CFA Level 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Primary and Secondary source of liquidity

A

Primary sources of liquidity refer to funds that are readily accessible to a company at a relatively low cost. They can be held as cash or cash equivalents, and include:
* Cash available in bank accounts;
* Short-term funds, such as lines of credit and trade credit; and
* Cash flow management.

Secondary sources of liquidity include:
* Negotiating debt contracts to reduce the burdens of high- interest payments or principal repayment;
* Liquidating assets; and
* Filing for bankruptcy protection and reorganization.

Using secondary source of liquidity may impact a company’s financial and operating position.

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2
Q

How do you calculate Inventory Days on Hand?

A

Inventory Days on Hand = (Average Inventory for the Year / Cost of Goods Sold) X 365

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3
Q

What is Proprietary Trading?

A

Proprietary trading refers to a financial firm or commercial bank that invests for direct market gain rather than earning commission dollars by trading on behalf of clients.

Also known as “prop trading” and leverage is commonly used.

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4
Q

Should financing cost be included in NPV calc?

A

Not in discounting cash flows but in determining the WACC (discount rate)

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5
Q

What is project sequencing?

A

It is the evaluation and seleciton of capital projects wherein the finance manager decised whether or not to invest in a future proect based on the outcome of one or more currect projects. It is a timing option

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6
Q

How do you calculate Cash Conversion Cycle?

A

Cash Conversion Cycle = Days Inventory Outstanding + Days Sales Outstanding – Days Payables Outstanding

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7
Q

How do you calculate Days Sales Outstanding??

A

DSO = (Account Receivable/Total Credit Sales) * Number of Days in The Period

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8
Q

How do you calculate Days Payables Outstanding??

A

DPO = (Accounts Payable/Purchases) * Number of Days

OR

DPO = (Accounts Payable/COGS) * Number of Days

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9
Q

Is financing rollover risk greater for short or long-term obligations

A

Rollover risk is greater for short-term obligations. Short-term however is usually a cheaper source of financing.

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10
Q

Is financing cost included in calculating the operating break evenpoint (Q_OBE)?

A

No, but it is included in the (total) break evenpoint (Q_BE)

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11
Q

What is the formula for determing the price in which a margin call will be sent out?

A

Margin = Equity / Market vale =
[Initial deposit + (P - Initial Price)] / P

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12
Q

How does a limit buy order work?

A

The order gets filled at best price as long as the price is lower than the limit price

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13
Q

What is the disposition effect?

A

The disposition effect is an anomaly discovered in behavioral finance. It relates to the tendency of investors to sell assets that have increased in value, while keeping assets that have dropped in value.

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14
Q

Why is cumulative voting good for small shareholders?

A

Cumulative voting allows shareholders to direct their total voting rights to specific candidates, as opposed to having to allocate their voting rights evenly among all candidates.

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15
Q

Reasons to why a company must raise capital to ensure it can continue as a going concern:

A

Fulfill regulatory requirements (banks & capital adequacy ratios) or ensure debt covenants are met

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16
Q

Name the 5 stages in the industry life cycle model:

A
  1. Embryonic
  2. Growth
  3. Shakeout
  4. Mature
  5. Decline
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17
Q

When should you use 3-stage, 2-stage or 1-stage DDM?

1 stage is just the ordinary Gordon Growth Model

A

3 stage - for most public companies facing three stages, growth, transition and maturity
2 stage - for older companies that have already experienced the growth
1 stage - for really old mature companies

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18
Q

What is commonly found in synthethic CDOs?

A

Credit default swaps and other derivatives like options.

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19
Q

What is the relation between market liquidity risk and issuer size?

A

The less debt an issuer has outstanding, the less frequently it trades and the higher the market liquidity risk

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20
Q

Name two purposes of the derivatives market

A

Risk management and price discovery

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21
Q

Does private equity invest more in startups or established cash-generating companies?

A

The majority of private equity involves LBOs of established profitable and cash-generating companies with solid customer bases, proven products and high quality management.

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22
Q

What is committed capital in Private Equity?

A

It is the total funds promised by investors to private equity funds. This is also what the management fee is based on.

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23
Q

Do you get indirect equity exposure to real estate via Commercial MBS?

A

No, since in Commercial MBS you get exposure to indirect debt investment opportunities. In Real Estate Investment Truts, you get indirect exposure.

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24
Q

What are the three stages one can invest in alternative investments? You generally start with the first “f”…

A

First fund investing, the co-investing and finally direct investing. The due diligence and knowledge needed grows in each of these steps.

With co-investing, an investor contributes to a pool of investment funds (as with fund investing) but also has the right to invest directly alongside the fund manager in the assets in which the manager invests. So you do fund investing to some degree

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25
Q

What is the slope of the Security Market Line?

A

The slope is the Market Risk Premium. SML is a graphical representation of CAPM so Beta is the X-axis and the expected return is the Y-axis. The intercept is the risk free weight.

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26
Q

How can you handle cognitive errors?

A

By obtaining better information, education and advice

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27
Q

How can you handle emotional biases?

A

You can’t. You can only acknowledge their presence and adapt to it.

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28
Q

What is portfolio risk budgeting?

A

It allocates the total risk tolerance (based on 1 or many risks) to different components. This hopefully leads to investments in assets with the highest returns per unit of risk

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29
Q

Describe the three degrees of price discrimination

A
  1. First degree (or perfect price discrimination), each consumer is charged the maximum he is willing to pay
  2. Prices varies across different units sold. Quantity discounts on bulk purchases
  3. Prices varies across different consumer groups. Discounts for students and seniors, this is the most common price discrimination.
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30
Q

What is the neutral rate in monetary policy?

A

Neutral rate = trend growth + inflation target

If the central bank’s policy rate is below the neutral rate, then it is expansionary. If above contractionary and if equal then it is neutral.

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31
Q

What is the basic formula for GDP?

A

GDP = C + I + G + (X-M)
C = Consumer spending
I = Gross Private Domestic Investment
G = Goverment expenditures on finished goods and services
X = Exports
M = Imports

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32
Q

What is the basic formula for Savings? (Economics)

A

S = I + (G-T) + (X-M)

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33
Q

What is meant by that the balance sheet is “classified”?

A

The statement distinguish on non-current vs current assets and liabilities

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34
Q

What is the formula for debt-to-capital ratio?

A

debt-to-capital = Total Debt / (Total Debt + Shareholder’s Equity)

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35
Q

Formula for Financial Leverage

A

Financial Leverage = Average Total Assets / Average Shareholder’s Equity

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36
Q

What is own-price elasticity?

A

It is the ratio of the percentage change in demand for a percentage change in price. If abs(elasticity) > 1 then it is elastic, small price changes have big impact on demand

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37
Q

How does substitutes goods impact own-price elasticity?

A

Many and good substitutes makes the demand very elastic. If there are no substitutes you demand is inelastic, you will pay much more since you have no alternative.

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38
Q

What is income elasticity of demand?

A

It is the ratio of percentage change in demand to the percentage change of income

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39
Q

What is the difference between normal goods and inferior goods?

A
  • Normal goods have positive income elasticity => an increase in income increases demand
  • Inferior goods have negative income elasticity => an increase in income decreases demand. Like instant noodles, bought by poor students but not by rich people.
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40
Q

Contrast complements and substitutes (cross price elasticity)

A
  • Substitutes have positive cross price elasticity. If you increase the price of good X the demand of price Y will go up. People buy Y instead of X.
  • Complements have negative cross price elasticity. If you increase the price of good X, the demand of good Y will decrease. Think like gasoline cars and gas, if the price of gas goes up, people will buy less gasoline cars and more electic car instead
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41
Q

What is a veblen good?

A

It is a good for which a higher price makes the good desirable. I.e., Gucci bag. The higher price means status. The price elasticity is positive, the higher price the higher quantity (up to a limit of course)

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42
Q

What is the GDP deflator?

A

The GDP deflator is a price index that can be used to convert nominal GDP into real GDP, taking out the effects of changes in the overall price level.

GDP deflator = Nominal GDP_t / Real GDP_t

Where Real GDP_t uses the prices as of the base year but the production as of year t

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43
Q

What is the Capital Consumption Allowance CCA?

A

A captail consumption allowance (CCA) measures the depreciation of physical capital from the production of goods and services over a period. CCA can be thought of as the amount that would have to be reinvested to maintain the productivity of physical capital from one period to the next. It is used in calculating GDP:
GDP = National Income + CCA + statistical discrepancy

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44
Q

What does the Aggregate Demand curve (AD) illustrate?

A

The AD curve illustrate the negative relationship between the price level and the level of real output demanded by consumers, businesses, and government.

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45
Q

What are the three effects that explains the negative slope of the AD Curve?

A
  1. The wealth effect
  2. The interest rate effect
  3. The real exchange rate effect

When plotting the AD Curve, AD is on the x-axis and price level on the y-axis

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46
Q

Explain the wealth effect (AD Curve)

A

A decrease in the price level increases the purchasing power of existing nominal wealth so that consumers will demand more goods and services.

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47
Q

Explain the interest rate effect (AD curve)

A

The interest rate effect refers to the changes that occur in behaviors such as spending and borrowing after a change in the interest rate.

When the interest rate decreases, individuals and businesses well generally borrow more money and invest and spend, increasing the AD. And vice versa. If price level goes up interest rates will go up to combat inflation and then AD will go down.

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48
Q

Explain the real exchange rate effect (AD Curve)

A

When the domestic price level increases, the real price increases for foreigners which reduces demand for export. So (X-M) will become lower and hence the Y (AD Curve) will also decrease. Y = C + I + G + (X-M)

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49
Q

What does the Aggregate supply curve (AS curve) describe?

A

The aggregate supply (AS) curve describes the relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP supplied, when all other factors are kept constant. That is, it represents the amount of output that firms will produce at different price levels.

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50
Q

What is the VRAS, very short aggregate supply curve?

A

It is the AS curve in the very short run. It is horizontal since firms will adjust its output without changing price by adjusting labor hours and intensity of use of plant and equipment,

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51
Q

What is the SRAS (short-run aggregate supply curve?

A

When output prices increase, the price level increases, but firms see no change in input prices in the short run. Firms respond by increasing output in anticipation of greater profits from higher output prices. The result is an upward-sloping SRAS curve. So the higher output prices, the higher output.

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52
Q

What is the Long-run aggregate supply curve?

A

All input costs can vary in the long run, and the LRAS curve in is perfectly inelastic (it is vertical, no change in price level will impact the output). In the long run, wages and other input prices change proportionally to the price level, so the price level has no long-run effect on aggregate supply. We refer to this level of output as potential GDP or full-employment GDP.

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53
Q

Name some factors that can cause the AD curve to shift to the right

A

GDP = C + I + G + (X-M)
* Increased consumer spending
* Increased business expectations (invest more)
* Expansionary monetary policy / expansionary fiscal policy (increase G)

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54
Q

Name some factors that can cause the SRAS curve to shift to the right

A
  • Labor productivity
  • Lower input prices
  • Taxes and government subsidies
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55
Q

Name some factors that can cause the LRAS curve to shift to the right

A
  • Increase in supply and the quality of labor
  • Increase in the supply of natural resources
  • Technology
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56
Q

Describe the three categories of unemployment

A
  1. Frictional unemployment, when you quit to seek new opportunities. It always exist
  2. Structural unemployment, it is caused by long-run changes in the economy that eliminate some jobs while generating other type of jobs for which the unemployed workers are not qualified.
  3. Cyclical unemployment is caused by changes in the general level of economic activity

Structural and frictional unemployment is always present

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57
Q

How do you calculate the unemployment rate?

A

Unemployment rate = Number of people unemployed / labor force

Labor force is the sum of unemployed + employed. Those who are voluntarily unemployed are not part of labor force

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58
Q

What is underemployed?

A

It is a person who is employed part-time but wants a full-time position or being stuck at ICA with an engineering degree. IT IS NOT UNEMPLOYED!

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59
Q

What is the participation ratio?

A

Participation ratio = labor force / working age population

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60
Q

Why is unemployment rate a lagging indicator?

A

Early in an expansion when hiring prospects begin to improve, the number of discouraged workers who re-enter the labor force is greater than the number who are hired immediately.

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61
Q

What is the Laspeyres index?

A

It is the price index with constant (old) basket of goods and services

Laspeyers -> Paasche -> Fischer

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62
Q

What is the Paasches index?

A

It is the price index that uses the current consumption weights.

Laspeyers -> Paasche -> Fischer

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63
Q

What is the Fischer index?

A

It is the price index that is the geometric mean of Laspeyers and Paasche index.

Laspeyers -> Paasche -> Fischer

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64
Q

What is cost push inflation?

A

Inflation can result from an initial decrease in aggregate supply caused by an increase in the real price of an important factor of production, such as wages or energy. Cost-Push Inflation is when e.g. wages increase so that the supply decreases which causes the price level to increase.

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65
Q

What is demand-pull inflation?

A

Demand-pull inflation can result from an increase in the money supply, increased government spending or any other change that increases aggregate demand. In demand-pull inflation the economy is already at full-employment equilibrium so when the demand increases, the GDP will increase to an unsustainable level. Unemployment falls bnelow its natural rate and put upward pressure on real wages which reduces SRAS and a new equlibrium is found at a higher price level

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66
Q

What is demand-pull inflation?

A

Demand-pull inflation can result from an increase in the money supply, increased government spending or any other change that increases aggregate demand. In demand-pull inflation the economy is already at full-employment equilibrium so when the demand increases, the GDP will increase to an unsustainable level. Unemployment falls bnelow its natural rate and put upward pressure on real wages which reduces SRAS and a new equlibrium is found at a higher price level

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67
Q

What is GDP? How does it compare to GNP?

A
  • GDP = The total value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders
  • GNP = The total value of goods and services produced by the labor and capital of a country’s citizen (regardless where they produce it, Canada, US, doesn’t matter)
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68
Q

What means with absolute advantage?

A

A country has an absolute advantage if it can produce a good at a lower resource cost than the other country.

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69
Q

What means with comparative advantage? (Global trade)

A

A country has comparative advantage if it the opportunity cost for producing a good is lower than the other countries.

By specilization the total output among to countries can increase!

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70
Q

What are the BOP (Balance of payments)

A

It includes the current account, which mainly measures the flows of goods and services; the capital account, which consists of capital transfers and the acquisition and disposal of non-produced, non-financial assets; and the financial account, which records investment flows.

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71
Q

What is the current account (BOP and trade)

A

The current account focus on the flow of goods and services. Like raw materials, manufactured goods and services like transportation.

