as transfers) exists and can be used to stop the flow of funds
c. This can help to prosecute those who perpetrate terrorist acts
d. All of these above

A

All of these above.

487
Q

The Uniform Trade Secrets Act (UTSA) permits recovery of ______.
a. Only compensatory damages
b. Only unjust gains
c. Both compensatory damages and unjust gains
d. Only complimentary damages

A

Both compensatory damages and unjust gains.

488
Q

The constitutional amendment that protects the people against unreasonable searches and seizures
by the government is:
a. The Fifth Amendment
b. The Tenth Amendment
c. The Thirteenth Amendment
d. The Fourth Amendment

A

The Fourth Amendment.

489
Q

“Crimes and Criminal Procedure” represents ____ 18 of the United States Code.
a. Chapter
b. Title
c. Section
d. Paragraph

A

Title.

490
Q

U.S. Federal statute citations include the use of this symbol: §. It is used to represent a ______.
a. Chapter
b. Title
c. Section
d. Paragraph

A

Section.

491
Q

Binding arbitration is _____.
a. Generally enforceable in the courts
b. Never enforceable in the courts
c. Enforceable in the courts if the arbitrator is a licensed attorney or CPA and not enforceable otherwise
d. Not an enforceable event

A

Generally enforceable in the courts.

492
Q

Which of the following best describes a forensic practitioner’s role in mediation?
a. The practitioner’s objective is to render a binding decision on the merits of the dispute
b. The practitioner works with the parties to achieve an agreed-upon result
c. The practitioner assists a lawyer in performing mediations, since practitioners may not render
legal opinions
d. SSFS No. 1 does not apply to mediation roles, since the matter is not in court

A

The practitioner works with the parties to achieve an agreed-upon result.

493
Q

The U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence determine _____courts may rely on in rendering verdicts.
a. The facts
b. The opinions
c. The facts and opinions
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

The facts and opinions.

494
Q

Which of the following is not one of the main articles of the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence?
a. Privileges
b. Witnesses
c. Verdicts
d. All of the above are main articles of the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence

A

Verdicts.

495
Q

Which of the following is true regarding rules of evidence in litigation matters?
a. Rules of evidence are consistent across countries, jurisdictions and venues.
b. Legal rules rarely impact forensic practitioners unless there is an expression of a legal opinion.
c. Experts must ascertain whether the information on which they intend to rely will be admissible for the purpose.
d. Rules of evidence do not pertain to expert testimony.

A

Experts must ascertain whether the information on which they intend to rely will be admissible for the purpose.

496
Q

Which of the following is not a major title in the U.S. Federal Rules of Civil Procedure?
a. Trials
b. Pleadings and motions
c. Evidence
d. All of the above are major titles in the U.S. Federal rules of procedure

A

Evidence.

497
Q

Under the U.S. Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, a civil action in a U.S. Federal Court begins with the plaintiff filing a _____.
a. General writ
b. Prothonotary’s writ
c. Summons
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

498
Q

Which of the following statements best describes “facilitation payments” in global anti-bribery law?
a. The US FCPA permits certain facilitation payments, although the definition is narrow
b. The UK Bribery Act and the US FCPA both permit facilitation payments that do not exceed a monetary threshold of US$5,000 or GBP5000, respectively
c. If a payment to a government official is made by gift or gift card, it is a facilitation payment, it is defined as a facilitation payment
d. If a transaction is documented in the books and records as a facilitation payment, it is likely to be in compliance with global laws

A

The US FCPA permits certain facilitation payments, although the definition is narrow.

499
Q

Which of the following is true of AML reporting in Canada?
a. If there are reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering, suspicious transaction reports must be made to Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre (FINTRAC)
b. Canada reports suspicious transactions to U.S. FinCEN using this Canadian-specific reporting thresholds
c. Canada banks report to provincial banking authorities regarding suspicious transactions, pursuant to provincial regulations
d. Canadian banks have no specific reporting requirements, although they must conduct customer due diligence

A

If there are reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering, suspicious transaction reports must be made to Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre (FINTRAC).

500
Q

Of special importance to forensic and valuation engagements is the consideration regarding the identity of the client. In many cases, it is advantageous for the client to be
a. The attorney for the person or entity being represented
b. The CEO of the entity being represented
c. The person or entity being represented by the attorney
d. The shareholders for the entity being represented

A

The attorney for the person or entity being represented.

501
Q

Generally speaking, reports written by the CPA, when the CPA is not engaged by the attorney as part of a forensic accounting engagement, are .
a. Protected by the work-product doctrine
b. Protected by the accountant-client privilege
c. Protected by both the work-product doctrine and the accountant-client privilege
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

502
Q

An expert witness who is scheduled to testify in a U.S. Federal Court and who reports directly to an attorney is before the trial starts.
a. Subject to discovery
b. Not subject to discovery
c. Subject to discovery in criminal but not civil cases
d. Subject to discovery in civil but not criminal cases

A

Subject to discovery.

503
Q

In planning and preparing for engagements, key considerations include .
a. Understanding the client and the client’s needs
b. Establishing a clear understanding regarding the scope and nature of the services
to be provided and the responsibilities of both the practitioners and the client
c. Establishing a clear understanding regarding any issues relating to confidentiality of
materials and possible conflicts of interest
d. All of the above

A

All of the above.

504
Q

Non-testifying expert consultants in legal cases are typically .
a. Subject to discovery
b. Subject to discovery once the trial begins
c. Subject to depositions but not document requests
d. Not subject to discovery

A

Not subject to discovery.

505
Q

Which of the following is considered a forensic accounting service?
a. Auditing the financial statements of a company
b. Preparing an amended tax return as the result of an IRS audit
c. Serving as a bankruptcy trustee
d. Photographing a cheating spouse in a divorce case

A

Serving as a bankruptcy trustee.

506
Q

Forensic accounting services do not include which of the following?
a. Tax analyses
b. Audits of financial statements
c. Professional standards analysis
d. Punitive damages studies

A

Audits of financial statements.

507
Q

Jane is a partner in an AICPA member firm in the Consulting Practice. In 2023, she accepted an engagement to provide an expert opinion regarding financial reporting matters in a litigation case. Which of the following standards applies?
a. Generally accepted auditing standards
b. Statement on Standards for Consulting Services
c. Statement on Standards for Valuation Services
d. Statement on Standards for Forensic Services

A

Statement on Standards for Forensic Services.

508
Q

Which of the following is not part of the initial case assessment and acceptance?
a. Defining the scope of the engagement
b. Rendering an opinion
c. Determining the identity of the client
d. Setting a budget

A

Rendering an opinion.

509
Q

Which of the following is not part of a forensic accounting engagement letter?
a. Conflicts of interest
b. Guarantee of outcome
c. Choice of law provisions
d. Rights and duties

A

Guarentee of outcome.

510
Q

Which of the following is true for marketing forensic accounting services?
a. There are no restrictions on marketing materials
b. Puffing or embellishing for marketing purposes is acceptable
c. Marketing materials can be used in cross-examinations
d. Marketing materials can never be used in cross-examinations

A

Marketing maretials can be used in cross-examinations.

511
Q

Which of the following is a type of abuse or unreasonable demand that forensic accountants deal with?
a. Late payments and non-payments
b. Harassment at depositions
c. Pressure to act in unethical ways
d. All of the above

A

All of the above.

512
Q

Which section of the engagement letter should mention arbitration relating to an investigation of alleged bribery?
a. Limitations of liability and damages
b. Dispute resolution
c. Fees
d. Rights and duties

A

Dispute Resolution.

513
Q

Which of the following is not a forensic service as defined by SSFS No. 1?
a. Expert witness
b. Litigation consulting
c. Special master
d. All of the above are forensic services

A

All of the above are forensic services.

