CFD Apparatus Awareness Flashcards

1
Q

How many types of CFD engines are there?

A

4
Smeal
Superior
Rosenbauer
E-one Cyclone

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2
Q

Inspection of the air brake system and reporting/documentation of deficiencies is legally required by who?

A

NSC and Alberta Commercial vehicle safety regulations

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3
Q

What is CFD policy in regard to bay doors when moving an apparatus?

A

Must be fully open

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4
Q

How much steering wheel play is allowed? (Movement in steering wheel without moving wheels)

A

10 degrees in either direction

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5
Q

How do you know tires are over inflated?

A

More tread wear in the middle of the tire

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6
Q

How do you know tires are underinflated?

A

Less wear in the middle, bulging on the side walls

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7
Q

Effects of bulging tires (underinflated)?

A

Affects duel tire handling and creates excess heat

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8
Q

What are you looking for during tire/rim inspection?

A

Cracks, or damage in anyway, properly seated on the rim, no rocks or debris in between the duel tires

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9
Q

NFPA 1500 require what when backing up an apparatus?

A

At least 1 spotter

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10
Q

True or False: cameras are a safe replacement for spotters?

A

False

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11
Q

If there is no spotter available to back up an apparatus, what must be done?

A

Stop, dismount, and perform a visual 360 around the vehicle. Then back up at a speed no faster than someone can comfortably walk

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12
Q

CFD safe positioning for a spotter when backing up?

A

6m behind and 1.2m from the left rear side in sight of the operators mirror

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13
Q

Most common error of the spotter?

A

Standing too close to the apparatus

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14
Q

What is the statistic for fatalities in regard to seatbelts?

A

The %7 of Canadians that don’t wear seat belts account for 40 of fatalities in MVCs

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15
Q

Distance a train needs to stop?

A

1.5 - 2km
By the time the engineer sees the vehicle. Trains weigh 5000x more than a car and can travel up to 90km/hr

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16
Q

Contributing factors of excessive speeding in collisions?

A
  • Less time to react and stop
  • overestimated driving skills
  • reduced ability to steer
  • increased stopping distance
    Speed is a factor in %20 of collisions
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17
Q

What is total stopping distance?

A

The distance from the point you perceive the need to stop to the point where the vehicle IS stopped

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18
Q

What is perception time?

A

The time for a driver to recognize a need to stop

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19
Q

What is reaction time?

A

The time it takes for a driver to move their foot and activate the brakes

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20
Q

What is the average brake reaction time?

A

3/4 of a second

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21
Q

What is brake distance?

A

How far the vehicle travels from brake activation to a stop

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22
Q

Factors affection brake distance?

A

Tire tread, weather, road conditions, brake condition,

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23
Q

What is threshold breaking?

A

Applying maximum break force without locking the breaks

24
Q

What is brake lag?

A

The time it takes for the air to travel through the brake system (Approx four tenths of a second)

25
What is brake drag?
If there is brake lock up, it is the time it takes for air to be released from the brake system to release them (Approx one-fifth of a second)
26
What is Angel of Departure?
Due to the distance between rear axle to rear bumper, there is the possibility of dragging the rear end when ascending or descending slopes. Also true for making turns out of the fire hall
27
What are two ways to lose traction?
Straight line skid Slide/spin around its center of gravity
28
4 Key points in regard to Steering?
- Hands at 10 and 2 position - Positive contact with both hands on the wheel (hand over hand method - Minimum steering input - Steer only as much as necessary minimum hand movement
29
What is dry steering?
Turning the steering wheel while the vehicle is stationary
30
What is the Electrical load Manager?
Controls up to 12 circuits. Lights are activated in a pre-determined sequence and shut off in the opposite order.
31
At what voltage does high idle activate when the engine draws too much power for the lighting system?
12.5 volts. Do not engage transmission while in high idle in this condition
32
Why should you let the engine warm up prior to applying load?
Allows oil (lubricants) to flow to all the proper parts of the engine, especially the turbo charger which spins at a high speed.
33
How long should you wait for the engine to warm up?
15 sec, to pump oil to critical areas
34
How long should you idle to engine before shut down?
5 min
35
What is the leading cause of Turbo charger failure?
Rapid shutdown of a hot Engine
36
What are Opticoms?
IR transmitters mounted on the trucks to preempt traffic lights to provide a safe right-of-way, reduce response times, and halt conflicting traffic. They operate on line-of-sight.
37
What is ATC?
Automatic traction control. When wheel slip occurs, braking is automatically applied to the slipping wheel as well as decreased engine speed until traction is achieved.
38
What is ESC?
Electronic Stability Control. An extension of the electronic braking system, it detects any skidding or rollover tendancy about the vertical axis. Sensors detect lateral acceleration, and steering angle.
39
What is RSC?
Roll Stability Control. Assists drivers in managing the conditions that may result in a rollover. Reduces engine torque, engages engine retarders and applies pressure to drive axle brakes
40
Recommended speed for ONSPOT chain activation?
Between 5 and 60km/per hour
41
Can you activate ONSPOT chains while slipping?
Yes. However, you must spin the tires up to 10km/per hour then activate the chains, when you feel the chains bite, stop spinning the wheels and drive slow.
42
How can air brakes fail?
Through the pneumatic system itself or, if one brake fails, the other 3 have to dissipate more heat which can lead to brake fade or failure.
43
The degree of traction depends on what 3 things?
Road conditions Tire contact area and tread conditions Gross vehicle weight
44
What are the 5 components of the air brake system?
- Compressor - Reservoir - Treadle - Brake chambers - Brake shoes and drums or callipers
45
Air brakes: Function of compressor?
Pumps air
46
Air brakes: Function of the Reservoir?
Stores compressed air
47
Air brakes: Function of the Treadle?
Draws compressed air from the reservoir when it's needed
48
Air brakes: Functions of Brake chambers?
Transfers force exerted by compressed air to mechanical linkages
49
Air brakes: Brake shoe, drums or callipers?
Creates friction required to stop the vehicle
50
What is the safety release valve pressure in the air brake system when pressure builds too high?
1050 kPa
51
What controls the minimum/ maximum pressure in the air brake system?
A governor
52
What are automatic slack adjusters?
A component that automatically adjusts the clearance between the break lining and the drum.
53
What is the air pressure for when the low air pressure alarm sounds?
380kPa
54
At what pressure should the Park break "pop"?
140kPa - 300kPa
55
During the air break build up test, how much time should it take for the pressure to build from 350-620kPa?
Within 3 minutes
56
When should audible and visual low air alarms deactivate?
400kPa
57
At what pressure will the governor cut out when charging the air breaks?
830kPa - 930kPa