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72
Q

What is the capital account (BOP and trade)

A

The capital account includes financial assets. It measures the net change of assets and liabilities during a particular year.

It includes purcases of rights to natural resources.

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73
Q

What is the financial account (BOP and trade)

A

It include gold, foreing currencies. For a country with a trade deficit, it must be balanced by a net surplus in the capital and financial accounts.

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74
Q

Contrast Other Comprehensive Income and Comprehensive Income

A

Comprehensive Income incldues all items that impact owners’ equity. Some of these items are included in the calculation of Net Income and some in “Other Comprehensive Income”. When comprehensive income is presented in two statements, the statement
of comprehensive income begins with the profit or loss from the income statement and then presents the components of OCI.

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75
Q

Name four common items treated as Other Comprehensive Income

A
  1. Foreign currency translation adjustments (translating subsidaries’ balance sheet assets and liabilities at current exchange rates)
  2. Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives for hedges
  3. Unrealized holding gains and losses on available-for-sale securities (US GAAP)
  4. Certain costs of a company’s defined benefit post-retirement plans
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76
Q

What are the two options of denominator in construction a common-sized cash flow statement?

A
  1. The first approach is to express each line item of cash inflow (outflow) as a percentage of total inflows (outflows) of cash
  2. The second approach is to express
    each line item as a percentage of net revenue.
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77
Q

What is free cash flow?

A

Free cash flow is the excess of operational cash flow over capital expenditures

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78
Q

What is Free Cash Flow to the Firm? FCFF

A

FCFF is the cash flow available to the firm’s supplier of debt and equity capital
FCFF = NI + NCC + Int(1-Tax rate) - FCInv - WCInv
FCFF = CFO + Int(1-Tax rate) - FCInv

We need to add back the interest paid since that belongs to debt supplie

CFO = NI + NCC - WCInv where WCInv is working capital expenditures

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79
Q

What is Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE?)

A

FCFE is the cash available to the company’s common shareholders
FCFE = CFO - FCInv - Net debt repayment

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80
Q

US GAAP
dividends payed is financing
the rest is operating

A
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81
Q

US GAAP cash flow classification, which item is not classified as operating?

A

Dividens paid is a financing activity

Interest received, interest paid, dividends received and taxes paid are all operation

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82
Q

IFRS - How do you classify cash flows such as interest received, interst paid, dividends received and dividends paid?

A
  • Financing: Dividends paid & Interest paid
  • Investing: Interest received & Dividends received

All four can also be operating. IFRS allows for more flexibility

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83
Q

What is the 2 stage DuPont-formula?

A

RoE = RoA * Financial Leverage

(Net Income / Assets) * Assets / (Equity)

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84
Q

What is the 3-stage DuPont-formula?

A

RoE =
Net profit margin * Total asset turnover * Financial leverage =
Net Income / Sales * Sales / Assets * Assets / Equity

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85
Q

Which item do you split from 1 to 3 items in the Dupont Formula?

A

Net profit margin = Net Income / Sales

= (Net Income / EBT) * (EBT / EBIT) * (EBIT / Sales)

Tax burden * Interest Burden * EBIT margin (operating profit margin

Tax & Interest burden is the lower the quotient, the higher burden

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86
Q

In times of inflation, which inventory method gives larger profit, FIFO or LIFO?

A

In inflationary environment, FIFO will give higher gross profit. COGS for LIFO will be higher and hence result in lower gross profit

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87
Q

Explain the LIFO reserve?

A

The LIFO reserve is the amount by which LIFO inventory is less than FIFO inventory. The LIFO reserve will increase when prices are rising and inventory quantities are stable or increasing.

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88
Q

How can the LIFO reserve decrease? (LIFO liquidation)

A

If a firm is liquidating its inventory, or if prices are falling, the LIFO reserve will decline.

Management could use a LIFO liquidation (draw down inventory) to artificially inflate current period earnings

LIFO liquidation is a decrease in the quantity of inventory

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89
Q

How is the value of the inventory reported on the balance sheet?

A

In IFRS and US GAAP (except for LIFO ) the investory is reported on the balance sheet at the lower of cost or net realizable value (NRV)

NRV is expected sales price - cost of selling

LIFO is the lowest of cost or market (replacement cost)

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90
Q

What happens if the Net Realizable value is lower than whats reported on the balance sheet (inventories)?

A

IFRSThe inventory is written down to the Net Realizable Value and the loss is recognized on the income statement.

If the value increases, the values can be written up by reducing COGS in the income statement. Inventory can never be written up more than what was previously done.

US GAAP - No write-up is allowed under US GAAP.

This doesn’t apply for LIFO in US GAAP

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91
Q

What is the quick ratio?

A

Quick ratio = (Cash + Short-term marketable securities + receivables) / current liabilities

The quick ratio is one ratio to assess a company’s liquidity position

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92
Q

What is the cash ratio?

A

Cash ratio = (Cash + Short-term marketable securities) / current liabilities

The cash ratio is one ratio to assess a company’s liquidity position

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93
Q

What is the current ratio?

A

Current ratio = current assets / current liabilities

The Current ratio is one ratio to assess a company’s liquidity position

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94
Q

How do you determine if an long-lived asset is impaired in IFRS?

A

An asset is impaired if:
carrying value > recoverable amount

Recoverable amount = max(fair value less cost to sell, value in use)
where value in use is the present value of future cash flows. The loss is then carrying value - recoverable amount

Assets must be tested for impairment anually. Fair value is market price

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95
Q

How do you determine if an long-lived asset is impaired in US GAAP?

A

Determining (1) and calculating (2) is different in US GAAP

  1. carrying value > undiscounted cash flow
  2. carrying value - fair value (or pv of cash flows)

Assets must only be tested for impairment if it is likely

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96
Q

Are you allowed to capitalize interest?

A

Yes, when a firm constructs an asset the interest that accrues during the construction period is capitalized and then part of the depreciation the following years.

The treatment is similar under IFRS and US GAAP

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97
Q

Under IFRS, can you capitalize reserach and/or development costs?

A

In IFRS, you are allowed to capitalize development costs, but not reseach costs.

A firm must show that it can complete the asset.

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98
Q

Under US GAAP, can you capitalize research and/or development costs?

A

Under US GAAP, research and development costs are generally expensed as incurred. For software that you intend to sell, you can capitalize development costs when you can show technological feasibility.

A firm must show that it can complete the asset.

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99
Q

When is a deferred tax liability created?

A

When the income tax expense is greater than taxes payable due to temporary differences

E.g., accelerated depreciation is used on calculating tax return

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100
Q

How do you reconcile Income tax expense, change in DTL and tax payable?

DTL = Deferred tax liability

A

Income tax expense = change in DTL + taxes payable

For DTA it is -change in DTA. So if DTA increase income tax is lower

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101
Q

How does MM Proposition 1 with taxes look like?

The formula

A

V_Lev = V_unlev + tD

Value levered = Value unlevered + marginal tax rate * debt debtTaxshield

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102
Q

What does MM Proposition 2 with taxes say?

A

The cost of equity is a linear function of the company’s debt-to-equity
ratio with an adjustment for the tax rate

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103
Q

What is degree of operation leverage? DOL

A

DOL = % change in operating income / % change in units sold

DOL = Q(P-V) / (Q(P-V) - F)

Q(P-V) is the contribution margin

DOL is different depending on the numbers of units produced

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104
Q

What is degree of financial leverage? DFL

A

DFL = % change in net income / % change in operating income

DFL = [Q(P-V) - F] / [Q(P-V) - F - C]

C is fixed financing cost

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105
Q

What is degree of total leverage? DTL

A

DTL = % change in net income / % change in units sold
DTL = DOL * DFL

DTL = Q(P-V) / [Q(P-V) - F - C]

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106
Q

What is a market order?

A

A market order instructs the broker to execute the trade immediately at the best possible price

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107
Q

What is a limit order?

A

A limit order places a minimum execution price on sell orders and a maximum execution price on buy orders. For example, a buy order with a limit of $6 will be executed immediately as long as the shares can be purchased for $6 or less.

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108
Q

What is a stop order?

A

They are not executed unless the stop price has been met

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109
Q

What is a stop-sell order at 45?

A

If the market price goes below 45, then the shares will be sold

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110
Q

What are depository receipts? DRs

A

**Depository receipts **(DRs) represent ownership in a foreign firm and are traded in the markets of other countries in local market currencies. A bank deposits shares of the foreign firm and then issues receipts representing ownership of a specific number of the foreign shares.

The depository bank acts as a custodian and manages dividends, stock splits, and other events.

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111
Q

What distuingish sponsored Deposit Receipts to unsponsored?

A

If the firm is involved with the issue, the depository receipt is a sponsored DR; otherwise, it is an unsponsored Depository Recipt.

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112
Q

What are Global Depository Receipts?

A

Global depository receipts (GDRs) are issued outside the United States and the issuer’s home country

Most GDRs are traded on the London and Luxembourg exchangesUSD is common

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113
Q

What are American Depository Receipts?

A

American depository receipts (ADRs) are denominated in U.S. dollars and trade in the United States.

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114
Q

What is committed capital

A

Committed capital (e.g., for
private equity funds) is how much money in total that LPs have committed to the fund’s future investments. Management fees are based on committed capital in PE.

LP stands for limited partners who are the investors.

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115
Q

Define each stage in the industry life-cycle model

A
  1. Embryonic - high prices, high risk
  2. Growth, rapidly increasing demand, low
  3. Shakeout, slowing growth, intense competition
  4. Mature, little or no growth, industry consolidation
  5. Decline, negative grotwh, excess capacity
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116
Q

Name some internal credit enhancements?

A
  1. Overcollateralization (collateral value greater than the par value)
  2. Cash reserve fund - money set aside to make up for credit losses
  3. Excess spread account, the yield promised on the bonds are lower than the promised yield on the assets supporting the ABS.
  4. Tranches with different seniority of claims
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117
Q

Name som external credit enhancements?

A
  1. Surety bonds, issued by insurance companies to make up any shortfall
  2. Bank guarantees, serve the same purpose
  3. Letters of credit from financial institutions, a promise to lend money to the issuing entity if it does not have enough cash
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118
Q

If the semi-annual BEY is 7%, what is the annual Bond Equivalent yield?

A

Bond equivalent yield is just 14%. So it disregards the compounding. So the Bond Equivalent Yield for a semi-annual pay bond is less than the real annual return from holding the bond till maturity since (1+2x) < (1+x)^2

EAR takes compounding into account, that doesn’t BEY do

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119
Q

What is a forward rate and a forward yield curve?

A

A forward rate shows the yield for future periods. E.g, the rate of interest on a 1-year loan that would be made two years from now is a forward rate. A forward yield curve shows the future rates for bonds or money market securities for the same maturities for annual periods in the future.

(1 + S3)^3 = (1 + S1)(1 + 1y1y)(1 + 2y1y)

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120
Q

What is a 3-year spot rate?

A

The 3-year spot rate is the YTM for a zero-coupon bond that matures in three years. So:
(1 + S3)^3 = (1 + S1)(1 + 1y1y)(1 + 2y1y)

You will earn that YTM for the next three years

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121
Q

What is a 3-year spot rate?

A

The 3-year spot rate is the YTM for a zero-coupon bond that matures in three years. So:

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122
Q

What is a Forward Rate Agreement? FRA?

A

A forward rate agreement (FRA) is a derivative contract that has a future interest rate, rather than an asset, as its underlying. The point of entering into an FRA is to lock in a certain interest rate for borrowing or lending at some future date

The long pays the fixed rate and the short the floating rate

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123
Q

What is the weak-form efficient market hypothesis?

A

In the weak-form efficient market hypothesis, security prices fully reflect all past market data

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124
Q

What is the semi-strong form of the efficient market hypothesis?

A

In a semi-strong-form efficient market, prices reflect all publicly known and available information, including historic market prices.

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125
Q

What is the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis?

A

In a strong-form efficient market, security prices fully reflect both public and private information. A market that is strong-form efficient is, by definition, also semi-strong- and weak-form efficient.

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126
Q

What is a G-spread?

A

A G-spread is the yield over a government bond. Should be the same maturity

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127
Q

What are I-spreads?

A

An alternative to using government bond yields (G-spread) as benchmarks is to use rates for interest rate swaps in the same currency and with the same tenor as a bond. Yield spreads relative to swap rates are known as interpolated spreads or I-spreads. I-spreads are frequently stated for bonds denominated in euros.

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128
Q

What is one disadvantage with the G- and I-spreads?

A

The G and I-spreads assume that the spot yield curve is flat. One can fix this with the zero-volatility spread or Z-spread.

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129
Q

What is the Z-spread?

Z-spread = Zero volatility spread

A

The Z-spread is the constant add-on to each benchmark spot rate that if used in discounting would equal the market price of the bond. It is the appropriate yield curve spread.

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130
Q

What is the option-adjusted spread?

OAS = option-adjusted spread

A

An option-adjusted spread (OAS) is used for bonds with embedded options. The OAS is the spread to the government spot rate curve that the bond would have if it were option-free. IT IS ADJUSTED FOR THE OPTION
Hence, option value = Z-spread - OAS

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131
Q

What is the relation between OAS, Z-spread and option value?

A

Option value = Z-spread - OAS

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132
Q

Describe call markets and continuous trading markets

A
  1. In a call market, trades can be arranged only when the market is called at a particular time and place. I a call market, one price clears the market for the stock.
  2. In contrast in a continuous trading market, trades can be arranged and executed anytime the market is open.
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133
Q

Describe the three types of market structures (execution mechanisms)

A
  1. In quotedriven markets, customers trade with dealers (very common for bonds, OTC markets)
  2. In order-driven markets, an order matching system run by an exchange, a broker, or an alternative trading system uses rules to arrange trades. Often trades with complete strangers.
  3. In brokered markets, brokers arrange trades
    between their customers (real estate, large blocks of stocks, tänk ECM SEB)
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134
Q

Contrast Ordinal and Nominal data

A

Both Ordinal and Nominal are categorical data.
1. Ordinal -> the categories can be logically ordered, like credit ratings
2. Nominal -> cannot be organised in a logical order, like different sectors (energy vs utilities).

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135
Q

What relationship exist with Beta and use of leverage?

A

For a given set of projects, the greater a firm’s reliance on debt financing, the greater its equity beta

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136
Q

How do you estimate Beta of a company given a Beta of another comparable company?