514
Q

Which is the most appropriate statement regarding a professional’s responsibility to provide direction and supervision of the work performed in support of his or her expert opinions?
a. An expert is required by US state and Federal laws of civil and criminal procedures
to provide personal and direct oversight and supervision of all team members
b. The Daubert standards require the expert to personally provide all substantive
work supporting the opinions and may delegate only elements that are clearly
inconsequential
c. The AICPA Code of Conduct requires adequate planning and supervision of all work
performed on forensic services engagements
d. SSFS No. 1 recommends detailed planning and supervision of all forensic
engagements but does not establish any authoritative standard for direction and
supervision

A

The AICPA Code of Conduct requires adequate planning and supervision of all work perfofmed on forensic services engagements.

515
Q

Which of the following is not a general standard that applies to forensic services?
a. Client advocacy
b. Due professional care
c. Professional competence
d. Integrity and objectivity

A

Client advocacy.

516
Q

What does “conflicting out an expert” mean?
a. The decision by a client to dismiss an expert prior to the issuance of an expert
opinion for reasons related to conflicts of interest.
b. Challenges to the admissibility of an expert’s opinion due to evidence conflicts of
interest.
c. Vacatur of an arbitration award because of undisclosed conflicts or relationships
between one or more parties and the arbitrator.
d. Engaging in substantive disclosures with a potential expert before retention,
creating a potential conflict of interest that may prevent later retention by
opponents.

A

Engaging in substantive disclosures with a potential expert before retention, creating a potential conflict of interest that may prevent later retention by opponents.

517
Q

With respect to an engagement to provide expert testimony, contingency fees are .
a. Permitted if disclosed under Rule 26
b. Permitted if disclosed under the provisions of the US Federal Rules of Evidence in
sections 702, 703, 704, 705 or 706
c. Usually prohibited even if disclosed
d. Always prohibited

A

Usually prohibited even if disclosed.

518
Q

Which of the following engagement initiation activities are required by SSFS No. 1?
a. Establishing an understanding with the client.
b. Obtaining a written engagement letter.
c. Confirming that a client has retained legal counsel.
d. Obtaining a letter of representations

A

Establisging an understanding with the client.

519
Q

Emilio is retained by an attorney to assist in forensic investigation of a possible defalcation. The attorney’s client is a corporation. The attorney proposes that the attorney retain Emilio to preserve any legal privileges that may be available. Which is the most appropriate statement regarding this type of retention?
a. The attorney is Emilio’s client, but the corporation is not a client
b. Emilio’s only client is the corporation
c. Both the attorney and the corporation are Emilio’s clients
d. This type of retention is not appropriate, since the engagement is for benefit of the
corporation

A

Both the attorney and the client are Emilio’s clients.

520
Q

A forensic services engagement to estimate value culminates in the expression of .
a. Either a conclusion of value or a calculated value
b. A conclusion of value only
c. A conclusion of calculated value only
d. A disclaimer of value

A

Either a conclusion of value or a calculated value.

521
Q

The specific elements of valuation in a forensic services engagement require that the analyst estimate value in a subject interest according to SSVS No. 1 procedures. The practitioner is free to choose the valuation approaches and methods and expresses the results as a conclusion of value.
a. As a single numerical value only
b. As a range of numerical values only
c. Either as a single numerical value or a range of numerical values
d. Both as a as a single numerical value and a range of numerical values

A

Either as a single numerical value or a range of numerical values.

522
Q

Intentionally withholding documents related to the debtor’s property or financial affairs from the standing trustee or other officer of the court may be an example of .
a. A discovery violation
b. A violation of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
c. Theft, obstruction, or concealment
d. Negligence

A

Theft, obstruction, or concealment.

523
Q

Investigations typically end with a report of the investigation. If a suspect has confessed to fraud, it would .
a. Be appropriate to conclude upon the suspect’s guilt in the report
b. Be appropriate to conclude upon the suspect’s guilt in the report if the suspect has
freely signed a written confession that is clearly and properly drawn and witnessed
c. Be inappropriate to conclude upon the suspect’s guilt in the report
d. Be inappropriate to issue a report.

A

Be inappropriate to conclude upon the suspect’s guilt in the report.

524
Q

Generally, in business bankruptcies, audited financial reports .
a. Are reliable sources of information in identifying assets subject to bankruptcy
proceedings
b. May not be sufficient sources of information in identifying assets subject to
bankruptcy proceedings
c. Are reliable sources of information in identifying assets subject to bankruptcy
proceedings, if such reports are available for the 3-year period leading up to
bankruptcy
d. Are a reliable source of information in identifying assets subject to bankruptcy
proceedings, except in involuntary filings

A

May not be sufficient sources of information in identifying assets subject to bankruptchy proceedings.

525
Q

With respect to financial statement fraud, quantitative materiality is .
a. An essential element
b. An important element
c. Not a required element
d. Always required

A

Not a required element.

526
Q

Financial statement fraud tends to be in small companies when compared to relatively large companies.
a. Less likely
b. Equally likely
c. More likely
d. More or less likely

A

More likely

527
Q

Which of the following is true about SSFS No. 1:
a. The SSFS No. 1 is effective for new engagements accepted on or after January 1,
2022, and early adoption is allowed.
b. The SSFS No. 1 is effective for new engagements accepted on or after January 1,
2020, and early adoption is allowed.
c. Prior to SSFS No. 1, forensic services were subject to SSVS No. 1, SSCS No. 1, and
SSXS No. 1 for authoritative guidance.
d. The SSFS No. 1 does not apply to financial forensics services.

A

The SSFS No. 1 is effective for new engage,emts accepted on or after January 1, 2020, and early adoption is allowed.

528
Q

Which of the following is not a pillar of strong corporate governance?
a. The board of directors
b. The audit committee
c. Public oversight organizations
d. All of the above are pillars of strong corporate governance

A

All of the above are pillars of strong corporate governance.

529
Q

Ellen is performing a litigation engagement under SSFS No. 1. She discovers that the information on which her expert opinion will rely has significant gaps. What responsibilities does Ellen have under SSFS No. 1?
a. She must decline the engagement if she has not yet accepted it. If she has
accepted, she must withdraw.
b. She must communicate significant reservations regarding the engagement and
update her understanding with the client regarding the scope of work.
c. She must amend any fixed fee arrangements due to new information.
d. Because SSFS No. 1 anticipates the necessity of working with incomplete
information, there is no specific action to be taken.

A

She must communicate significant reservations regarding the engagement and update her understanding with the client regarding the scope of work.

530
Q

Which type of question seeks to assess the interviewee’s honesty?
a. Informational
b. Assessment
c. Admission seeking
d. Introductory

A

Assessment

531
Q

Only suspects who show deception are asked _.
a. Informational questions
b. Assessment questions
c. Admission-seeking questions
d. Data gathering questions

A

Admission-seeking questions.

532
Q

Which type of question is used to calibrate the subject’s response?
a. Informational
b. Assessment
c. Admission seeking
d. Introductory

A

Introductory.

533
Q

Repeating an interviewer’s questions may be a sign of .
a. Cooperation
b. Deception
c. Guilt
d. Incompetency

A

Deception.

534
Q

Subjects who show deception
a. May not be asked concluding or closing questions after admission-seeking
questions
b. Are only asked concluding or closing questions after assessment questions
c. Are limited to asking concluding or closing questions simultaneous to the
admission- seeking questions
d. May be asked concluding questions where appropriate, although some
interviewers might skip the concluding questions when there is a signed confession

A

Might be asked concluding questions where appropriate, although some interviewers might skip the concluding questions when there is a signed confession.