A
  1. We adjust the beta from a comparable company (or group of companies) for its leverage and tax rate. We unlever it to get asset beta
  2. We adjust the comparable company’s asset beta (re-lever it) based on the financial leverage and the marginal tax rate of the target company.
    So unlever - then relever
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137
Q

What is the formula to get the unlevered beta (asset beta)?

A

Beta_asset = Beta_equity x [1 / (1 + [1-t]D/E)]
So the higher D/E or Tax rate, the lower will the unlevered Beta be.

Asset beta = unlevered, equity beta = levered

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138
Q

What is the formula to get the levered beta (equity beta)?

A

equity beta=asset beta
* [1 + (1-t) x D/E]

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139
Q

What is the formula and interpretation of the market Beta?

A

Beta = cov(Rp, Ra) / var(Rp) where Ra is the return on the asset and Rp is the return on the market portfolio. A company having a Beta of 1.2 implies that if stock market increases by 10% the company’s share price will increase by 12%

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140
Q

What is a fiduciary call?

A

A fiduciary call is what is on the right side of the put-call-parity. It is c + X / (1+Rf)^t.

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141
Q

What is a protective put?

A

A protective put is a share of stock together with a put option on the stock.

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142
Q

What is the put-call-parity?

A

c + X / (1 + Rf)^T = S + p
It is based on the payoffs of two portfolio combinations: a fiduciary call and a protective put.

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143
Q

What is the put-call-forward parity?

A

Put-call-forward parity is derived with a forward contract rather than the underlying asset itself. We subsite F0 / (1+Rf)^t for S in the original put-call-parity.
F0 / (1 + Rf)^T + p0 = c0 + X / (1 + Rf)^T

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144
Q

What are the money’s three primary functions?

A
  1. Unit of account (you express prices in omney)
  2. You can use it to store value over time
  3. It serves as a medium of exchange, you can buy stuff with it
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145
Q

Economic output can be stated as a production function Y = A x f(L,K), what is A, L and K?

A

Y = A x f(L,K)
1. A is the total factor productivity (change in technology)
2. L is the labor size
3. K is the amount of capital available

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146
Q

What does solow’s growth model (neoclassical model) say?
growth in potential GDP = …

A

growth in potential GDP = growth in technology + W-L (growth in labor) + W-C(growth in capital)
W-L are and W-C are the labor’s share of national income and capital’s percentage of national income

growth potential GDP=growth in labor force+growth in labor productivity

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147
Q

What is the peak in a business cycle most likely associated with?

A

The peak phase of a business cycle represents the highest level of economic output (real GDP) reached during that cycle. Inflation pressure that built during the expansion may continue into the early part of the contraction that follows the peak. Employment declines first after the peak, it is a lagging indicator.

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148
Q

Is the LRAS elastic?

LRAS = Long-run aggreate supply curve

A

No, the LRAS is perfectly inleastic, it is vertical. Because in the long run input prices change in proportion to the price level, so even if the price level goes up, the input prices will also raise and the supply will be thesame.

x is ouput, y is price. LRAS reflect the potential GDP.

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149
Q

What can cause the LRAS-curve to shift?

A

Items that can move the LRAS to the right (incresed output) include:
1. Increased supply of labor
2. Better technolology (can also move SRAS to the right)
3. Natural resources

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150
Q

How does the term “credit cycles” refer to? And are they longer or shorter than business cycles?

A

The term “credit cycle” refers to cyclical fluctuations in interest rates and credit availability. Credit cycles tend to be longer than business cycles and they can cause asset price bubbles if the credit availability is too high

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151
Q

Will any firm maximiize profit at MR = MC?

A

Yes, maximimzing profit at MR = MC is applicable for all firms!

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152
Q

What is the Fischer effect?

A

The Fischer effect says that:
nominal interest rate = real interest rate + expected inflation

It states that in an economy, the real interest rate is stable and that changes in nominal interest rates result from changes in expected inflation.

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153
Q

What does The Quantity Theory of Money state?

A

M x V = P x Y
M is the quantity of money
V is the velocity of circulation of money in the economy
P is the price level
Y is the real output
Thus, the amount of money used to purchase goods and services in an economy, M × V, is equal to the money value of this output, P × Y.

If you increase the money supply, while velocity and output are constant, all you’re doing is creating inflation (or increasing P).

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154
Q

What are price takers and price searchers?

A

In the theory of the firm, price searchers are those firms that set their own selling price, such as a monopoly firm. A price taker, on the other hand, is a firm that takes the price as it is set by the market forces of demand and supply.

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155
Q

How can you express the current account deficit?

A

As X-M and use in the formula:
S = I + (G - T) + (X - M)

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156
Q

What probability rule do you use to calculate the unconditional probability?

A

You can use the total probability rule to calculate the unconditional probability:
P(A) = P(A|S) + P(A|S^C) where S and S^C are mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

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157
Q

What is the multiplication rule of probability?

A

P(AB) = P(A|B) * P(B)
The probability that both events will occur

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158
Q

What is the addition rule of probability?

A

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(AB)
The probability that at least one of the two events will occur.

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159
Q

What is Bayes’ formula?

A

Start with P(AB) = P(BA) and then use the multiplication rule of probability:
P(A) * P(A|B) = P(B) * P(B|A)
and
P(A) = P(B) * P(B|A) / P(A|B)

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160
Q

What is the definition of marketable securities?

A

Marketable securities are securities that can easily be sold.

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161
Q

How do you calculate the double-declining balance depreciation?

A

You apply two times the straight-line rate, so if the asset’s life is 10 years, then you assume 1/10+ * 2 depreciation rate. And you also do not take the residual value into account, but rather just stop when residual value has been reached.

DDB depreciation = (2 / useful life) * (cost - accumulated depreciation)

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162
Q

Do you capitalize shipping and installation costs?

A

All costs incurred until an asset is ready for use must be capitalized, including the invoice price, applicable sales tax, freight and insurance costs incurred delivering equipment, and any installation costs

Cmpanies generally must capitalise interest costs associated with
acquiring or constructing an asset that requires a long period of time to get ready for ts intended use

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163
Q

How do you calculate the stocks variance if you have probability distribution?

A

variance = p1 * (R1- Rmean)^2 + p2 * (R2- RMean)^2 + p3 * (R3- Rmean)^2

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164
Q

What does revenue recognition say about reversal of revenue recognize?

A

Revenue recognition standards require that firm conclude that they will not have to reverse any cumulative revenue recognized. So if it is likely they will receive a bonus in a project, likely is not enough, they have to be certain!

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165
Q

What are goverment program’s automatic stabilizers?

A

They tend to change the government budget deficit in an opposite direction to economic growth. For xample, during a recession, tax receipts will fall, and government expenditures on unemployment insurance payments will increase. They do not require any vote from legislators.

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166
Q

If p is the probability that an event occurs, then the odds for that even occurring is expressed as …

A

odds = p / (1-p)

so if p is small, then odds will also be small. If the probability is 1 / 8, then the odds is (1 / 8) / (7 / 8) = 1 / 7, the odds is one-to-seven.

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167
Q

What kind of indicator is:
1. Real personal income
2. Unemployment rate
3. Building permits

A
  1. Real personal income is a coincident indicator with turning points that tend to coincide with business cycle turning points.
  2. The unemployment rate is a lagging indicator, here suggesting an expansion has been underway for some time. (previously discouraged workers enter the workforce)
  3. Building permits are a leading indicator because builders may seek permits in anticipation of an economic expansion that has not begun yet.
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168
Q

Will profit be the same if the firm uses periodic or perpetual inventory system and FIFO? How about LIFO?

A

For a firm using FIFO, gross profit is the same whether the firm uses a periodic or perpetual inventory system. For a firm using LIFO or average cost, gross profit can be different depending on the choice of inventory system.

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169
Q

What is a periodic inventory system?

A

In a periodic inventory system, inventory values and COGS are determined at the end of the accounting period. No detailed records of inventory are maintained.

FIFO COGS and ending inventory are the same whether a perpetual or periodic system is used.

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170
Q

What is a perpetual inventory system?

A

In a perpetual inventory system, inventory values and COGS are updated continuously. Inventory purchased and sold is recorded directly in inventory when the transactions occur.

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171
Q

What is the difference between permutation and combination?

A

Permutation is used if ordering matters, so it will be larger. In combination, the order doesn’t matter:

Permutation = n! / k!
Combination = n! / (k! * (n-k)!)

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172
Q

What is stratified random sampling?

A

Stratified random sampling uses a classification system to separate the population into smaller groups based on one or more distinguishing characteristics. So each strata is sampled from!

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173
Q

What is cluster sampling?

A

Cluster sampling is also based on subsets of a population, but in this case we are assuming that each subset (cluster) is representative of the overall population with respect to the item we are sampling. So we do not need to sample from all clusters (as we do in stratified random sampling)

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174
Q

What are the four phases in a business cycle?

A
  1. Expansion (real GDP is increasing)
  2. Peak (real GDP stops increasing and starts decreasing)
  3. Contraction, real GDP is decreasing
  4. Trough, real GDP stops decreasing and begins increasing
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175
Q

Why is inventorys an important business cycle indicator?

A

Firms try to keep enough inventory on hand to meet sales demand but do not want to keep too much of their capital tied up in inventory. As a result, the ratio of inventory to sales in many industries trends toward a normal level in times of steady economic growth.

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176
Q

What does the inventory-sales ratio about the different business cycles?

A
  1. Peak -> sales growth begins to slow and unsold inventories accumulate, the quotient increase
  2. Trough -> sales growth starts to increase and inventory doesn’t catch up so quotient decrease then firms will start producing inventories so the quotient reaches its normal level
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177
Q

What does the inventory-sales ratio about the different business cycles?

A
  1. Peak -> sales growth begins to slow and unsold inventories accumulate, the quotient increase
  2. Trough -> sales growth starts to increase and inventory doesn’t catch up so quotient decrease then firms will start producing inventories so the quotient reaches its normal level
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178
Q

Which is the correct test statistic for a test of the null hypothesis that a population variance is equal to a chosen value?

A

This is a test of the value of a single variance and is based on a test statistic with a performed via the chi-square distribution.

Chi-square assumes that the population is normally distributed. (so does F-statistic)

F-test is for testing equality of variances from two populations

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179
Q

Which is the correct test statistic for a test of the equaility of the variances of two normally distribtued populations?

A

The hypotheses concerned with the equality of the variances of two populations are tested with an F-distributed test statistic.

Chi-square is used for 1 variance (population variance)

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180
Q

Which is the correct test statistic for a test of the equaility of the variances of two normally distribtued populations?

A

The hypotheses concerned with the equality of the variances of two populations are tested with an F-distributed test statistic.

Chi-square is used for 1 variance (population variance)

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181
Q

What is factoring?

A

Factoring refers to the sale of receivables without recourse; that is, the risk that the firm’s customers will not pay, or will not pay in a timely manner, is borne by the factor, who purchases the receivables.

One company sells its receivables to another company. The other company nows bears the risk of the customers not paying.

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182
Q

What are flotation costs?

A

Flotation costs are the fees charged by investment bankers when a company raises external equity capital. Flotation costs can be substantial and often amount to between 2% and 7% of the total amount of equity capital raised, depending on the type of offering.

Flotation costs are a cash outflow that occurs at the initiation of a project and affect the project NPV by increasing the initial cash outflow.

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183
Q

What kind of return does CAPM provide?

A

CAPM shows the required return given the stocks Beta (its systematic risk). If the expected return calcualted by an analyst is greater, then you should buy the stock.

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184
Q

What are abondonment options?

Real options relevant to capital investments

A

Abandonment options are similar to put options (the option to sell an asset at a given price in the future). They allow management to abandon a project if the present value of the incremental cash flows from exiting a project exceeds the present value of the incremental cash flows from continuing the project.

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185
Q

What are abondonment options?

Real options relevant to capital investments

A

Expansion options are similar to call options (the option to buy an asset at a given price in the future). Expansion options allow a company to make additional investments in future projects if the company decides they will create value.

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186
Q

What are flexbiility options?

Real options relevant to capital investments

A

Flexibility options give managers choices regarding the operational aspects of a project. The two main forms are price-setting and production flexibility options.
* Price-setting options allow the company to change the price of a product. For example, the company may raise prices if demand for a product is high, in order to benefit from that demand without increasing production.
* Production-flexibility options may include paying workers overtime, using different materials as inputs, or producing a different variety of product.

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187
Q

What are fundamental options?

Real options relevant to capital investments

A

Fundamental options are projects that are options themselves because the payoffs depend on the price of an underlying asset. For example, the payoff for a copper mine is dependent on the market price for copper. If copper prices are low, it may not make sense to open a copper mine, but if copper prices are high, opening the copper mine could be very profitable.

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188
Q

What are fundamental options?

Real options relevant to capital investments

A

Fundamental options are projects that are options themselves because the payoffs depend on the price of an underlying asset. For example, the payoff for a copper mine is dependent on the market price for copper. If copper prices are low, it may not make sense to open a copper mine, but if copper prices are high, opening the copper mine could be very profitable.

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189
Q

What is matrix pricing of bonds?

A

Matrix pricing is a method of estimating the required yield-to-maturity (or price) of bonds that are currently not traded or infrequently traded. The procedure is to use the YTMs of traded bonds that have credit quality very close to that of a nontraded or infrequently traded bond and are similar in maturity and coupon, to estimate the required YTM.

You use linear interpolation of the maturities to find a suitable YTM

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190
Q

What is the sustainabile growth rate?

Used in DDM

A

The sustainable growth rate is the rate at which equity, earnings, and dividends can continue to grow indefinitely assuming that ROE is constant, the dividend payout ratio is constant, and no new equity is sold.

sustainable growth = g = (1 − dividend payout ratio) × ROE

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191
Q

A securities market that have low transaction costs is said to exhibit:

A

Operational efficiency

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192
Q

What is meant with an informationally efficient market?

A

If security prices reflect all the information associated with fundamental value in a timely fashion, then the financial system is informationally efficient

Operational efficiency contributes to informational efficiency.

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193
Q

What is meant with an allocationally efficient market?

A

In informationally efficiently markets, capital is allocated to its most productive use. That is, they are allocationally efficient

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194
Q

How do you calculate the duration of a portfolio of bonds?

A

The portfolio duration is simply the weighted average of the individual bond’s duration.

One limitation of this approach is that for portfolio duration to “make sense” the YTM of every bond in the portfolio must change by the same amount. Hence it assume a parallel shift in the yield curve.

Use the full price of the bonds

195
Q

What is a clawback provision?

A

A **clawback clause **gives LPs the right to recover the performance fees from the GP. For instance, if a GP pays itself an incentive fee on profit not yet fully earned, the clawback clause allows an investor to claw back past incentive fee accrual and payments. Clawback is usually applicable when the GP closes successful deals early and incurs losses after some time within the life of a fund.

196
Q

What is the difference between deal-by-deal and whole-of-fund waterfall distribution techniques?

Deal-by-deal is also call American waterfall. Whole-of-fund is European.

A

In deal-by-deal (also called American) waterfall, performance fees are accumulated** on per deal methods**. This makes the GP receive payments before LPs get their rates of return (hurdle rate) on the fund and initial investments.

In whole-of-fund waterfall, the GP does not receive any profit until LPs are paid their hurdle rate and initial investments.

Deal-by-deal more profitable for GPs.

197
Q

What is meant by saying that a firm is said to have a top-heavy capital structure?

A

“Top-heavy” refers to a capital structure that includes a high percentage of secured bank debt. A firm with a top-heavy capital structure may be limited in its access to additional bank borrowing, which increases the likelihood of default if the firm encounters financial distress.

198
Q

What is meant by a nonrecourse mortgage?

A

**In the event of a default, a borrower with a nonrecourse loan is not liable for the loan amount, the property is simply returned to the lender. With a nonrecourse loan, the lender has more risk in the event of default so interest rates will be higher.

199
Q

What is a catch-up clause?

A

Catch-up clauses benefit the general partners, allowing them to collect all gains after the hurdle rate is met until they have collected their specified incentive percentage of the initial gains

200
Q

What is the slope in the security market line? And what is the intercept, x-axis and y-axis?

A

The security market line is basically a representation of CAPM so x-axis is the Beta (systematic risk). The slope is the market risk premium. The y-axis is the required return for the asset and the intercept is the risk free rate.

201
Q

What is the capital allocation line? CAL

A

The capital allocation line (CAL) is the line of possible portfolio risk and return combinations given the risk-free rate and the risk and return of a portfolio.

202
Q

What is the capital market line? CML

A

The capital market line (CML) is the optimal CAL for all investors.

With respect to capital market theory, any point above the CML is not achievable and any point below the CML is dominated by and inferior to
any point on the CML.

203
Q

What is goodwill?

A

When one company acquires another, the purchase price is allocated to all the identifiable assets (tangible and intangible) and liabilities acquired, based on fair value. If the purchase price is greater than the acquirer’s interest in the fair value of the identifiable
assets and liabilities acquired, the excess amount is recognized as an asset, described as goodwill

204
Q

How is unrealized gains treated for held-to-maturity securities?

A

Under U.S. GAAP, debt securities acquired with the intent to hold them until they mature are classified as held-to-maturity securities and measured at amortized cost.

Amortized cost is equal to the original issue price minus any principal payments, plus any amortized discount or minus any amortized premium, minus any impairment losses. Subsequent changes in market value are ignored.

205
Q

How is unrealized gains treated for available-for-sale securities?

Marketable securities

A

Available-for-sale securities are debt securities that are not expected to be held to maturity or traded in the near term.

Any unrealized gains and losses are recognized in other comprehensive income as a part of shareholder’s equity.

206
Q

How are unrealized gains treated for trading securities?

Marketable securites, also knows as held-for-trading securities

A

Trading securities (also known as held-for-trading securities) are debt securities acquired with the intent to sell them over the near term.

The unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the income statement.

All equity securities holdings are treated in the same manner

Except equity securities that give a company significant influence over a firm

207
Q

What is the central principle in revenue recognition?

A

The central principle is that a firm should recognize revenue when it has transferred a good or service to a customer. This is consistent with the familiar accrual accounting principle that revenue should be recognized when earned.

208
Q

How do you recognize revenue in a long-term contract?

A

For long-term contracts, revenue is recognized based on a firm’s progress toward completing a performance obligation.

Progress toward completion can be measured from the input side (e.g., using the percentage of completion costs incurred as of the statement date).

Progress can also be measured from the output side, using engineering milestones or percentage of the total output delivered to date.

209
Q

What is meant with justified P/E

A

Justified P/E is the P/E calculated using a DDM-model:
P/E = (D/E) / (K-G)
This is also a leading P/E ratio because the earnings should be the expected earnings next period. If one would just previous periods Earnings, then we get trailing P/E

D/E is the expected dividend payout ratio

210
Q

In the quotation 1.25 USD/EUR, what is the base currency and what is the price currency?

A

The quotation is price current / base currency so in 1.25 USD/EUR, then EUR is base and USD is price

211
Q

What is meant with a direct quotation?

A

In a direct quote, the price currency is the investors currency:

price currency / base currency

212
Q

How do you calculate real exchange rate?

A

real exchange rate = nominal exchange rate * (CPI base / CPI price)

213
Q

What does the interest rate parity say?

A

forward = spot * (1+interest price) / (1 + interest base)

214
Q

What is the forward discount / premium?

A

The forward discount or forward premium for a currency is calculated relative to the spot exchange rate. The forward discount or premium for the base currency is the percentage difference between the forward price and the spot price.

Example:
Forward 7 USD / SEK
Spot 6 USD / SEK

SEKs forward premium is 7/6 - 1 = 16.6%

215
Q

What is matrix pricing?

A

Matrix pricing is a method used to estimate the yield-to-maturity (YTM) for bonds that are not traded or infrequently traded. The yield is estimated based on the yields of traded bonds with the same credit quality. If these traded bonds have different maturities than the bond being valued, linear interpolation is used to estimate the subject bond’s yield.

216
Q

What is the ex-dividend date?

A

The ex-dividend date is the first day on which a share purchaser will not receive the next dividend. The ex-dividend date is one or two business days before the holder-of-record date, depending on the settlement period for stock purchases.

If you buy the share on or after the ex-dividend date, you will not receive the dividend

217
Q

What are the eight sections of GIPS standards for firms?

A
  1. Fundamentals of Compliance.
  2. Input Data and Calculation Methodology.
  3. Composite and Pooled Fund Maintenance.
  4. Composite Time-Weighted Return Report.
  5. Composite Money-Weighted Return Report.
  6. Pooled Fund Time-Weighted Return Report.
  7. Pooled Fund Money-Weighted Return Report.
  8. GIPS Advertising Guidelines.
218
Q

What is a composite? (GIPS)

A

A composite is a grouping of discretionary portfolios representing a similar investment strategy, objective, or mandate. A composite must include all portfolios (current and past) that the firm has managed in accordance with this particular strategy. The firm should identify which composite each managed portfolio is to be included in before the portfolio’s performance is known.

All discretionary portfolios must be included in one, and only one, composite.

219
Q

What is the annual yield?

Periodicity

A

The annual (effective) yield for bond with its YTM stated for a periodicity of n, and n compounding periods per year, is: (1 + YTM / n)^n - 1

The greater the periodicity (number of payments per year) the great annual (effective yield)

YTM is often stated as it does not take the compounding into account

220
Q

What is the current yield?

A

The current yield is the annual cash payment / bond price

It is also called income yield or running yield

221
Q

What is the quoted margin and the discount margin in the valuation of a Floating Rate Note?

A

The margin used to calculate the bond coupon payments the quoted margin (numerator) and we call the margin required to return the FRN to its par value the required margin (also called the discount margin) (denominator)

222
Q

What is the pricing formula for money masrket instruments quoted on a discount rate basis?

A

PV = FV * (1 - DAYS/YEARS * DR)
OR

DR = YEAR/DAYS * (FV - PV / FV)

Since the denominator is FV the discount rate understates the return

223
Q

What is the pricing formula for money market instruments quoted on an add-on rate basis?

A

AOR = FV / (1 + DAYS/YEAR * AOR)

AOR = YEAR/DAYS * (FV - PV)/PV

AOR is in the denoiminator

224
Q

What is a money market rate stated on a 365-day add-on rate basis called?

A

That is called a Bond equivalent yield.

225
Q

What is the formula for a price value of a basis point?

A

PVBP = (PV^- - PV^+) / 2

Easy to derive using the ApproxModDur

226
Q

What is the formula for ApproxModDur?

A

ApproxModDur = (PV_- - PV_+) / (2 x delta_yield x PV_0)

227
Q

What is the formula for EffDur?

A

EffDur = (PV_- - PV_+) / (2 x delta_curve x PV_0)

It assess the interest rate risk of a bond by estimating the percentage change in price given a change in a benchmark yield curve—for example, the government par curve.

228
Q

What is money duration?

A

The money duration of a bond is a measure of the price change in units of the currency in which the bond is denominated. The money duration can be stated per 100 of par value or in terms
of the actual position size of the bond in the portfolio.

MoneyDur = AnnModDur × PVFull

PVFull is the full price of the bond, including accrued interest

229
Q

What is modified duration?

A

Modified duration is a measure of the percentage price change of a bond given a change
in its yield-to-maturity.

230
Q

How do you incorporate the convexity adjustment in the percentage change in the bond’s full price?

A

%PVFull = - AnnModDur * deltaYield + 1/2 x AnnConvexity x deltaYield ^2

231
Q

How do you calculate the approximate convexity?

A

ApproxCon = [PV- + PV+ - (2 x PV0)] / (deltaYield^2 * PV0)

232
Q

Can putable bonds have negative convexity?

A

No, putable bonds do always have positive convexity.

233
Q

Can callable bonds have negative convexity?

A

Yes, typically at lower yields since when interest rates fall, the incentive for the issuer to call the bond at par increases, therefore itsprice will not rise as quickly as the price of a non-callable bond, its price might actually drop as the likelihood that the bond will be called increases.

234
Q

When will the value of the embedded put option be large?

A

The value of the put option grows when the interest rates grow since the price of bonds fall and the value of being able to sell at PAR is of course higher then

Put option always trades at higher prices than non-putable bonds

235
Q

When will the value of the embedded calöl option be large?

A

The value of the call option grows when the interest rates fall since the price of the bond will approach par so it will be more likely for the issuer to buy back the bonds.

Call option always trades at lower prices than non-callable bonds

236
Q

What is key rate duration?

A

Key rate duration is a measure of a bond’s sensitivity to a change in the benchmark yield curve at specific maturity segments. Key rate durations can be used to measure a bond’s sensitivity to changes in the shape of the yield curve.

237
Q

What duration should you use for bonds with embedded options?

A

Bonds with an embedded option do not have a meaningful internal rate of return because future cash flows are contingent on interest rates. Therefore, effective duration is the appropriate interest rate risk measure, not modified duration.

Option-pricing models are used to produce inputs to effective duration

238
Q

What are the three financing formative-stages in venture capital?

A
  1. Angel investing -> capital provided at the idea stage
  2. Seed-stage financing -> support product development, marketing. First stage for VC
  3. Early-stage financing -> companies moving towards operation, to start production / sales

VC = Venture capital

239
Q

Describe the 5 exit strategies for private equity firms:
1. trade sale
2. IPO
3. Recapitalization
4. Secondary sales
5. Write-off/liquidation

A
  1. Trade sale refers to the sale of a company to a strategic buyer, like a competitor to create synergies. Not a sale to another private equity copany, that is a secondaary sale!
  2. IPO - inital public offering, the company starts selling its shares (including some or all of those held by the private equity firm) to public investors
  3. Recapitalization describes the steps a firm takes to increase or introduce leverage. Not a true exit strategy, but might allow the private equity firm to extract cash
  4. Secondary sales represents the sale to another private equity firm.
  5. Write-off/liquidation occurs when a transaction has not gone well
240
Q

What is the Ethical Decision-Making Framework?

A

The Ethical Decision-Making Framework is designed to facilitate decision-making and avoid making decisions that have unanticipated ethical consequences. The four steps are:
1. Identify: relevant facts, stakeholders and duties owed, ethical principles, conflicts of interest
2. Consider: Situational influences, additional guidance, alternative actions
3. Decide and act
4. Reflect: Was the outcome as anticipated? Why or not?

241
Q

In what market structures is the supply function well-defined?

A
  1. Perfectly competitive markets. It is well-defined and is positively sloped.
  2. Monopolistic competitive markets, it is not well-defined.
  3. Oligopoly, not well-defined.
  4. Monopoly, not well-defined.

The supply curve of a firm should measure the quantity that the firm is willing and able to supply at different price levels. And the firms should produce the quantity where MR = MC and unfortunately, the marginal revenue and marginal cost do not include this information.

242
Q

What are the characteristics of a Monopoly market structure?

A

Monopoly:
1. A monopoly is a profit maximizer.
2. Monopolies are price makers.
3. Price discrimination: monopolies can change both the price and quality of their products.
4. There are very high barriers to entry for other firms.

243
Q

What are the characteristics of a Oligopoly market structure?

A

Oligopoly:
1. Only a few firms operate in the market.
2. Profit maximization is a condition in this market.
3. Barriers to entry are high.
4. Firms make abnormal profits in the long-run.

244
Q

What are the characteristics of a Monopolistic Competition market structure?

A

Monopolistic Competition:
1. There are many producers and consumers in the market
2. Producers are price searchers, the demand curve is downward-sloping
3. Consumers assume that there are non-price differences among the products of competitors. Companies spend money on product differentiation/influential advertising
4. Few barriers to entry and exit exist.

245
Q

What are the characteristics of a Perfect Competition market structure?

A

Perfect Competition:
1. There exist a very large number of buyers
2. There exist a very large number of sellers willing to supply their products at given market prices
3. No single seller or producer is large enough to influence the market price.
4. Homogeneous products: the products being sold in this market are perfect substitutes for one another. Their quality and characteristics don’t vary from one another.
5. Perfect information: every consumer and producer is aware of the market prices and the utility derived from the use of any of the products.
6. There are no entry barriers.

246
Q

What are the conditions for price discrimination to work?

A
  1. Face a downward-sloping demand curve
  2. Have at least two identifiable groups of customers with different price elasticities of demand for the product
  3. Be able to prevent the customers paying the lower price from reselling the product to the customers paying the higher price
247
Q

Describe the indirect and direct method of cash flow from operations

A

Indirect mehtod
It starts with Net income and then makes adjustments for non-cash items, non-operating items, and net changes in operating accruals.

Direct method
In the direct method, each cash inflow and cash outflow related to cash receipts and payments are shown, while the impact of accruals is eliminated. Main components are:
* Cash from customers
* Cash operating expenses
* Cash paid for interest / taxes

CFI and CFF is identical under both methods.

248
Q

What are the four Cs in traditional credit analysis?