535
Q

Discovery is the pretrial process in which parties to a lawsuit obtain evidence from each other through various devices, such as interrogatories, requests for the production of documents, and
a. Interviews
b. Depositions
c. Motions in limine
d. Documentation

A

Depositions.

536
Q

Evidence from nonparties to the lawsuit may be obtained through .
a. Interrogatories
b. Admissions
c. Warrants
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

537
Q

Evidence produced in discovery admissible in court.
a. Is not
b. Is usually
c. May or may not be
d. Is always

A

May or may not be.

538
Q

The court may hear _, in which either party may request that particular evidence be admitted or excluded.
a. Motions in limine
b. Motions ex parte
c. Motions ex ante
d. Motions et. al.

A

Motions in limine.

539
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of computer forensics?
a. Identifying perpetrators or other individuals of interest
b. Locating and recovering data, files, and e-mail
c. Determining guilt in computer crimes
d. All of the above are objectives of computer forensics

A

Determining guilt in computer crimes.

540
Q

With respect to computer forensic investigations and including opinions and conclusions in the practitioner’s report, the practitioner .
a. Should carefully detail all opinions and conclusions
b. Should carefully detail only conclusions
c. Should not detail opinions and conclusions
d. Should only detail those opinions and conclusions that are clearly consistent with
the evidence gathered by the practitioner

A

Should only detail those opinions and conclusions that are clearly consistent with the evidence gathered by the practitioner.

541
Q

In a computer forensics investigation, chain of custody is the responsibility of .
a. The practitioner
b. The attorney
c. Employees of the client whose interest the practitioner serves
d. The judge

A

The practitioner.

542
Q

The first action with respect to a computer device is .
a. Clone the storage device (for example, the hard drive)
b. Power it down
c. Perform an online lookup of its security features
d. Log in to establish access

A

Power it down.

543
Q

Encrypted data on a hard drive .
a. Can always be decrypted by using a commercial-grade forensic tool kit
b. May be permanently out of reach for the practitioner
c. May be unlocked by contacting the vendor of the encrypting software
d. Is always accessible by law enforcement

A

May be permanently decrypted by using a commercial-grade forensic tool kit.

544
Q

Once the power is off, the computer disk or storage device should be .
a. Removed from the computer and then cloned
b. Kept in the computer and cloned
c. Cloned and then removed from the computer
d. Destroyed

A

Removed from the computer and then cloned.

545
Q

When working with a cloned copy of a hard drive, the practitioner should _ .
a. Not boot the cloned copy because booting it can cause changes to its data
b. Boot the cloned copy
c. Not transport the cloned copy without securing its chain of custody
d. Destroy the original copy

A

Not boot the cloned copy because booting it can cause changes to its data.

546
Q

Mounting a device on a computer running a foreign operating system has the advantage of permitting access to many operating system files that may contain cached or paged data that would normally be when mounted under their native operating system.
a. Garbled
b. Unacceptable evidence
c. Inaccessible
d. Legible

A

Inaccessible.

547
Q

Once files are deleted from the trash bin, they are .
a. Not recoverable
b. Likely recoverable shortly after their being deleted from the trash bin
c. Recoverable under most circumstances without special computer forensics tools
d. Recoverable under most circumstances with special computer forensics tools

A

Likely recoverable shortly after their being deleted from the trash bin.

548
Q

Deleted files may be made unrecoverable by overwriting them with data by anti-forensic programs that are used to securely wipe files and storage devices. Such programs can securely wipe files by overwriting free storage space with 0s and 1s.
a. Once
b. Two times
c. Three times
d. Many times

A

Many times.

549
Q

A common issue for the practitioner is locating the origin of an individual or device that has communicated in some way over the Internet. This is normally accomplished by identifying the location of the Internet protocol (IP) address that is hidden inside each _ on the Internet.
a. Web page
b. E-mail message sent
c. Web page and e-mail message
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

E-mail message sent.

550
Q

When the target is a sophisticated user, IP tracing .
a. Is a guaranteed way to trace the person’s Internet communications
b. Is a possible way to trace the person’s Internet communications
c. Is not applicable to tracing communications over the Internet
d. All of the above are correct statements

A

Is a possible way to trace the person’s internet communications.

551
Q

A VPN may be used to hide a person’s .
a. IP address
b. Web address
c. E-mail address
d. Residential address

A

IP address.

552
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four phases of the digital forensic process?
a. Collection
b. Analysis
c. Deposition
d. Reporting

A

Deposition.

553
Q

Investigations that involve network forensics do not include which of the following?
a. Sample extractions
b. Data interception
c. Denial of service attacks
d. Geo-location of internet users

A

Sample extractions.

554
Q

Which of the following is not a skill required by a digital forensic specialist?
a. Maintaining a secure and documented chain of custody
b. Storing and cataloging collected evidence
c. Reprogramming computer devices
d. Deciding what evidence to collect

A

Reprogramming computer devices.

555
Q

Computer forensics software cannot be used to do which of the following?
a. Recover deleted files
b. Gain access to remote computers
c. Analyze hidden content (Metatags, logs, and so on)
d. Index large numbers of files

A

Gain access to remote computers.

556
Q

Which of the following is not a major database used by anti-bribery law enforcement?
a. IAFIS
b. FINCEN
c. EDGAR
d. NLETS

A

EDGAR

557
Q

Creating a forensic image of a computer hard drive’s content while it is turned on and operational
a. Is often referred to as a Static Acquisition
b. Is often referred to as a Ghost Acquisition
c. Is often referred to as a Group IV Acquisition
d. Is often referred to as a Live Acquisition

A

Is often referred to as a Ghost Acquisition.

558
Q

A write block device is often used to connect to your evidence media to prevent:
a. Left block parity from interfering with the imaging process
b. Someone from accidentally disconnecting the device
c. Mislabeling the media
d. Writing to the media

A

Writing to the media.

559
Q

In the order of information volatility what type of information storage is the least volatile:
a. Network traffic
b. Fixed hard drive
c. System memory
d. CPU Cache

A

Fixed hard drive.

560
Q

A Computer Assisted Audit Tool (CAAT) will generally aid to perform all of the following except:
a. Imaging ERP systems to maintain authenticity
b. Extracting data from accounting or ERP systems
c. Running sophisticated queries against data set
d. Testing program logic & controls

A

Imaging ERP systems to maintain authenticity.

561
Q

The free space on a computer’s hard drive that is open to be written to as it is currently not being used by active files is often referred to as:
a. Allocated Space
b. Dislocated Space
c. Unallocated Space
d. Truncated Space

A

Unallocated Space.

562
Q

Metadata can provide all of the following activities of a file in a Windows operating system except:
a. Creation Date
b. Deletion Date
c. Accessed Date
d. Modification Date

A

Accessed date.

563
Q

All of the following types of investigations might involve network forensics except:
a. Internet history reconstruction
b. Denial of service attacks
c. Economic espionage
d. Email tracing

A

Economic espionage.

564
Q

Finding a location from where an email message was sent is referred to as:
a. IP Tracing
b. Skip Tracing
c. Domain Lookup
d. Originating Sourcing

A

IP Tracing.

565
Q

The part of the web not indexed by typical search engines is often referred to as:
a. The onion
b. The deep web
c. The dark web
d. Tor

A

The dark web.

566
Q

The part of the web that is only accessible through specialized software, configurations or authorization is often referred to as:
a. The onion
b. The deep web
c. The dark web
d. Tor

A

The dark web.

567
Q

A specialized piece of software used to access the dark web is:
a. The onion
b. Alta Vista
c. Firefox
d. Tor

A

Tor.

568
Q

The non-testifying expert serves as _____ whose work is not subject to discovery.
a. A discoverable expert
b. A consultant
c. A witness
d. A co-counsel

A

A consultant.