A
  1. Capacity - the borrower’s ability to repay its debt obligations in time.
  2. Collateral (emphasized for lower credit quality companies) - valuing the companies asset
  3. Covenants - the terms and conditions the borrowers and lenders agree to as part of a bond issue.
  4. Character - the management’s integrity and commitment to repay the loan. Track record? Prior treatment of bondholders?
249
Q

What is a recessionary gap?

A

A recessionary gap is when real GDP is below full employment GDP because of a decrease in aggregate demand.

250
Q

What do classical economists think will solve a recessionary gap?

A

Classical economists believed that unemployment would drive down wages, as workers compete for available jobs, which in turn would increase SRAS and return the economy to its full employment level of real GDP

251
Q

What do keynesian economists think will solve a recessionary gap?

A

Keynesian economists believe that increasing aggregate demand through government action is the preferred alternative. Both expansionary fiscal policy (increasing government spending or decreasing taxes) and expansionary monetary policy (increasing the growth rate of the money supply to reduce interest rates) are methods to increase aggregate demand and return real GDP to its full employment (potential) level.

252
Q

What is an inflationary gap?

A

An inflationary gap is when real GDP is above full employment GDP because of an increase in aggregate demand.

253
Q

What are the CFA Code of Ethics compared to the Standards?

A
  • The Code contains high-level aspirational ethical principles that drive members and candidates to create a positive and reputable investment profession.
  • The Standards contain practical ethical principles of conduct that members and candidates must follow to achieve the broader industry expectations.
254
Q

What are the CFA Code of Ethics?

A
  • Act with integrity, competence, diligence, respect, and in an ethical manner with the public, clients, prospective clients, employers, employees, colleagues in the investment profession, and other participants in the global capital markets.
  • Place the integrity of the investment profession and the interests of clients above their own personal interests.
  • Use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgment when conducting investment analysis, making investment recommendations, taking investment actions, and engaging in other professional activities.
  • Practice and encourage others to practice in a professional and ethical manner that will reflect credit on themselves and the profession.
  • Promote the integrity and viability of the global capital markets for the ultimate benefit of society.
  • Maintain and improve their professional competence and strive to maintain and improve the competence of other investment professionals.
255
Q

What does the Neoclassical school thinks about business cycles?

A

Neoclassical school economists believe shifts in both aggregate demand and aggregate supply are primarily driven by changes in technology over time. They conclude that the economy will by itself revert to the full-employment equilibrium.

256
Q

What does the Keynesian school thinks about business cycles?

A

Keynesian school economists believe business cycle fluctuations are due to swings in the level of optimism of those who run businesses. They also believe that wages are “downward sticky,” reducing the ability of a decrease in money wages to increase short-run aggregate supply and move the economy from recession (or depression) back toward full employment. Instead one must use expansionary fiscal or monetary policy.

257
Q

What does the Monetarist school thinks about business cycles?

A

Monetarists believe the variations in aggregate demand that cause business cycles are due to variations in the rate of growth of the money supply, likely from inappropriate decisions by the monetary authorities. They suggest the central bank should follow a policy of steady and predictable increases in the money supply.

258
Q

What does the Austrian school think about buisiness cycles?

A

The Austrian school believe business cycles are caused by government intervention in the economy.

259
Q

What does the New Classical school think about buisiness cycles?

A

New Classical school economists introduced real business cycle theory (RBC). RBC emphasizes the effect of real economic variables such as changes in technology and external shocks, as opposed to monetary variables, as the cause of business cycles. New Classical thinks that policymakers should not try to counteract business cycles because expansions and contractions are efficient market responses to real external shocks.

260
Q

What is the standard error of the sample mean?

A

s-error = s / sqrt(n)

where s^2 = sum(X-Xmean)^2/(n-1)

Standard error is the adjusted standard deviation of the sample

261
Q

How do you calculate the coefficient of determination R2?

A

R2 = RSS / SST

Where RSS is regression sum of square. So R2 is the percentage of total variation explained by the independent variable.

262
Q

How do you use the F-statistic in a regression model?

A

F = MSR/MSE
where MSR = RSS
and MSE = SSE / (n-1)

We test the significance of the slope coefficient (in CFRA we only care about simple linear regression) hence this is equivalent to a t-test.

RSS = Regression sum of square
SSE = Error sum of square

263
Q

How do you perform a t-test for the slope variable in a linear regression?

A

df = n - 2
t = (estimated beta value - b0) / standard error

264
Q

What is type 1 error?

A

Type 1 error is when you reject the null even though it was true

265
Q

What is type 2 error?

A

Type 2 error is when you fail to reject the null even though it was false

266
Q

What is the power of the test?

A

The power is the probability of not doing a type 2 error, or in other words, the probability of rejecting the null when it should be rejected (it is false)
1 - P(type 2 error)

267
Q

What are the three reasons for holding money?

A
  1. Transaction demand, for buying goods and services
  2. Precautionary demand, to meet unforeseen future needs;
  3. Speculative demand, to take advantage of investment opportunities.
268
Q

Describe the two biases in CPI:
1. Product quality
2. New goods and substitution
What consequences does it have?

A

Due to the biases from product quality and new goods and substitution, CPI overstates the rate of inflation. As a result, increases in wages that are based on CPI will more than compensate for actual increases in the cost of living.

  • Price increases due to quality, not really more expensive
  • New goods are usually more expensive in the beginning
  • Hedonic pricing (SCB gör detta, hur snabb är processorn) may solve the quality issue
  • Fischer index can solve the substitution bias
269
Q

What are some reasons commonly cited by governments for imposing capital restrictions?

A

Reasons commonly cited by governments for imposing capital restrictions include:
1. reducing the volatility of domestic asset prices
2. maintaining control of exchange rates
3. keeping domestic interest rates low
4. protecting strategic industries from foreign ownership.

270
Q

What is the relationship between elasticity of export and import demand to exchange rate?

A

The more elastic both import demand and export demand are,** the more likely currency depreciation is to narrow a trade deficit**

271
Q

What conclusion should we draw if the ratio of operating cash flow to net income islessthan 1.0 consistently?

A

If the ratio of operating cash flow to net income islessthan 1.0 consistently we can assume that the company is reporting higher earnings than are likely to be supportable by its operating performance.

NOT GOOD, CFO = Net Income + Non-Cash expenses - increase in working cap

272
Q

What are the two major type of risk affecting a firm?

A

The two major types of risk affecting a firm are business risk and financial risk.

273
Q

What is Business risk?

A

Business risk is the uncertainty regarding the operating income of a company.

274
Q

What is Financial risk?

A

Financial risk refers to the uncertainty caused by the fixed cost associated with borrowed money.

275
Q

How do you calculate the cost of preferred shares? How does it relate to the cost of common shares and debt?

A

The cost of preferred share is Rpref = D / P, the dividend divded by the current price.

It is usually higher than the cost of debt, but less than the cost of common shares. You do not get any tax benefit.

276
Q

Describe how inventory turnover is a measure of liquidity

A

Inventory turnover is how fast you turns over inventory. So the faster you turn it over (higher ratio) the less cash is locked up in inventory

Inventory turnover = COGS / average inventory

277
Q

What is meant with externalities in projects?

A

Externalities refer to the effects that the acceptance of a project may have on other firm cash flows. Cannibalization is one example of an externality and describes when an investment takes customers and sales from other parts of the company.

Positive externalities are when synergies are created.

278
Q

What is the difference between a soft and hard hurdle rate?

A
  • With a soft hurdle rate, a hedge fund charges an incentive fee on all profits, but only if the fund’s rate of return exceeds a stated benchmark.
  • With a hard hurdle rate, a hedge fund charges an incentive fee only on the portion of returns that exceed a stated benchmark.

So soft are more desirable for GPs (the hedge funds) since they will get higher incntive fee if the hurdle rate is met

279
Q

What is meant with a high water mark?

A

With a high water mark, a fund’s value must exceed its highest previous value (high water mark) before the fund may charge an incentive fee.

280
Q

What is meant iwth a notice period for funds?

A

The notice period is the amount of time a fund has after receiving notice of a redemption request to fulfill the redemption request.

A notice period is typically 30 to 90 days.

281
Q

What is meant with a lockup period?

A

A lockup period is a minimum length of time before an investor may redeem shares or make withdrawals.

282
Q

What is sampling error?

A

Sampling error is the difference between a sample statistic (such as the mean, variance, or standard deviation of the sample) and its corresponding population parameter (the true mean, variance, or standard deviation of the population). For example, the sampling error for the mean is as follows:

sampling error of the mean = sample mean – population mean = x – µ

283
Q

What are the three reasons to issuing low-quality reports?

A
  1. Opportunities (weak internal controls, inadequate oversight from the board of directors)
  2. Motivation (analyst expectiations, previous earnings guidance by management, i.e., they have pressure to deliver)
  3. Rationalization (management tell themselves a story to justify it)
284
Q

Does monopolists have perfect information about the demand curve for their product?

A

Demand curves are not observable so a monopolist must search for the profit maximizing price. Because demand information is not perfect, a monopolist is a price searcher.

285
Q

How do you record dividends and interest from financial securities on the financial statements?

A

For all financial securities, dividend and interest income and realized gains and losses (actual gains or losses when the securities are sold) are recognized in the income statement. Doesn’t matter if it is held-for-trading or whatever.

286
Q

Is FIFO or LIFO better at estimating COGS?

A

LIFO - Whether prices are increasing or decreasing LIFO provides a better estimate of cost of sales. If prices are stable, there is no difference between LIFO and FIFO estimates of inventory or cost of sales.

The most useful estimates of inventory and cost of sales are those that best approximate current cost.

287
Q

Is FIFO or LIFO better at estimating inventory value?

A

FIFO - Whether prices are increasing or decreasing FIFO provides a better estimate of inventory values. If prices are stable, there is no difference between LIFO and FIFO estimates of inventory.

The most useful estimates of inventory and cost of sales are those that best approximate current cost.

288
Q

What is shortfall risk?

A

Shortfall risk refers to the probability that a portfolio will not exceed the minimum (benchmark) return that has been set by an investor. Roy’s safety-first ciriterion is based on the shortfall risk.

SFRatio = (E(Rp) - R-L) / std-p

289
Q

Are supply and/or demand more elastic in the long run?

A

Yes, both demand and supply are more elastic in the long run.

290
Q

What is the power of a test?

A

The power of a test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false

A correct rejection!

291
Q

What can use you a contigency table for?

A

Youl can use a contigency table to test for independence between categories in discrete data.

292
Q

Do you amortize an intangible asset (like a trademark) if it is renewable at minimal cost?

A

No you will treat it as having indefinite life since it can be renewed so cheap. No amortization

293
Q

What are the two important underlying assumptions of financial statements?

A
  • Accrual accounting means that financial statements should reflect transactions at the time they actually occur, not necessarily when cash is paid.
  • Going concern assumes the company will continue to exist for the foreseeable future
294
Q

What are the two fundamental qualitative characteristics of financial statements?

A
  • Relevance. Financial statements are relevant if the information in them can influence users’ economic decisions or affect users’ evaluations of past events or forecasts of future events. To be relevant, information should have predictive value, confirmatory value (confirm prior expectations), or both. Materiality is an aspect of relevance.
  • Faithful representation. Information that is faithfully representative is complete, neutral (absence of bias), and free from error.
295
Q

What are installment sales?

A

Installment sales are sales in which proceeds are to be paid in installments over an extended period of time

This revenue recognition method accounts for when revenue and expense are recognized at the time of cash collection rather than at the time of sale.

296
Q

How does contractionary monetary policy impact exchange rates?

A

Contractionary monetary policy typically results in increased interest rates which typically cause the domestic currency to appreciate.

297
Q

What are three lags when it comes to fiscal policy?

A
  • Recognition lag - Discretionary fiscal policy decisions are made in a political process. Make take time until they realize the economic problems
  • Action lag - The time governments take to discuss, vote on and enact fiscal policy changes
  • Impact lag - The time between the enactment of fiscal policy changes and when the impact of the changes on the economy actually takes place

As a result of these lags, fiscal policy changes may result in pro-cyclical rather than countercyclical effects. For example, if the economy is in a recession phase, fiscal stimulus may be deemed appropriate. However, by the time fiscal stimulus is implemented and has its full impact, the economy may already be on a path to a recovery driven by the private sector.

298
Q

What is a tariff?

A

A tariff is a tax imposed on imported goods imposed by the individual country

299
Q

What is a quota?

A

A quota is an import quantity limitation imposed by the individual country

300
Q

What is the J-curve effect?

A

The J-curve refers to a graph of the effect of currency depreciation on the trade balance over time. In the short run, a trade deficit may increase because current import and export contracts may be fixed in foreign currency units over the near term, and only reflect the exchange rate change over time. In the long run, currency depreciation should decrease a trade deficit.

301
Q

What is the Ricardian Equivalence?

A

An economic theory that implies that it makes no difference whether a government finances a deficit by increasing taxes or issuing debt.

302
Q

With respect to the pricing of risk in capital market theory, is both systematic and non-systematic risk priced?

A

Only systematic risk is priced. Investors do not receive any return for accepting nonsystematic or diversifiable risk.

303
Q

Who sets the compensation structure for the board and the senior management?

A

Senior managements compensation is set by the board of directors whos own compensation is set by the compensation committee. The latter may also be invloved with the employee benefit plan.

304
Q

What does the investment committee do?

A

An investment committee reviews and reports to the board on management proposals for large acquisitions or projects, sale or other disposal of company assets or segments, and the performance of acquired assets and other large capital expenditures.

305
Q

What is the operating cycle?

A

The operating cycle is the average number of days that it takes to turn raw materials into cash proceeds from sales, is:

operating cycle = days of inventory + days of receivables

The net operating cycle is equal to the cash conversion cycle.

306
Q

Should you include administrative overhad costs when calculating NPV?

administrative cost are expenses unrelated to production of a product

A

Only incremental overhead costs related to a project should be included in the analysis

307
Q

What is negative screening? (ESG)

A

Negative screening refers to specific companies or industries from consideration for the portfolio based on their practices regarding ESG. Examples of industries where ESG factors might lead to exclusion are mining, oil extraction and transport, and tobacco.

308
Q

What is full integration? (ESG)

A

Full integration refers to the inclusion of ESG factors or ESG scores in traditional fundamental analysis, like in estimating future cash flows. To the extent that ESG practices will affect such variables, integrating them into the analysis can help in determining which companies are currently overpriced or underpriced.

309
Q

What is thematic investing? (ESG)

A

Thematic investing refers to investing in sectors or companies in an attempt to promote specific ESG-related goals, such as more sustainable practices in agriculture, greater use of cleaner energy sources, improved management of water resources, or the reduction of carbon emissions.

310
Q

What is engagement / active ownership? (ESG)

A

**Engagement/active ownership investing refers to using ownership of company shares or other securities as a platform to promote improved ESG practices. Share ownership is used to initiate or support (through share voting) positive ESG changes.

311
Q

What is impact investing?

A

Investments made with the intention to generate
positive, measurable social and environmental impact alongside a financial return

Thematic investing doesn’t have to be measurable in the same way i THINK

312
Q

Does bank have low or high risk tolerance?

A

Banks typically need to maintain excess reserves in order to meet regulatory requirements. As a result, a bank must invest in assets that are more conservative than those invested by other types of financial institutions. So low risk!

313
Q

What is a defined contribution pension plan? And how does the accounting work?

A

Under a defined-contribution plan, a company contributes an agreed-upon (defined) amount into the plan. The agreed-upon amount is the pension expense. The amount the company contributes to the plan is treated as an operating cash outflow. The only impact on assets and liabilities is a decrease in cash.

In any event, the firm makes no promise to the employee regarding the future value of the plan assets. The investment decisions are left to the employee, who assumes all of the investment risk.

314
Q

What is a defined benefit pension plan? And how does the accounting work?

A

In a defined benefit plan, the firm promises to make periodic payments to employees after retirement.

For a defined benefit plan, the net pension asset or net pension liability is a key element for analysis. If the fair value of the plan’s assets is greater than the estimated pension obligation, the plan is said to be overfunded and the sponsoring firm records a net pension asset on its balance sheet. If the fair value of the plan’s assets is less the firm records a net pension liability.

315
Q

Should you use the book value or market value of debt/equity when calculating the capital structure?

A

An analyst should use market values, not book values, to estimate the weights of debt and equity in a firm’s capital structure.

316
Q

What is a float-adjusted market capitalization-weighted index?

A

A float-adjusted market capitalization-weighted index is constructed like a market capitalization-weighted index. The weights, however, are based on the proportionate value of each firm’s shares that are available to investors to the total market value of the shares of index stocks that are available to investors.

317
Q

What is fundamental weighting index?

A

An index that uses fundamental weighting uses weights based on firm fundamentals, such as earnings, dividends, or cash flow.

An advantage of a fundamental-weighted index is that it avoids the bias of market capitalization-weighted indexes toward the performance of the shares of overvalued firms. A fundamental-weighted index will actually have a value tilt, overweighting firms with high value-based metrics such as book-to-market ratios or earnings yields

318
Q

What is one disadvantage with a price-weighted index?

A

One disadvantage is that a given percentage change in the price of a higher priced stock has a greater impact on the index’s value than does an equal percentage change in the price of a lower priced stock. Put another way, higher priced stocks have more weight in the calculation of a price-weighted index.

Additionally, a stock’s weight in the index going forward changes if the firm splits its stock, repurchases stock, or issues stock dividends, as all of these actions will affect the price of the stock and therefore its weight in the index.

319
Q

What is meant with convenience yield?

A

The convenience yield associated with holding the underlying asset of a derivative ismost accuratelydescribed as: the nonmonetary benefits of holding the asset.

320
Q

What is the time value of an option?

A

The time value of an option is the amount by which the option premium (price) exceeds the exercise value and is sometimes called the speculative value of the option. This relationship can be written as:

option premium = exercise value + time value

At any point during the life of an option, its value will typically be greater than its exercise value. This is because there is some probability that the underlying asset price will change in an amount that gives the option a positive payoff at expiration greater than the (current) exercise value.

321
Q

What are I-spreads?

A

Interpolated spread is using interest rate swaps in the same currency and with the same tenor as a bond as the benchmark.

ssuers will use the spread above the swap rate to determine the relative cost of fixed-rate bonds versus floating rates alternatives, such as commercial paper.

322
Q

Are covered bonds bankruptcy remote?

A

Covered bonds are similar to asset-backed securities, but the underlying assets (the cover pool), although segregated, remain on the balance sheet of the issuing corporation (i.e., no SPE is created).

Special legislation protects the assets in the cover pool in the event of firm insolvency (they are bankruptcy remote).

323
Q

Who has the voting rights in a sponsored vs unsponsored DR?

A

A sponsored DR provides the investor with voting rights. For an unsponsored DR, the depository bank retains the voting rights

324
Q

What is a peer group?

A

A peer group is a set of similar companies an analyst will use for valuation comparisons. More specifically, a peer group will consist of companies with similar business activities, demand drivers, cost structure drivers, and availability of capital.

An analyst can appropriately include a company in multiple peer groups if the company’s business activities are comparable to firms in more than one peer group.

325
Q

What is meant with restricted subsidaries in covenants?

A

Issuers can classify subsidiaries as restricted or unrestricted. Restricted subsidiaries’ cash flows and assets can be used to service the debt of the parent holding company. This benefits creditors of holding companies because their debt is pari passu with the debt of restricted subsidiaries, rather than structurally subordinated.

326
Q

What is the capital allocation line?

A

The line of possible portfolio risk and return combinations given the risk-free rate and the risk and return of a portfolio of risky assets is referred to as the capital allocation line (CAL)

327
Q

What is the capital market line?

A

The optimal CAL is the CML, it uses the risk free rate and the market portyfolio and is a inear function of portfolio risk, σP .

328
Q

What is the diversification ratio?

A

The diversification ratio is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation of an equally weighted portfolio of n securities to the average standard deviation of all n securities.

If the average standard deviation of returns for the n stocks is 25%, and the standard deviation of returns for an equally weighted portfolio of the n stocks is 18%, the diversification ratio is 18 / 25 = 0.72. The lower the better, i.e., the more diversified!

329
Q

Name the four important dates in the dividend payment chronology.

A
  1. Declaration date, board of directors approves payment of dividend
  2. Ex-dividend date, the first day which a share purchaser will not receive the dividend
  3. Holder-of-record date, the date on which all owners of shares become entitled to recieve dividend
  4. Payment date, the date when the divided is paied.
330
Q

Whi bond has in general shorter time to settlement, corporate bonds or government bonds?

A

Government bond trades typically settle in one day (T + 1) while corporate bond trades typically settle in two or three days (T+ 2 or T + 3). Government and corporate bonds trade primarily in dealer markets.

331
Q

What is meant with high industry concentration?

A

High industry concentration refers to an industry that has a small number of firms, it is concentrated.

This often leads to less price competition, higher pricing power, and higher return on invested capital.

332
Q

Which type of asset backed security typically have a lockout period?

A

Asset-backed securities backed by credit card receivables have a lockout period, during which principal repayments are reinvested in additional receivables.

333
Q

What is a basis swap?

A

A basis swap involves trading one set of floating rate payments for another. So one floating-rate obligation for another.

334
Q

What is meant with the forward rate 2y5y?

A

the two-year into five-year rate

So the YTM of a 5-years to matury bond in 2 years.

335
Q

Can the forward price change over the life of a derivatives contract?

A

No, the price in a forward contract does not change over the contract’s life

336
Q

Can the price in a futures contract change over the life of a derivatives contract?

A

The price in a futures contract can change during the life of a futures contract because gains and losses are settled daily to return the value of the contract to zero

337
Q

What si meant by a soft lockup period? Hedge funds

A

A soft lockup period describes a provision that** allows redemptions** during the lockup period, but with significant additional fees for such redemptions.

338
Q

What is meant by a credit rating agency praciticing notching?

A

“Notching” refers to the credit rating agency practice of assigning ratings to debt issues that differ from the issuer’s credit rating.

An issuer credit rating applies to a firm’s senior unsecured debt. Debt issues with different seniority or covenants may be notched to a higher or lower issue credit rating. Notching is more common for lower-rated issuers.

339
Q

What is the threshold for investment grade?

A

Everything above BBB- and Baa3 is investment grade.

Everything at Ba1/BB+ or below is non-investment grade

340
Q

When can an american call option be worth more than an european call option?

A

American options can be more valuable than otherwise equivalent European options only if early exercise has value to the option holder. For call options, early exercise may be valuable if the underlying asset provides cash flows.

Early exercise may be valuable for put options, particularly if they are deep in the money.

341
Q

What is meant by the duration gap?

A

The difference between a bond’s Macaulay duration and the bondholder’s investment horizon is referred to as a duration gap.

A positive duration gap (Macaulay duration greater than the investment horizon) exposes the investor to market price risk from increasing interest rates.

A negative duration gap exposes the investor to reinvestment risk from decreasing interest rates.

342
Q

What is a conditional VaR?

A

Conditional VaR is the expected value of a loss, given that the loss exceeds a minimum amount.

343
Q

What is VaR? (value at risk)

A

Value at risk is the minimum loss that will occur over a period with a specified probability.

344
Q

What is meant with a pull on liquidity?

A

Pulls on liquidity accelerate cash outflows. Examples include paying vendors sooner and changes in credit terms that accelerate the required payment of outstanding balances.

The cash is pulled out to pay suppliers.

345
Q

What is meant with a drag on liquidity?

A

Drags on liquidity delay or reduce cash inflows, or increase borrowing costs. Examples include uncollected receivables and bad debts, obsolete inventory (takes longer to sell and can require significant price discounts), and limited short-term credit availability due to economic conditions.

There is a delay on the inflow, late receivables

346
Q

What is the sharpe ratio?

A

The Sharpe ratio of a portfolio is its excess returns per unit of total portfolio risk. Higher Sharpe ratios indicate better risk-adjusted portfolio performance.

Sharpe ratio = [E(R portfolio) - Rf] / σ portfolio

Used in evaluating the performance of a portfolio

347
Q

What is the M-squared (M2)?

A

The M-squared (M2) measure produces the same portfolio rankings as the Sharpe ratio but is stated in percentage terms.

348
Q

What is the Treynor measure?

A

The Treynor measure is calculated as
(R portfolio - Rf) / Beta portfolio

it is interpreted as excess returns per unit of systematic risk. (Systematic risk = beta)

The Treynor measure and Jenson’s alpha are calculated with beta, not standard deviation, and are appropriate for analyzing portfolios based on systematic risk.

349
Q

What is Jensen’s alpha?

A

Jensen’s alpha for Portfolio P is calculated as:

αP = Rp − [Rf + βP(RM − Rf)]
So the excess return over the required reutrn by CAPM.

The Treynor measure and Jenson’s alpha are calculated with beta, not standard deviation, and are appropriate for analyzing portfolios based on systematic risk.

350
Q

What is total factor productivity in the Solow model?

A

The Solow model or neoclassical model says that

growth in potential GDP = growth in technology + WL(growth in labor) + WC(growth in capital)

The additional growth in potential GDP from “growth in technology” represents the change in total factor productivity, the growth of output that is not explained by the growth of labor and capital.

351
Q

In stakeholder management, what is meant with legal infrastructure?

A

The legal infrastructure identifies the laws relevant to and the legal recourse of stakeholders when their rights are violated.

352
Q

In stakeholder management, what is meant with contractual infrastructure?

A

The contractual infrastructure refers to the contracts between the company and its stakeholders that spell out the rights and responsibilities of the company and the stakeholders.

353
Q

In stakeholder management, what is meant with organizational infrastructure?

A

The organizational infrastructure refers to a company’s corporate governance procedures, including its internal systems and practices that address how it manages its stakeholder relationships.

354
Q

In stakeholder management, what is meant with governmental infrastructure?

A

Governmental infrastructure comprises the regulations to which companies are subject.

355
Q

Explain the hedge fund strategy: Event-driven strategies

A

Event-driven strategies are typically based on a corporate restructuring or acquisition that creates profit opportunities for long or short positions in common equity, preferred equity, or debt of a specific corporation. Event-driven funds are typically long-biased.

356
Q

Explain the hedge fund strategy: Relative value strategies

A

Relative value strategies involve buying a security and selling short a related security, with the goal of profiting when a perceived pricing discrepancy between the two is resolved.

357
Q

Explain the hedge fund strategy: Macro strategies

A

Macro strategies are based on global economic trends and events and may involve long or short positions in equities, fixed income, currencies, or commodities.

358
Q

Explain the hedge fund strategy: Equity hedge fund strategies

A

Equity hedge fund strategies seek to profit from long or short positions in** publicly traded equities** and derivatives with equities as their underlying assets.

359
Q

What is the money-weighted rate of return?

A

The money-weighted return applies the concept of IRR to investment portfolios. The money-weighted rate of return is defined as the internal rate of return on a portfolio, taking into account all cash inflows and outflows. The beginning value of the account is an inflow, as are all deposits into the account. All withdrawals from the account are outflows, as is the ending value.
Then you solve for IRR with PV inflows = PV outlofws

Time-weighted rate of return doesn’t account for the timing of cashflows

360
Q

What is the money-weighted rate of return?

A

The money-weighted return applies the concept of IRR to investment portfolios. The money-weighted rate of return is defined as the internal rate of return on a portfolio, taking into account all cash inflows and outflows. The beginning value of the account is an inflow, as are all deposits into the account. All withdrawals from the account are outflows, as is the ending value.
Then you solve for IRR with PV inflows = PV outlofws

Time-weighted rate of return doesn’t account for the timing of cashflows

361
Q

What is meant with buy on margin?

A

In many markets, traders can buy securities by borrowing some of the purchase price. They usually borrow the money from their brokers. The borrowed money is called the margin loan, and they are said to buy on margin.

362
Q

What is a shelf registration?

A

In a shelf registration, an entire issue is registered with securities regulators but the bonds are sold to the public over a period of time as the issuer needs to raise funds.

363
Q

What is a serial bond issue?

A

In a serial bond issue, bonds with multiple maturity dates are issued at the same time.

364
Q

What is a rights offering?

A

In a rights offering, existing shareholders are given the right to buy new shares at a discount to the current market price. Shareholders tend to dislike rights offerings because their ownership is diluted unless they exercise their rights and buy the additional shares. However, rights can be traded separately from the shares themselves in some circumstances.

365
Q

What is a dividend reinvestment plan? (DRP)

A

A dividend reinvestment plan (DRP or DRIP) allows existing shareholders to use their dividends to buy new shares from the firm at a slight discount.

366
Q

A professional organization most appropriately enforces upon its members legal and/or ethic standards?

A

Professional organizations adopt codes of ethics that govern their members’ behavior. Legal standards are enforced by governments or regulatory agencies.