569
Q

In most jurisdictions and venues_____ must prepare and make available a written report to the court and the opposing side.
a. The expert witness
b. The expert consultant
c. Both the expert witness and expert consultant
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

The expert witness.

570
Q

The practitioner should closely supervise staff and be ready to testify that the work, exhibits, analyses, and other items were prepared under .
a. The direct control of the attorney
b. The practitioner’s direct control
c. The client’s direct control
d. Independently from the practitioner, the attorney and the client.

A

The practitioner’s direct control.

571
Q

An expert witness can base opinion testimony on .
a. Only facts that might be admissible into evidence
b. Only on facts admitted into evidence
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. The admitted and admissible evidence in the matter, publicly available information
and the evidence normally relied upon by this type of professional.

A

The admitted and admissible evidence in the matter, publicly available information and the evidence normally relied upon by this type of professional.

572
Q

The expert witness should understand that his or her _____ may be subject to cross-examination by opposing counsel.
a. Conclusions and professional judgments
b. Rebuttals but not conclusions
c. Conclusions but not professional judgments
d. Rebuttals but not professional judgements

A

Conclusions and professional judgments.

573
Q

The expert witness should understand that his or her _____ may be subject to cross-examination by opposing counsel.
a. Conclusions and professional judgments
b. Rebuttals but not conclusions
c. Conclusions but not professional judgments
d. Rebuttals but not professional judgements

A

Conclusions and professional judgments.

574
Q

The practitioner should .
a. Destroy all records, except formal reports, at the end of litigation
b. Immediately destroy all records, except formal reports, as they are contained in
reports
c. Adopt a formal policy for retaining records
d. Retain all records, including formal reports, for one year from adjudication or
settlement. Thereafter, all source documents and reports should be destroyed.

A

Adopt a formal policy for retaining records.

575
Q

_____ adequately plan and supervise work performed in support of his or her expert opinions.
a. The practitioner is required by civil law to
b. The practitioner is required by AICPA authoritative standards to
c. The practitioner is not required to
d. The practitioner is required in criminal cases only to

A

The practitioner is required by AICPA authoritative standards to

576
Q

In preparing expert reports, which of the following is an item that the professional may not rely on?
a. Financial statements
b. Simulations involving hypothetical data
c. Cash flow analysis
d. The professional may rely on all of the above

A

The professional may rely on all of the above.

577
Q

Rule 26 of the U.S. Federal Rules of Civil Procedure requires that, subject to exemptions (for example, privileged information), all parties to the lawsuit disclose, without a discovery request, all contacts, items, and _____ that may be used to support the disclosing party’s claims or defenses.
a. Damage computations
b. Witnesses
c. Evidence
d. Hearsay

A

Damage computations.

578
Q

Which of the following is not required to accompany an expert witness’s written report?
a. A statement of compensation in the case
b. Data relied upon and exhibits
c. His or her qualifications, including 10 years of publications
d. All of the above must be submitted with written reports from expert witnesses

A

All of the above must be submitted with written reports from expert witnesses.

579
Q

Regarding expert testimony, Rule 702 (Testimony by Experts) of the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence states if scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will assist the trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue, a witness qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education, may testify thereto in the form of an opinion or otherwise, if the testimony is based upon sufficient facts or data, the testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods, and .
a. The witness has applied the principles and evidence reliably to the conclusions of
the case
b. The witness has applied the evidence and assumptions reliably to the conclusions
of the case
c. The witness has applied the principles and evidence reliably to the facts of the case
d. The witness has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of the case

A

The witness has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of the case.

580
Q

In the _____, the U.S. Supreme Court first provided standards for what constitute “reliable principles and methods”:
a. Kumho Tire case
b. Daubert case
c. Frye case
d. Kelly case

A

Frye case.

581
Q

Prior to the Daubert decision, courts generally applied the _____ test for the admissibility of expert testimony.
a. Kumho Tire
b. Kelly
c. Frye
d. Mattco Forge

A

Frye.

582
Q

The U.S. Supreme Court provided standards for what constitutes “reliable principles and methods.” Which of the following is not one of these standards?
a. The technique or theory has been subjected to scientific testing.
b. The technique or theory has been published in peer-reviewed scientific journals.
c. The error rate for the technique is reasonably estimated or known.
d. All of the above are standards provided by the U.S. Supreme Court.

A

All of the above are standards provided by the U.S. Supreme Court.

583
Q

Basically speaking, the Frye test is a much more lenient test than that required by Daubert and mainly requires that the methods used by the expert to form conclusions are _____.
a. Subject to an error rate that is reasonably estimated or known
b. Generally acceptable in the scientific community
c. Subject to court approval
d. Generally not accepted in the forensics community

A

Generally acceptable in the scientific community.

584
Q

In contrast to expert testimony in which the witness is permitted to form conclusions and give opinions, nonexpert opinion testimony is subject to the personal knowledge rule. This rule limits the nonexpert’s opinion testimony to matters of the witness’s .
a. Justifiable conclusions
b. Justifiable assumptions
c. Verifiable beliefs
d. Rational perceptions

A

Rational perceptions.

585
Q

Generally speaking, “ordinary” witnesses, as opposed to expert witnesses, are permitted to testify based on .
a. Their opinions in conclusory terms
b. Their personal knowledge
c. Their opinions in conclusory terms that are based on their personal knowledge
d. All of the above

A

Their personal knowledge.

586
Q

Expert witnesses must be qualified by SKEET. The letter “T” in SKEET refers to .
a. Training
b. Technical skills
c. Technology
d. Trial expertise

A

Training.

587
Q

Expert witness services involve the member rendering an opinion before a trier of fact based on the member’s .
a. Direct knowledge of facts or events
b. Expertise, rather than his or her direct knowledge of facts or events
c. Indirect application of the code
d. Direct involvement in the event being tried

A

Expertise, rather than his or her direct knowledge of facts or events.

588
Q

The use of a forensic accountant as an expert witness is primarily to do which of the following?
a. Settle disputes out-of-court
b. Assist the trier of fact
c. Be an advocate for the plaintiff or defendant
d. Fulfill the court’s obligation of due diligence

A

Assist the trier of fact.

589
Q

As consultants, which of the following services do forensic accountants not provide?
a. Advice on fraud risk mitigation
b. Valuation of an estate
c. An opinion on the fair presentation of financial statements
d. Financial impact of mergers and acquisitions

A

An opinion on the fair presentation of financial statements.

590
Q

Forensic accountants can serve in which of the following roles?
a. Consultants to the court
b. Expert witnesses for plaintiffs
c. Consultants for attorneys
d. All of the above

A

All of the above.

591
Q

Practice aids in the AICPA’s Forensic and Valuation Services Library are
a. Nonauthoritative guidance for members
b. Authoritative guidance for AICPA members
c. Authoritative standards for members, unless contradicted by SSFS No. 1
d. Potentially authoritative for members, depending on the specifics of the
engagement

A

Nonauthoritative guidance for members.

592
Q

As defined by SSFS No. 1, forensic services include .
a. Litigation services
b. Investigative services
c. Both litigation and investigative services
d. Neither litigation nor investigation services

A

Both litigation and investigative services.

593
Q

The following is not a litigation service as defined by SSFS No. 1:
a. Litigation consulting services
b. Expert witness services
c. Arbitration services
d. All of the above are general types of litigation services

A

All of the above are general types of litigation services.

594
Q

In the context of valuation standards, a summary report is and must contain certain items at a minimum.
a. An abridged version of a detailed report
b. A special report in addition to a detailed report
c. Exempt from the reporting provisions of SSVS No. 1
d. Not used in forensic services

A

An abridged version of a detailed report.

595
Q

Regarding documentation used in support of a valuation report, SSVS No. 1 .
a. Requires, at a minimum, documentation to support such things as limiting
conditions, any restriction or limitation on the scope of the valuation, and so on
b. Requires only that the calculation details be included
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. States that the extent of supporting documentation is left to the judgment of the
analyst

A

States that the extent of supporting documentation is left to the judgment of the analyst.

596
Q

In calculation engagements, .
a. A higher standard for the minimum amount of documentation is applied
b. The analyst and the client agree on the valuation approaches and methods the
analyst will use
c. The analyst does not need to consider the purpose of the calculated value
d. The analyst does not need to consider the intended use of the calculated value

A

The analyst and the client agree on the valuation appraoches and methods the analyst will use.

597
Q

The final product of the valuation or calculation engagement is the valuation report. The report.
a. Must be written
b. May be either written or oral
c. May be either written or oral for calculation engagements
d. Must be both oral and written

A

May be either written or oral.

598
Q

In some cases, events may occur subsequent to the valuation date that may affect the firm’s value. The general rule is that the analyst .
a. Includes the effect of such events in his or her valuation and body of the final
report
b. Includes the effect of such events in the footnotes or appendix to the final report
c. Does not include the effect of such events on the value
d. Does not knowingly accept engagements with subsequent events

A

Does not include the effect of such events on the value.

599
Q

Which is a type of subpoena?
a. A subpoena duces tecum
b. A subpoena ad testificandum
c. Both a subpoena duces tecum and a subpoena ad testificante
d. None of the above

A

Both a subpoena duces tecum and a subpoena ad testificante.

600
Q

Which type of subpoena is applicable to an expert witness and requires the individual to bring evidence such as note, handbook or other written documentation?
a. A subpoena duces tecum
b. A subpoena ad testificandum
c. Both a subpoena duces tecum and a subpoena ad testificante
d. Neither a subpoena duces tecum nor a subpoena ad testificante

A

A subpoena duces tecum.

601
Q

In courts, only the net reduction in profits resulting from the detriment is allowed as damages. Further, the lost net profits must be for loss period.
a. An open
b. A clearly defined
c. A minimum
d. A maximum

A

A clearly defined.

602
Q

What type of causation supports recovering lost profits in patent infringement cases?
a. Sufficient
b. Transactional
c. Proximate
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

603
Q

Speculative growth rates may be used in estimating .
a. Foreseeable profits
b. Taxable profits
c. Non-foreseeable profits
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

604
Q

For contract damages, the loss period typically begins at the time of breach and ends when .
a. The case is settled
b. A judgment is entered
c. The contract ends
d. The contract begins

A

The contract ends.

605
Q

Generally speaking, lost profits damages end when .
a. The business operations return to normal
b. A lawsuit is filed
c. A judgment is entered
d. The business incurs a loss

A

The business operations return to normal.

606
Q

In calculating costs relevant to lost profits, the practitioner should deduct any costs associated with lost revenues.
a. Sunk
b. Avoided
c. Unavoidable
d. Capital

A

Avoided.

607
Q

Generally speaking, future lost profits must .
a. Be discounted to present value
b. Be discounted to future value
c. Be rolled forward with interest
d. Be compounded with interest for future value

A

Be discounted to present value.

608
Q

The ex-post approach to discounting lost profits uses information known or knowable at _____.
a. The time of trial
b. The time of breach
c. The time of final judgment
d. The time of mistrial

A

The time of trial.

609
Q

With respect to calculating lost profits, subsequent events can
a. Suspend the loss period only
b. Permanently terminate the loss period only
c. Either suspend the loss period or permanently terminate it
d. Not affect the loss period

A

Either suspend the loss period or permanently terminate it.

610
Q

Economic damages to individuals, which include personal damages, may be referred to as:
a. Consecutive damages
b. Unmitigated damages
c. Legal damages
d. Special damages

A

Special damages.

611
Q

Generally speaking, individual damage awards are not reduced by
a. Amounts received or realized by the claimant
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Personal consumption costs in wrongful death cases
d. All of the above are used to reduce individual damage awards

A

All of the above are used to reduce individual damage awards.

612
Q

For individual losses, the loss period is the individual’s work life or life expectancy, depending on the type of loss. Future losses are projected over this period and then typically discounted back to .
a. The trial date
b. The date of the loss
c. The date of the final judgment
d. Future losses are not projected

A

The trial date.

613
Q

In calculating damages for an individual, the practitioner uses “but for” (the wrongful acts) calculations for the damages. “But for” earnings are referred to as .
a. Impaired earnings
b. Unimpaired earnings
c. Either impaired or unimpaired earnings
d. Neither impaired nor unimpaired earnings

A

Unimpaired earnings.

614
Q

Future lost earnings are usually discounted back to _____ .
a. The date of the trial
b. The date of the final judgment
c. The date of the loss
d. Future losses are not projected

A

The date of the trial.

615
Q

_____ should be considered in the calculation of an individual’s lost earnings.
a. Taxes paid by the individual
b. Health insurance premiums paid by the individual
c. Social Security payments made by the individual
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

616
Q

In calculating lost income for an individual, the practitioner
a. Should also consider possible lost income from sources other than earnings
b. Should also consider possible lost income from sources other than earnings but
should not impute costs due the lost ability to perform income-earning activities
c. Should only consider lost earnings
d. None of the above are correct statements

A

Should also consider possible lost income from sources other than earnings.

617
Q

The loss of enjoyment and pleasures in life (hedonic losses) _____ be included in the calculations of individual damages.
a. May, depending on the federal district,
b. May not
c. May, depending on the state,
d. Normally must

A

May, depending on the state,

618
Q

Regarding damages for patent infringements, the general rule is that the victim may recover lost profits or _____ , and also interest costs fixed by the court.
a. No more than a reasonable royalty
b. No less than a reasonable royalty
c. An amount equal to a reasonable royalty
d. An average amount equivalent to reasonable royalties

A

No less than a reasonable royalty.

619
Q

Regarding damages for copyright infringement, owners may recover _____.
a. The statutory damages provided in the relevant state
b. Actual damages
c. Imputed damages
d. The statutory damages provided from a national average

A

Actual damages.

620
Q

Recoverable damages for trademark infringement may include actual damages (lost profits), or a reasonable royalty, or alternatively the infringer’s profits or _____.
a. A decrease in value associated with the infringement
b. A statutory amount provided by state law
c. A statutory amount provided by U.S. Federal law
d. An increase in value associated with the infringement

A

A statutory amount provided by state law.

621
Q

Damage calculations in relation to trade secret misappropriation are typically based on a theory of _____.
a. Misappropriation
b. A confidential relationship rather than misappropriation
c. Either a confidential relationship or misappropriation
d. Materiality

A

Misappropriation.

622
Q

The calculations for intellectual property infringement damages _____ calculations for valuing intellectual property for transactional purposes.
a. Are similar to
b. Are identical to
c. Are significantly different from
d. Are based on the average of

A

Are significantly different from.

623
Q

Generally speaking, intellectual property infringement damages are generally calculated on _____ because such damages are taxable as ordinary income.
a. A pretax basis
b. A post-tax basis
c. A basis without respect to taxes
d. A basis of tax averages

A

A pretax basis.

624
Q

_____ measure is commonly used to calculate compensatory damages for intellectual property infringement.
a. A court-defined
b. The cost-basis
c. The market value
d. A pre-defined

A

The market value.

625
Q

The goal of _____ awards is to deprive the infringer of any gains resulting from the infringement and instead award them to the owner of the intellectual property.
a. Unjust enrichment
b. Lost opportunity
c. Punitive
d. Mitigating

A

Unjust enrichment.