367
Q

Under standard Suitability - what should the investmend advisor consider in the IPS?

A
  1. Client identification (type and nature of clients, existence of separate beneficiaries, and approximate portion of total client assets)
  2. investment objectives (return objectives and risk tolerance);
  3. Investor constraints (liquidity needs, time horizon, tax considerations, legal and regulatory circumstances, unique needs and preferences)
  4. performance measurement benchmarks
368
Q

What are brokers?

A

Brokers: agents who fill orders for their clients, helping reduce their client’s transaction costs by efficiently matching them with someone else willing to take the other side of their trades.

Typ ECM; hittar säljare och köpare och föra dem tillsammans

369
Q

What are dealers?

A

Dealers: fill their clients’ orders by trading with them. Unlike brokers, dealers directly buy from or sell to their clients, hoping to find another client to take the opposite side of the trade.

370
Q

What are broker-dealers?

A

Broker-dealers: describes an entity that is both a broker and a dealer. Broker-dealers have an inherent conflict of interest in that a broker aims to acquire the best price for their clients, but a dealer maximizes their profit by buying from their clients at low prices and selling to their clients at high prices.

371
Q

What is the definition of the firm in GIPS?

A

The definition of the firm, for purposes of GIPS compliance, must be the corporation, subsidiary, or division that is held out to clients as a business entity. If a firm has different geographic locations (e.g., all doing business under the name of Bluestone Advisers), then the definition of the firm should include all the various geographic locations and their clients.

372
Q

Is it OK to manipulate prices of derivatives by attempting to gain control of the underlying supply?

A

Not, attempting to manipulate the price of a derivative by securing a controlling position in the underlying asset, which is a violation of Standard II(B) Market Manipulation.

373
Q

How often should the IPS be reviewed?

A

Recommendations for compliance with Standard III(C) Suitability state that an investment policy statement should be reviewed at least annually. The recommendations also note that changes in market conditions or client circumstances may make more frequent updates necessary.

374
Q

Is actual real GDP equal to potential real GDP in the lon grun?

A

In the short run, real GDP can be less than its full-employment level (a recessionary gap that causes downward pressure on prices) or more than its full-employment level (an inflationary gap that causes upward pressure on prices). In long-run macroeconomic equilibrium, actual real GDP is equal to potential real GDP and there is no upward or downward pressure on the price level.

375
Q

The standard error of estimate in a simple linear regression is equal to?

A

the square root of the mean squared error.

sqrt(MSE)

376
Q

Data for a manufacturing industry indicate that inventories of work in progress are increasing faster than sales. This is most likely to indicate that

A

firms expect demand to increase.

An increase in finished goods inventories relative to sales, however, would be more likely to indicate a decrease in demand that may be caused by obsolete inventory or a business cycle peak.

377
Q

Do you express the forward premium in the price or the base currency?

A

The forward discount or premium for the base currency is the percentage difference between the forward price and the spot price.
Spot: USD / EUR 1.312
Forward: USD / EUR 1.320

Forward premium/discount for EUR:
1.320/1.312 - 1 = 0.610%

378
Q

What does the three parts of the standard auditor’s opinion state?

A
  1. Whereas the financial statements are prepared by management and are its responsibility, the auditor has performed an independent review.
  2. Generally accepted auditing standards were followed, thus providing reasonable assurance that the financial statements contain no material errors
  3. The auditor is satisfied that the statements were prepared in accordance with accepted accounting principles and that the principles chosen and estimates made are reasonable. The auditor’s report must also contain additional explanation when accounting methods have not been used consistently between periods.
379
Q

What is an unqualified opinion?

A

An unqualified opinion (also known as an unmodified or clean opinion) indicates that the auditor believes the statements are free from material omissions and errors

380
Q

What is a qualified opnion?

A

If the statements make any exceptions to the accounting principles, the auditor may issue a qualified opinion and explain these exceptions in the audit report

A material instance of noncompliance with applicable accounting standard

381
Q

What is an adverse opinion?

A

The auditor can issue an adverse opinion if the statements are not presented fairly or are materially nonconforming with accounting standards.

Adverse opinion issued when statements as a whole aren’t fairly presente

382
Q

What are period costs?

When talking about inventory

A

Not all inventory costs are capitalized; some costs are expensed in the period incurred. These costs, known as period costs, include:

  1. Abnormal waste of materials, labor, or overhead.
  2. Storage costs (unless required as part of production).
  3. Administrative overhead.
  4. Selling costs / transportation cost to customer
383
Q

What is accrual accounting?

A

Accrual accounting is a financial accounting method that allows a company to record revenue before receiving payment for goods or services sold and record expenses as they are incurred.

The cash flow statement is not prepared using accrual accounting.

384
Q

Which type of security should you invest in if we experience stagflation? Equity, bonds or commodities?

A

Commodity is correct since commodity prices tend to increase with inflation.

Stagflation is a period of economic contraction with increasing inflation, typically brought on by a sharp decrease in aggregate supply. Investments in equities tend to perform poorly in an economic contraction due to decreasing profitability of companies. Fixed income investments decrease in price when nominal interest rates increase due to increases in inflation.

385
Q

In forecasting the next year’s return, should you use the arithmetic mean or the geometric mean? How about multi-years forecasts?

A

The arithmetic mean is statistically the best estimate (expected value) of the next year’s return.

The geometric mean is used to calculate average annual compound returns. It is the best estimate of future multi-year annual compound returns, but the arithmetic mean is the best estimate of a single year’s return.

386
Q

How do you classify sales from machineary? Assume carrying value 20,000 but you sell it for 35,000.

A

You get +35,000 in Cash Flow from Investing (CFI)

387
Q

What is the time-frame for current liabilities?

A

Current liabilities are obligations due within one year or the company’s operating cycle, whichever is longer. With an operating cycle of two years, Magnus should classify as current any liabilities that must be settled in less than two years.

So time-frame = max(1-year, operating cycle)

Same goes for current assets

388
Q

What are the 5 types of agreements among countries with respect to trade policy? And what is added in each step?

A
  1. Free Trade Areas - All barriers to import / export goods are removed
  2. Custom unions - + all counties adopt a common set of trade restrrictions with non-members
  3. Common market - + All barriers to movement of labor / capital goods are removed
  4. Economic union - + Member countries establish common institutions and economic policy for the union. The EU is an economic union
  5. Monetary union - + Members adopt a single currency. The euro zone is a monetary unionen
389
Q

How does the risk-free rate of interest impact the value of call / put options?

A

Call options - higher Rf gives higher value since the PV of the exercise you will pay decreases

Put options - higher Rf gives lower value since the PV of the exercise you will receive decreases

390
Q

How does the time to maturity impact the value of call / put options?

A

For calls, longer time to maturity increases the value of the call.

For puts, the story is generally the same except for deep-in-the-money put options.

391
Q

Under which circumstances does the values of an European put differ to an American put?

A

In general, there is a value to being able to exercise early for puts since the upside is limited (especially for deep in the money puts - so they ordinarily sell for more than their European counterparts.

392
Q

What is the minimum value of an europan call? How about American call?

A

c0 >= max(0, S0 - X(1+r)^t)
It is same for both american/european

393
Q

What is the minimum value of an europan put? How about American put?

A

European put:
p0 = max(0, X/(1+r)^t - S0)

American put:
p0 = max(0, X - S0)

394
Q

What is the formula for the Forward price?

A

F0(t) = S0(1 + r)^t

The pay-off for buying at S0 and selling at F0(t) is riskless so:
F0(t) / S0 = (1+r)^t

If the price deviate then you have an arbitrage opportunity

395
Q

A small firm that needs to increase short-term liquidity but has weak credit, which sourse of short-term financing that would most likely be available?

A

**Nonbank finance **companies are a source of short-term financing for smaller firms and firms with lower credit ratings.

Commercial paper issuance and revolving credit agreements are typically only available to larger corporations with high credit ratings.

396
Q

Is cost financial distress part of the MM propositions?

A

No, Modigliani and Miller with taxes implies an optimal capital structure of 100% debt.

However, static trade-off theory assumes that increasing debt proportions will initially reduce the weighted average cost of capital (because of tax savings), but that at some level of debt financing, increasing expected costs of financial distress will outweigh additional tax savings of greater debt issuance.

Among MM’s assumptions is that financial distress does not have a cost.

397
Q

What is the “best-in-class” approach in ESG implementation?

A

The best-in-class approach to ESG implementation is an example of positive screening.

398
Q

What does the Delta measure when it comes to derivatives?

A

Delta. This is the sensitivity of derivatives values to the price of the underlying asset.

399
Q

What does the Gamma measure when it comes to derivatives?

A

Gamma. This is the sensitivity of delta to changes in the price of the underlying asset.

400
Q

What does the Vega measure when it comes to derivatives?

A

Vega. This is the sensitivity of derivatives values to the volatility of the price of the underlying asset.

401
Q

What does the Rho measure when it comes to derivatives?

A

Rho. This is the sensitivity of derivatives values to changes in the risk-free rate.

402
Q

What is Return on invested capital (ROIC)? and how can you use it?=

A

You can use the ROIC to determine if a company is creating value for its shareholders. You compare ROIC to its cost of capital.

ROIC is defined as:
after-tax net profit / average book value of its total capital

403
Q

What is a core-satellite approach?

A

With a core-satellite approach, a majority of the assets are invested passively (in the “core” portfolio) with a smaller proportion in actively managed “satellite” portfolios. This reduces the likelihood of excessive trading and offsetting active positions.

404
Q

What is the underlying assumption to “bearing unsystematic risk should provide no additional expected return”?

A

The theory that bearing unsystematic risk will provide no additional expected return assumes that unsystematic risk can be The theory that bearing unsystematic risk will provide no additional expected return assumes that unsystematic risk can be diversified away at no cost.

405
Q

When can the real return be greater than the nominal return?

A

The real return is greater than the nominal return when the inflation rate is negative

406
Q

How is the probabilities in a one-period binomial model for option pricing set?

A

They are calculated from the model inputs. Risk-neutral pseudo-probabilities are calculated using the risk-free rate and the sizes of an up-move and down-move of the underlying asset.

407
Q

What are structured financial instruments?

Struictured financial instruments

A

Structured financial instruments are securities designed to change the risk profile of an underlying debt security, often by combining a debt security with a derivative. Sometimes structured financial instruments redistribute risk. Examples of this type of structured instruments are asset-backed securities and collateralized debt obligations.

408
Q

What are Yield enhancement instruments?

Struictured financial instruments

A

A credit-linked note (CLN) has regular coupon payments, but its redemption value depends on whether a specific credit event occurs. If the credit event (e.g., a credit rating downgrade or default of a reference asset) does not occur, the CLN will be redeemed at its par value. If the credit event occurs, the CLN will make a lower redemption payment. Thus, the realized yield on a CLN will be lower if the credit event occurs.

The yield on a CLN is higher than it would be on the note alone

409
Q

What are Capital protected instruments?

Struictured financial instruments

A

A capital protected instrument offers a guarantee of a minimum value at maturity as well as some potential upside gain. An example is a security that promises to pay $1,000 at maturity plus a percentage of any gains on a specified stock index over the life of the security. Such a security could be created by combining a zero-coupon bond with a call option.

410
Q

What are Participation instruments?

Structured financial instruments

A

A participation instrument has payments that are based on the value of an underlying instrument, often a reference interest rate or equity index. Participation instruments do not offer capital protection. One example of a participation instrument is a floating-rate note. With a floating-rate note, the coupon payments are based on the value of a short-term interest rate, such as 90-day LIBOR (the reference rate). When the reference rate increases, the coupon payment increases. Because the coupon payments move with the reference rates on floating-rate securities, their market values remain relatively stable, even when interest rates change.

411
Q

What are leveraged instruments?

A

An inverse floater is an example of a leveraged instrument. An inverse floater has coupon payments that increase when a reference rate decreases and decrease when a reference rate increases, the opposite of coupon payments on a floating-rate note.

412
Q

What is the grey market referring to when talking about bond issuance?

A

Some bonds are traded on a when issued basis in what is called the grey market. Such trading prior to the offering date of the bonds provides additional information about the demand for and market clearing price (yield) for the new bond issue.

413
Q

What are bearer bonds?

A

A type of bonds for which ownership is not recorded. Ownership is evidenced simply by possessing the bonds.

414
Q

What is meant by industry rotation?

A

Industry rotation is an active management strategy of overweighting or underweighting industries, compared to their strategic allocation weights, based on the stage of the business cycle.

415
Q

What are contingent convertible bonds?

A

Contingent convertible bonds are converted automatically to common stock if a specified event occurs.

May be issued by banks - often structured so that if the bank’s equity capital falls below a given level, they are automatically converted to common stock

416
Q

Which type of index is least likely to require frequent reconstitution of constituent securities?

A

Equity indexes typically require reconstitution only in response to corporate events, such as mergers or bankruptcies.

Commodity indexes, which use futures contracts as their constituent securities, and fixed income indexes require frequent reconstitution as futures contracts expire and bonds mature.

417
Q

What is the lowest rating for investment grade and the highest non’investment grade rating?

A

Baa3/BBB– - investment grade
Ba1/BB+ - non-investment grade

Bonds with ratings of Baa3/BBB– or higher are considered investment grade. Bonds rated Ba1/BB+ or lower are considered noninvestment grade and are often called high yield bonds or junk bonds.

418
Q

A commodity market is in contango if the spot price is:

A

contango if spot price is lower than future opr
A commodity market is contango if the futures price is higher than the spot price.

futures price ≈ spot price×(1+risk-free rate)+storage costs−convienceyie

419
Q

A commodity market is in backwardation if the spot price is:

A

Spot price higher than futures price.

When the convenience yield is high, futures prices will be less than spot prices, a situation referred to as backwardation.

futures price ≈ spot price×(1+risk-free rate)+storage costs−convienceyie

420
Q

What is meant by a waterfall structure in a securitized bond issue?

A

In a securitized bond issue with a waterfall structure, the bonds are issued in tranches with varying levels of seniority. Any losses arising from the underlying assets are absorbed first by the tranches with the lowest seniority. Thus, tranches have different levels of default risk and therefore are likely to have different credit ratings. The structure is a form of internal credit enhancement.

421
Q

What is the difference between a defensive and an offensive competitive strategy?

A

A competitive strategy is described as defensive if it is used to maintain a firm’s market share and offensive if it is used to gain market share.

422
Q

Describe the competitive strategy cost leadership

A

Cost leadership is a competitive strategy in which a firm attempts to become the lowest-cost producer in the industry. This will enable the firm to offer lower prices than its competitors.