626
Q

Individual debtors who cannot pass a means test must file under .
a. Chapter 13 instead of Chapter 7
b. Chapter 7 instead of Chapter 11
c. Chapter 13 instead of Chapter 11
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

627
Q

Means testing individuals is a central part of the most recent reforms in bankruptcy laws and have made it more difficult for individuals to have their debts .
a. Totally discharged
b. Subjected to a payment plan
c. Exempt from an IRS review
d. Enforced

A

Totally discharged.

628
Q

If a consumer debtor’s current median income (adjusted for certain IRS-allowed deductions) exceeds specific maximum-income thresholds, _____ may request that the case be dismissed.
a. Only the trustee
b. Only the creditors
c. Only the court
d. Any party of interest

A

Any party of interest.

629
Q

The bankruptcy law requires _____ to investigate the client’s filing.
a. Practitioners
b. Attorneys
c. The bankruptcy magistrate
d. IRS agents

A

Attorneys.

630
Q

Secretly transferring assets and selling assets below market value refers to .
a. A fraudulent conveyance
b. A filing scheme
c. Undocumented transfers
d. Skimming

A

A fraudulent conveyance.

631
Q

Which of the following schedules and statements is not typically included with a bankruptcy filing?
a. Statement of financial affairs
b. Creditors holding standard unsecured claims
c. Co-debtor
d. All of the above are normally included

A

Creditors holding standard unsecured claims.

632
Q

Rule 2004 of the U.S. Federal Bankruptcy Code permits _____ to obtain a court order to examine any entity involved with the case.
a. The trustee only
b. Creditors only
c. The court only
d. Any party in interest

A

Any party of interest.

633
Q

Which of the following debts may be discharged in bankruptcy?
a. U.S. Federal student loans
b. Tax debt older than five years
c. Domestic support obligations
d. None of the above may be discharged

A

Tax debt older than five years.

634
Q

_____ is one of the most common types of fraud because there are so many simple ways to commit this type of fraud.
a. Improper revenue recognition
b. Misstatements of assets
c. The creation of fictitious assets
d. The creation of fictitious liabilities

A

Improper revenue recognition.

635
Q

Financial statement fraud committed _____ is especially common because it can be committed simply and decrease the cost of goods sold.
a. By understating beginning inventories
b. By overcounting ending inventories
c. By undercounting ending inventories
d. By using identical inventory counts every period

A

By overcounting ending inventories.

636
Q

With Ponzi-type schemes, the fraud will typically involve _____ as a way of covering up the underlying fraud scheme.
a. The creation of fictitious assets
b. The understatement of expenses
c. Earnings management
d. Misappropriation

A

The creation of fictitious assets.

637
Q

There are various motives for committing financial statement fraud. Top of the list is _____ .
a. Business impression management
b. Compliance with bondholder covenants
c. Covering up poor income performance
d. Earnings management

A

Covering up poor income performance.

638
Q

Which of the following categories does not produce red flags for financial statement fraud?
a. Weak corporate governance structures
b. Industry environment and conditions
c. Personnel practices
d. All of the above may produce red flags

A

All of the above may produce red flags.

639
Q

Generally speaking, which of the following events will not trigger an SEC investigation?
a. A review of forms filed with the SEC
b. Routine inspections of persons or entities regulated by the SEC
c. News reports
d. All of the above may trigger an SEC investigation

A

All of the above may trigger an SEC investigation.

640
Q

In a typical case, the company will receive a letter from the SEC indicating that it is opening an investigation. In this phase, the SEC has .
a. Formal subpoena power
b. Court-approved subpoena power
c. Subpoena power based on probable cause
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

641
Q

In a typical case, the company will receive a letter from the SEC indicating that it is opening an investigation. In this phase, the investigation becomes public .
a. Immediately—SEC investigations are public information
b. Immediately when the SEC formalizes its investigation
c. Immediately when the SEC begins an enforcement action
d. The investigation never becomes public.

A

Immediately when the SEC begins an enforcement action.

642
Q

A Wells notice is issued by the SEC in the _____ phase of an investigation.
a. Informal
b. Formal
c. Enforcement
d. Preparatory

A

Enforcement.

643
Q

When conducting interviews to investigate fraud, likely suspects should be interviewed.
a. First
b. After the preliminary investigation is complete
c. Last
d. None of the above

A

Last.

644
Q

Forensic accounting experts use special methods to analyze financial transactions. Fraud schemes generally produce _____ in the financial records.
a. Losses
b. Indicia
c. Missing data
d. Gains

A

Indicia.

645
Q

From an organizational standpoint, fraud is managed as part of the _____ .
a. Enterprise risk management strategy
b. Audit process
c. CFOs’ and CFEs’ explicit obligation under SOX
d. Review process

A

Enterprise risk management strategy.

646
Q

In an effective corporate governance structure, an effective business ethics system.
a. The CEO
b. The CFO or controller
c. The board of directors
d. None of the above

A

The CEO.

647
Q

The board typically delegates its fraud risk management responsibilities to the audit committee. The committee should comprise independent board members, with at least one financial expert (preferably an accountant) and should regularly meet _____ .
a. With the internal auditor alone
b. With the internal auditor and a designated representative of management
c. With the internal auditor and the controller or CFO
d. With the internal auditor and the controller

A

With the internal auditor alone.

648
Q

The first person the audit committee should consult when fraud is suspected is .
a. The external auditor
b. Legal counsel
c. The controller
d. The press

A

The external auditor.

649
Q

Red flags indicating fraud should be understood by .
a. Top management
b. Top management and middle management
c. All levels of management and staff
d. None of the above

A

All levels of management and staff.

650
Q

_____ should provide assurances to the board (via the audit committee) that fraud controls are sufficient for the risks and are functioning effectively.
a. The CEO
b. The CFO or controller
c. The internal auditor
d. The OOO

A

The internal auditor.

651
Q

Given a strong governance structure, the focus should be on effective processes for (which, in turn, must be followed by a focus on fraud prevention, fraud detection, and fraud investigation).
a. Enterprise risk management
b. Fraud auditing
c. Fraud risk assessment
d. Enterprise fraud management

A

Fraud risk assessment.

652
Q

Management should appoint a risk assessment team to include accounting and finance personnel, legal counsel, risk management personnel, internal audit staff, and, in general, anyone who may be helpful. The team should brainstorm to identify fraud risks. In order to accomplish this task, the team must understand _____ .
a. The likelihood of each relevant fraud
b. The population of fraud risks
c. A reasonable sample of fraud risks
d. An average of relevant frauds

A

The population of fraud risks.

653
Q

When estimating significance of a given fraud risk, the team should consider .
a. The significance to the organization’s operations, brand value, and reputation
b. Legal liability (criminal, civil, and regulatory)
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b).

654
Q

Which of the following is not an option for management in dealing with residual fraud risk?
a. Simply accept a given risk
b. Increase the level of control to compensate for a given risk
c. Both (a) and (b) are options for management
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b) are options for management.

655
Q

The first line of defense in minimizing fraud risk is _____.
a. Fraud detection
b. Fraud investigation
c. Fraud correction
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

656
Q

Which of the following is not a standard area or type of fraud preventive control?
a. Human resources
b. Antifraud training
c. Authority limits
d. All of the above are standard areas or types of fraud preventive controls

A

All of the above are standard areas or types of fraud preventive controls.

657
Q

Generally speaking, which of the following is most likely to detect fraud?
a. Internal audits
b. External audits
c. Hotlines
d. Audit committees

A

Hotlines.

658
Q

Fraud detection is furthered by process controls. Such controls are designed to detect _____.
a. Fraud only
b. Errors only
c. Both fraud and errors
d. Cyber security threats only

A

Both fraud and errors.