423
Q

Describe the competitive strategy differentiation strategy

A

A differentiation strategy involves making a product distinctive compared to competing products so that customers will be willing to pay a premium price

424
Q

What is the relationship between convexity and time to matuirity and coupon rates?

A

Other things equal, convexity is greater for bonds with longer maturities and lower coupon rates.

425
Q

What is the drawdown period for a private equity fund?

A

The drawdown period for a private equity fund is the span of time over which the fund will draw down its committed capital and use it to invest in portfolio companies.

426
Q

What are defensive stocks?

A

Defensive stocks (with low betas and low systematic risk) are less sensitive to economic cycles.

427
Q

What are revenue bonds?

A

Revenue bonds are municipal bonds that will be repaid from revenues generated by a specific project such as a toll road.

428
Q

What are secured bonds?

A

Secured bonds have specific assets pledged as collateral.

429
Q

When should you use measures of downside risk such as the Sortino ratio?

A

Downside risk measures may be more appropriate than standard deviation for estimating risk of hedge funds, which often have leptokurtic and negatively skewed returns distributions.

Standard deviation is typically an appropriate risk measure for publicly traded securities such as REITs and ETFs.

430
Q

What is soft dollar?

A

Soft dollars are commission payments to a brokerage firm that are used, in part, to pay for other services such as research.

431
Q

What dooes a supervisor have to do if an employee trades on a restricted security?

A

Standard IV(C) Responsibilities of Supervisors explicitly states that speaking to the employee to determine the extent of the violations and receiving assurances that it will not be repeated is not enough. Finley must take positive steps to ensure that the violation will not be repeated, including promptly launching an investigation and limiting the employee’s activities and/or increasing supervision of the employee until the results of the investigation are known.

432
Q

How long does a firm need to store the underlyuung material to an recommendation?

A

In the absence of regulatory requirements, Standard V(C) Record Retention recommends maintaining records supporting investment recommendations and actions and records of investment-related communications with clients for at least seven years. Seven years is a recommendation, not a requirement, so if local regulations says 5 yeras, then 5 years are OK. Records can be maintained in electronic or hard copy format.

433
Q

If a good represent a large part of your income, is that more elastic than a good representing only a small part?

A

The larger part the good represent of your income, the more elastic it is. Toothpatse is not very elastic, you will buy what you always buy.

434
Q

What is a frequency polygon?

A

a frequency polygon is constructed by drawing a point to represent the frequency of a particular interval and connecting that point to the one representing the frequency of the next interval. The result is a shape very much like a histogram constructed from the same data, but with points instead of columns.

435
Q

What is and what causes the crowding-out effect?

A

Increased government borrowing will tend to increase interest rates, and firms may reduce their borrowing and investment spending as a result, decreasing the impact on aggregate demand of deficit spending. This is referred to as the crowding-out effect because government borrowing is taking the place of private sector borrowing.

436
Q
A

Increases in tax rates will increase DTA and DTL

437
Q

If an investment of $4,000 will grow to $6,520 in four years with monthly compounding, the effective annual interest rate will be closest to:

A

(6,520 / 4,000)^(1/4) - 1 = 12.99%

We do not need to care about compounding!

438
Q

How often do you have to test for impairment of acquisition goodwill?

A

Acquisition goodwill is treated the same way under IFRS and U.S. GAAP: it is not amortized but is tested for impairment at least annually

439
Q

How do you record if a company exchange debt for equity in the cash flow statement?

A

Since no cash is involved, the transaction will just be described in the notes to the cash flow statement

440
Q

Who appoints an external auditor?

A

An external auditor is appointed by the audit committee of the company’s board of directors, not by its management

441
Q

What is the objective of an audit?

A

The objective of an audit is to enable the auditor to provide an opinion on the fairness and reliability of the financial statements. The auditor generally only provides reasonable assurance that there are no material errors in the financial statements, not an opinion about their numerical accuracy.

442
Q

What is the difference between a probability denisty function and a probability distribtuion function?

A

Probability distribution functions are defined for the discrete random variables

Probability density functions are defined for the continuous random variables.

443
Q

What is the total debt ratio?

A

The debt ratio is total debt to total assets.

total debt / total assets

444
Q

What is the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI)?

A

The HHI is calculated as the sum of the squares of the market shares of the largest firms in the market.

E.g. the 4-firm HHI is…

HHI is more sensitive to mergers, which is good!

445
Q

What is the N-firm concentration ratio?

A

The N-firm concentration ratio is calculated as the sum or the percentage market shares of the largest N firms in a market

446
Q

How are derivative instruments treated in accounting?

A

Derivative instruments are treated the same as trading securities where unrealized gains and losses are recognized on the income statement.

447
Q

What are the two primary assumptions in preparing financial statements under IFRS?

A

In the IFRS framework, the two assumptions that underlie the preparation of financial statements are accrual accounting and the going concern assumption.

Accrual accounting means that financial statements should reflect transactions at the time they actually occur, not necessarily when cash is paid. Going concern assumes the company will continue to exist for the foreseeable future.

448
Q

What are dilutive securities?

A

Dilutive securities are stock options, warrants, convertible debt, or convertible preferred stock that would decrease EPS if exercised or converted to common stock.

If a firm has more than one potentially dilutive security outstanding, each potentially dilutive security must be examined separately to determine if it is actually dilutive (i.e., would reduce EPS if converted to common stock).

449
Q

What are proxy statements?

A

Proxy statements are issued to shareholders when there are matters that require a shareholder vote. These statements are a good source of information about the election of (and qualifications of) board members, compensation, management qualifications, and the issuance of stock options.

450
Q

What is the 10-k and 10-q report?

A

Companies’ annual financial statemt is called Form 10-K and the quarterly financial statements are called Form 10-Q

451
Q

What is the formula for the position of the observation at a given percentile, y, with n data points sorted in ascending order

A

Ly = (n+1) * y/100

452
Q

What is a natural monopoly?

A

In some industries, the economics of production lead to a single firm supplying the entire market demand for the product. There are large economies of scale. The average cost of production for a single firm is falling throughout the relevant range of consumer demand, like the electricity grid. Doesn’t make sense to have two companioes.

453
Q

What is the rule of thumb from % of observations that fall within 1 std? 2 std?

How about 90%

A

+/- 1 std = 68%
+/- 2 std = 95% (1.96 actual)
90% = +/- 1.65 std

454
Q

What are externalities in a project?

A

Externalities are the effects the acceptance of a project may have on other firm cash flows. The primary one is a negative externality called cannibalization, which occurs when a new project takes sales from an existing product.

A positive externality exists when doing the project would have a positive effect on sales of a firm’s other product lines.

455
Q

Which of thje following sources of short-term liquidity funding is most reliable?
Revolving line of credit
Factoring agreement
Uncommited line of credit?

A

A revolving line of credit is typically for a longer period and involves an agreement to lend funds in the future up to some maximum amount. This is the best.

With an uncommitted line of credit, the lender is not committed to make loans in any amount.

Factoring does not typically involve an agreement for future receivables purchases.

456
Q

What are the five key principles of the capital budgeting process?

A

The five key principles of the capital budgeting process are:

  1. Decisions are based on cash flows, not accounting income.
  2. Cash flows are based on opportunity costs.
  3. The timing of cash flows is important.
  4. Cash flows are analyzed on an after-tax basis.
  5. Financing costs are reflected in the project’s required rate of return.
457
Q

In what law systems are shareholder and creditor interests are considered to be better protected?

A

Shareholder and creditor interests are considered to be better protected in a common-law system under which judges’ rulings become law in some instances compared to a civil-law system.

458
Q

What is the short-run supply curve for a firm in a perfectly competitive market is equal to

A

The short-run supply curve for a firm in a perfectly competitive market is equal to the firm’s MC curve. A price taker will maximize profits when it produces the output level where P = MC. As price rises, its point of intersection with the MC curve indicates optimal production.

459
Q

Name some sources of sustainable long-run economic growth?

A

Sources of sustainable long-run economic growth (increases in long-run aggregate supply) include
1. increases in the labor force
2. human capital (the education and skill level of the labor force)
3. the stock of physical capital
4. the supply of natural resources
5. The level of technology.

460
Q

Why is the money supply curve is perfectly inelastic?

A

The money supply schedule is vertical because the money supply is independent of interest rates. Central banks control the money supply.

461
Q

If you buy a put, are you taking a long or short position?

A

The buyers of both puts and calls are taking long positions in the options contracts (but the buyer of a put is establishing a short exposure to the underlying)

462
Q

In accrual accounting, what is the matching principle?

A

The matching principle holds that expenses should be accounted for in the same performance measurement period as the revenue they generate.

463
Q

How do you treat investments in listed equity securities (no significant control) in US GAAP and IFRS? (In the financial statements)

A

U.S. GAAP categorizes equity investment without significant control as trading securities, reported at fair value with profit and loss reported on the income statement. Under IFRS, firms can report equity securities in this manner, but may elect at the time of purchase to report an equity security at fair value through other comprehensive income.

464
Q

What is an unbiased? estimator

A

An unbiased estimator has an expected value equal to the true value of the population parameter

465
Q

What is a consistent? estimator

A

A consistent estimator is more accurate the greater the sample size

466
Q

What is an efficient? estimator

A

An efficient estimator has the sampling distribution that is less than that of any other unbiased estimator.

467
Q

What four categories of formulas does S&P employ for finding the credit rating?

A
  1. Scale and diversification. Larger companies and those with a wider variety of product lines and greater geographic diversification are better credit risks.
  2. Operational efficiency. Such items as operating ROA, operating margins, and EBITDA margins fall into this category. Along with greater vertical diversification, high operating efficiency is associated with better debt ratings.
  3. Margin stability. Stability of the relevant profitability margins indicates a higher probability of repayment (leads to a better debt rating and a lower interest rate). Highly variable operating results make lenders nervous.
  4. Leverage. Ratios of operating earnings, EBITDA, or some measure of free cash flow to interest expense or total debt make up the most important part of the credit rating formula. Firms with greater earnings in relation to their debt and in relation to their interest expense are better credit risks.
468
Q

What does the invoice terms “2/20 net 60” mean?

A

2/20 net 60 means that you get a 2% discount if the invoice is paid within 20 days, the whole amout has to be paid within 60 days.

469
Q

Which board committee is most likely to be required by regulations?

A

Regulations often require an audit committee to be appointed

470
Q

What is the formula for Beta?

A

Beta = cov(Ri, Rm) / (std m)^2

So coveriance between asset return and the market divided by the variance of the market

471
Q

What are REIT indexes?

A

Real Estate Investment Trust indexes track the prices of shares of publicly traded companies that invest in mortgages or real property

472
Q

What is the formula for the no arbitrage cost price of a Forward contract? (including cost of carry items)

A

F0 = [S0 - PV(benefits) + PV(costs)] x (1+r)^t

Net cost of carry is benefits - costs.

473
Q

How do you include the convexity adjustment in the change in fuill bond price formulka?

A

change in full bond price = –annual modified duration x (ΔYTM) + 1/2 x annual convexity x (ΔYTM)^2

474
Q

What is the formula for approximate convexity adjusment?

A

Approximate convexity = (V- + V+ - 2V0) / (delta YTM^2 * V0)

475
Q

Do preferred shares have voting rights?

A

Preferred shares typically have no voting rights.

476
Q

What are supranational bonds, global bonds and dual-currency bonds?

A
  • Supranational bonds are issued by multilateral agencies such as the World Bank or International Monetary Fund.
  • Bonds that trade outside the jurisdiction of any one country are known as global bonds.
  • Bonds that pay coupons in a different currency than their principal are known as dual-currency bonds.
477
Q

For what type of company should you use the price-to-sales ratio for valuation?

A

The price-to-sales ratio can be used for firms with negative earnings and implicitly recognizes the value of assets not recognized on the balance sheet. The price-to-earnings ratio is the most popular ratio in the investment community; however, it is not a useful ratio for firms with negative earnings. One of the significant disadvantages of the price-to-book value ratio is that it does not recognize the value of nonphysical assets such as human capital or intangible assets generated internally.

478
Q

Is the option value negative or positive for a callable bond? if a callable bond has a Z-spread of 180 bp and the value of the call option is 60 bp, the bond’s OAS is 180 – 60 = 120 bp.

Z-spread = OAS + option value

A

If a callable bond has a Z-spread of 180 bp and the OAS is 120 bp, the value of the call option is:180 – 120 = 60 bp.

Make sense, the yeild should be higher for callable bonds.

So option value is positive for callable bonds, you get higher yield than OAS if it is callable

Z-spread = OAS + option value

479
Q

When do you use an asset-based valuation model?

A

Asset-based models are often used to value natural resources companies and companies that are being liquidated.

480
Q

What is prepayment risk and what forms can it take on?

A

Prepayment risk is the risk involved with the premature return of principal on a mortgage. A prepayment effectively renders the borrower free of mortgage obligations. Prepayment risk can take one of these two forms:
1. Contraction risk: the risk that interest rates decline. Homeowners will then refinance at the available lower interest rates.
2. Extension risk: the risk that when interest rates rise, prepayments will be lower than expected.

481
Q

What are agency RMBS and nonagency RMBS?

A

RMBS not issued by GNMA, Fannie Mae, or Freddie Mac are referred to as nonagency RMBS. They are not guaranteed by the government, so credit risk is an important consideration. The credit quality of a nonagency MBS depends on the credit quality of the borrowers as well as the characteristics of the loans, such as their LTV ratios. To be investment grade, most nonagency RMBS include some sort of credit enhancement.

482
Q

What are CMBS Commercial mortgage-backed securities?

A

Commercial mortgage-backed securities (CMBS) are backed by income-producing real estate, typically in the form of:

  • Apartments (multi family).
  • Warehouses (industrial use property).
  • Shopping centers.
  • Office buildings.
  • Health care facilities.
  • Senior housing.
  • Hotel/resort properties.
483
Q

What are CMOs Collateralized mortgage obligations?

A

Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO) are securities that are collateralized by RMBS. Each CMO has multiple bond classes (CMO tranches) that have different exposures to prepayment risk. The total prepayment risk of the underlying RMBS is not changed; the prepayment risk is simply reapportioned among the various CMO tranches.

484
Q

Give examples on investments that hedge against inflation:

A

Commodities and real estate investments such as farmland may both provide a hedge against inflation.

Investing in farmland may provide income over the life of the investment from crops produced and sold. Investing in commodities typically does not provide income.