659
Q

For patents, the owner entitled to prejudgment interest that accrues from the date that damages began.
a. Is
b. Is, in some districts,
c. Is, if nonduplicative damages are involved,
d. Is not

A

Is.

660
Q

Many courts accept the four-factor Panduit test as a way for a .
a. Patent holder to prove entitlement due to a decline in market value
b. Trademark holder to prove entitlement due to a decline in market value
c. Patent holder to prove entitlement to lost profits
d. Trademark holder to prove entitlement to lost profits

A

Patent holder to prove entitlement to lost profits.

661
Q

In copyright, trademark, trade secret, and trade dress cases, lost profits represent those profits that the intellectual property owner failed to earn as a result of the infringement. The lost profit test typically applies only if the intellectual property owner and the infringer were .
a. Actual competitors
b. Noncompetitors
c. In the same district
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

662
Q

For products marketed as patented, the damage period begins when the infringing product is .
a. Manufactured
b. Exported
c. Copied by the infringer
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

663
Q

Once the infringement has been established, the infringer and/or their damages expert typically argues that the lost revenues _____ related costs.
a. Be reduced by
b. Be increased by the exact amount of
c. Are not affected by
d. Be increased by an average of

A

Be reduced by.

664
Q

Other methods, besides Georgia-Pacific factors, of determining a reasonable royalty rate may include the .
a. Post-infringement method
b. Analytical method
c. Statutory method
d. Reasonability method

A

Analytical method.

665
Q

In arguing unjust enrichment, the issue of apportionment applies: Only the portion of profits from infringing sales that can be ascribed to the intellectual property in question may be awarded. The burden of proving costs falls on the defendant. Which of the following is not a factor that the defendant may use to prove deductions from sales?
a. Costs of capital
b. Intellectual property elements
c. Business reputation
d. All of the above may be used

A

All of the above may be used.

666
Q

In patent cases, upon a finding of willful infringement, the court may award _____.
a. An amount of punitive damages per the court’s discretion
b. Punitive damages up to treble damages
c. Punitive damages in excess of treble damages
d. Punitive damages are never awarded in patent cases

A

Punitive damages up to treble damages.

667
Q

In copyright cases, courts may use the market value as an alternative damage measurement in the event that _____ can be reasonably determined.
a. Neither lost sales nor a reasonable royalty
b. Only lost sales
c. Only a reasonable royalty
d. Both lost sales and reasonable royalty

A

Neither lost sales nor a reasonable royalty.

668
Q

In applying the market value test, a number of courts use the value to the infringer for the use of the copyrighted work, rather than the _____ .
a. Historical value
b. Statutory value
c. The value a willing buyer and willing seller would have negotiated
d. Discounted present value

A

Statutory value.

669
Q

Which of the following is not a service normally provided by the practitioner in relation to divorces?
a. The identification of assets, liabilities, and family income
b. The determination of the nature or character of assets and liabilities
c. The valuation or quantification, or both, of assets, liabilities, and income
d. All of the above are services normally provided in relation to divorces

A

All of the above are services normally provided in relation to divorces.

670
Q

Generally speaking, the marital estate _____ appreciation on nonmarital property and comingled nonmarital assets.
a. Always includes
b. Prevents
c. May include
d. Never includes

A

May include.

671
Q

How property is titled _____ whether property is marital or separate, depending on the applicable state law and facts of the case.
a. Always determines
b. Is irrelevant to
c. May determine
d. Never determines

A

May determine.

672
Q

Generally speaking, the marital characterization of secured debt is matched with .
a. The related asset
b. Related unsecured debt
c. Market value of the related asset
d. Fair value of comparable assets

A

The related asset.

673
Q

In divorce cases, most states _____ for measuring value.
a. Provide clear standards
b. Provide multiple standards
c. Provide no standards
d. Provide a single standard

A

Provide no standards.

674
Q

In some jurisdictions, _____ may be a separate asset.
a. Personal goodwill
b. Practice goodwill
c. Reasonable goodwill
d. Practical goodwill

A

Personal goodwill.

675
Q

In many cases of divorce, _____ may easily be divided.
a. Benefits arising from a defined benefits plan
b. Benefits arising from a defined contribution plan
c. Benefits arising from an employer-paid plan
d. Benefits arising from employee stock option plans

A

Benefits arising from a defined contribution plan.

676
Q

If conflicts arise between state and federal law regarding _____ , U.S. Federal law controls.
a. Retirement assets
b. Nonretirement assets
c. All assets
d. Nonretirement obligations

A

Retirement assets.

677
Q

The IRS provides guidelines on how QDROs must be written in order to make the division a nontaxable event. The guidelines are applicable to _____ retirement plans.
a. Nongovernmental ERISA-qualified
b. Governmental and nongovernmental ERISA-qualified
c. Governmental ERISA-qualified
d. All of the above

A

Nongovernmental ERISA-qualified.

678
Q

Many times, _____ retirement plans cannot be physically divided at the time of the divorce but are divided by asset offsets or as the benefits are paid.
a. Qualified
b. Nonqualified
c. ERISA
d. Controlled

A

Nonqualified.

679
Q

In order to be _____ stock option, the option, according to its terms, cannot be transferable except by death and can only be exercisable by the employee during the employee’s lifetime.
a. A qualified
b. A non-qualified
c. An ERISA
d. A corporate

A

A qualified.

680
Q

For purposes of valuing options in divorce cases, the Black-Scholes model is .
a. Generally accepted in all districts
b. Rejected in some districts in favor of the intrinsic value model
c. Not accepted due to its theoretical weaknesses
d. Too simple to be a viable resource

A

Rejected in some districts in favor of the intrinsic value model.

681
Q

The marital residence is another possible source of contention. Typical issues involve the value of the residence and possible expenses and tax consequences relating to a sale, when there is no intention to sell the property. Some jurisdictions do not consider the expenses associated with the sale of a residence or the tax consequences of a hypothetical transaction unless they are _____ .
a. Quantifiable and are anticipated to occur in the immediate future
b. Quantifiable and are anticipated to occur within five years
c. Not quantifiable
d. Qualified within five years

A

Quantifiable and are anticipated to occur in the immediate future.

682
Q

Spousal and child support represents an important area of family law. The first step in calculating support is determining the parties’ incomes. In determining income, _____ .
a. Some states use cash flows; others use taxable income
b. All states use taxable income
c. All states use taxable or pretax income
d. All states use cash flows

A

Some states use cash flows; others use taxable income.

683
Q

Child support is determined by _____ and is typically based on the incomes of the spouses.
a. Marital decrees
b. Marital settlement agreements
c. Published guidelines
d. Court-specific guidelines

A

Published guidelines.

684
Q

Courts may impute income to _____ spouse.
a. An employed
b. An underemployed
c. An unemployed
d. Both (b) and (c) are correct

A

Both (b) and (c) are correct.

685
Q

Social Security benefits are .
a. Marital property in some states
b. Never marital property
c. Marital property in all states
d. Marital property in almost all states

A

Never marital property.

686
Q

After _____ years of marriage, an individual’s contributions to Social Security can produce a benefit for an ex-spouse.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

10.

687
Q

IRS rules require the payer to recapture income if the payer reduces the amount of spousal support by more than _____ per year in any of the first three calendar years it is paid.
a. $5,000
b. $10,000
c. $15,000
d. $20,000

A

$15,000.

688
Q

Recapture of deductions for spousal support is not required if the payments are stopped due to the recipient’s death or remarriage, the payments are made under a temporary support order, or the payments are made _____.
a. Within the first three years after the divorce is final
b. As a fixed percentage of income
c. As an integral part of permanent alimony
d. Within the first year after the divorce is final

A

As a fixed percentage of income.

689
Q

In community property states, relief from joint and several tax liability in cases of separate returns may be granted for couples who are married anytime during the year but _____.
a. Live apart by at least December 31
b. Live apart beginning on January 1
c. Do not live apart
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

690
Q

For income tax purposes, the determinative date for the divorce is the date a family court issues a final decree of divorce or _____ .
a. A decree of what constitutes a legal separation under local laws
b. The date of separation
c. The filing date for the divorce
d. The date is not determinable

A

A decree of what constitutes a legal separation under local laws.

691
Q

Someone who is married on December 31 but who pays for and maintains a home for a child for _____ will qualify to file as head of household.
a. The entire year
b. More than one-half of the year
c. Two consecutive years
d. Three consecutive years

A

More than one-half of the year.

692
Q

In the year of separation or divorce, or in the predivorce years in which the parties file separately in community property states, community income, deductions, payments, and credits earned by both parties during the part of the year prior to the termination of the community are reportable _____ on his or her separate returns (or joint return with a new spouse) filed for the year.
a. By the recipient
b. One-half by each spouse
c. Jointly
d. By the payer

A

One-half by each spouse.

693
Q

Generally speaking, in common law or equitable distribution states, the income, deductions, payments, or credits are treated as belonging to
a. Both spouses
b. The party who earned the income or owned the property from which the income
was generated
c. The spouse with the larger income
d. Neither spouse

A

The party who earned the income or owned the property from which the income was generated.

694
Q

The IRS allows two different methods to allocate income from subchapter S corporations and partnerships in the year during which the taxpayer’s ownership of the entity terminates. The pass- through income may be allocated based on the percentage of ownership during the year. Alternatively, the pass-through income may be allocated based on _____ amounts.
a. Predivorce versus post-divorce
b. Relative contributions of the spouses to the business
c. The personal goodwill of one spouse versus the total value of the business
d. All of the above may be used as an allocated basis

A

Predivorce versus post-divorce.

695
Q

Generally speaking, the tax basis of property .
a. Is allocated to one spouse or the other, based on the final decree
b. Follows the property awarded to each spouse
c. Is divided evenly regardless of which spouse the property is awarded to
d. Is never allocated

A

Follows the property awarded to each spouse.

696
Q

The custodial exception permits a custodial parent of a child who has lived with that parent for the greater portion of the tax year to be eligible for the dependency exemption deduction. Which of the following is not a requirement for the custodial exception?
a. One or both parents together must provide over half of the child’s support during
the year
b. The child must be less than 19 years old as of December 31
c. The child is a student less than 25 years old as of December 31
d. None of the above

A

The child is a student less than 25 years old as of December 31.

697
Q

Under IRS rules, marital property transfers are generally treated .
a. As gifts with carryover basis
b. As taxable transfers with no carryover basis
c. As foreign transfers subject to special rules
d. As non-taxable, non-basis transfers

A

As gifts with carryover basis.

698
Q

If an individual receives a residential real estate property in a divorce under a transaction subject to IRC Section 1041 (Transfers of property between spouses or incident to divorce), the prior spouse’s use and holding period is _____ the individual’s use and holding period for purposes of such tests.
a. Separate from
b. Relatively more important than
c. Combined with
d. The same as

A

Combined with.

699
Q

Transfers of stock options can also be structured as nontaxable events. If a transfer in divorce does create a taxable event, IRC Section 1041 (Transfers of property between spouses or incident to divorce) _____ .
a. Designates which spouse is taxed
b. Permits selection of the spouse to be taxed
c. Defines a 3-part test to determine which spouse it taxed
d. Does not permit selection of spouse for taxation

A

Permits selection of the spouse to be taxed.

700
Q

The nonemployee spouse can roll the funds distributed via a QDRO into an IRA. Alternatively, the nonemployee spouse can keep the funds in a nonretirement account and pay taxes on the balance received and avoid _____ .
a. Taxes on the transfer
b. An early withdrawal penalty
c. A transfer penalty
d. A late withdrawal penalty

A

An early withdrawal penalty.

701
Q

Generally speaking, SEPs and SIMPLE plans are _____ distributed at divorce or separation without taxes.
a. Almost never
b. Never
c. Always
d. Occasionally

A

Always.

702
Q

Regarding ownership information, the valuation analyst should .
a. Assess the potential effect on subject interest’s value
b. Understand the rights related to each intangible asset
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

Both (a) and (b).

703
Q

The analyst should consider the _____ common valuation approaches.
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Seven

A

Three.

704
Q

Two valuation methods frequently used to value future benefits include the capitalization of benefits method and the _____ method.
a. Accumulated ownership benefits
b. Guideline capitalization of benefits
c. Discounted future benefits
d. Associated liability

A

Discounted future benefits.

705
Q

Which of the following is not typically considered by a valuation analyst when taking into account future earnings or cash flows?
a. Normalization adjustments
b. Nonrecurring revenue and expense items
c. Taxes and capital structure and financing costs
d. All of the above are typically considered

A

All of the above are typically considered.

706
Q

In the _____ method, the analyst considers assumptions relating to projections, projected earnings or cash flows, and the terminal value of the subject interest.
a. Remaining benefits
b. Accumulated benefits
c. Compounded benefits
d. None of the above

A

None of the above.

707
Q

Regardless of the method applied, which of the following is not relevant to an intangible asset?
a. Research, development or marketing expense to support the intangible asset’s
existing state
b. Allocation of income (for example, incremental income, residual income, or profit
split income) to intangible asset
c. Tax amortization benefits
d. All of the above should be considered relevant

A

All of the above are considered relevant.

708
Q

When using methods under the cost approach to value intangible assets, the valuation analyst should consider the type of to be used, and, when applicable, the appropriate forms of depreciation and obsolescence and the remaining useful life of the intangible asset.
a. Value
b. Cost
c. Asset
d. Equity

A

Cost.

709
Q

The guideline public company method applies to the _____ approach.
a. Income
b. Market
c. Asset
d. Equity

A

Market.

710
Q

The relief from royalty method relies on .
a. A royalty rate
b. A royalty value
c. A royalty standard
d. A royalty expense

A

A royalty rate.

711
Q

For the methods involving guideline intangible assets (for example, the comparable profit margin method), the valuation analyst should consider the subject intangible asset’s remaining useful life relative to _____, if available.
a. The remaining useful life of the guideline intangible assets
b. The terminal value of the guideline intangible assets
c. The market value of the guideline intangible assets
d. The fair value of the guideline intangible assets

A

The remaining useful life of the guideline intangible assets.

712
Q

Valuation analysts sometimes use rules of thumb or industry benchmark indicators in valuation engagements. Such rules of thumb .
a. Cannot act as stand-alone valuation methods
b. Can act as stand-alone valuation calculations
c. Can act as stand-alone valuation methods
d. Can act as stand-alone valuation calculations but not methods

A

Cannot act as stand-alone valuation methods.

713
Q

Once initial valuation estimates are produced as a result of the analyst applying a valuation approach and methods, _____ may be necessary and therefore must be considered.
a. Final considerations
b. The obsolescence of valuation adjustments
c. Valuation adjustments
d. Planning considerations

A

Valuation adjustments.

714
Q

When valuing a controlling ownership interest under the income and market approaches, the value of any nonoperating assets, nonoperating liabilities, or excess or deficient operating assets should be _____ when determining the value of the operating business and should be added or deducted when determining the value of the legal entity as a whole.
a. Added to
b. Excluded from
c. Added to or excluded from
d. Neither added nor excluded from

A

Excluded from.

715
Q

In arriving at _____ , the analyst should correlate and reconcile the results obtained under the different approaches and methods used.
a. The valuation estimates
b. A conclusion of value
c. A concluding projection
d. A valuation projection

A

A conclusion of value.