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Whiskey/Whisky > Certified Scotch Professional > Flashcards

Certified Scotch Professional Flashcards

Certified Scotch Professional study cards for the CSP exam through the Council of Whisky Masters

1
Q

Other than producing the spirit, name a use of water in the distillery.

A
  • Cooling the condensers
  • Reducing the spirit
  • Cleaning the plant
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2
Q

Why might someone argue hard water is better for producing Scotch whisky?

A

Hard water may impart spiciness from the minerals in the water

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3
Q

Why might someone argue soft water is better for producing Scotch whisky?

A

Soft water is a better solvent and is capable of extracting more from the malt

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4
Q

How does water temperature affect the flavor of the spirit?

A

The temperature of the water in the condenser affects how long the vapor will be in contact with the copper

Since copper is a purifier and warmer water causes it to take longer for the vapour to liquify, the extended copper contact creates a purer and lighter spirit

Colder water will do the opposite and will yield a heavier, more “traditional” spirit

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5
Q

What does aqua vitae mean?

A

“Water of life”

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6
Q

What is uisge beatha?

A

Gaelic for whisky

(pronunciation: ooshkie bayahah)
* abbreviated to uishkie in 17th century and whiskie by 1715
* The spelling whisky first appeared in 1736

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7
Q

What is sgailc?

A

Bumper of spirits taken before breakfast/a morning dram

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8
Q

Puritan parliament imposed tax on Scotch whisky in ____ (year).

A

1644

  • Done to raise money for the army
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9
Q

True/False: most distillates in the early days were made for medicines and perfumes.

A

True

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10
Q

Who is known as the “Father of distilling”?

A

Arnaldus de Villa Nova

*13th century Moorish scholar

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11
Q

In what year was the first record of distilled spirit in Scotland?

A

1494

  • “To Friar John Cor, by order of the King, to make aquavitae, VIII bolls of malt”
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12
Q

During mashing, amalyse converts dextrin into what?

A

Maltose

*Maltose is a soluble sugar

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13
Q

What is a washback?

A

Fermentation vessel

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14
Q

What are flails?

A

Brooms

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15
Q

What is a hundredweight?

A

50 kg

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16
Q

What is a strike point?

A

Optimum heat at which enzymes will break down the starch

  • 63-64ºC (147ºF)
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17
Q

What is draff?

A

Husks and spent grain from the bottom of the mash tun

*Used for cattle feed

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18
Q

What is wet draff?

A

Draff sent directly to farmers

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19
Q

What are foreshots?

A

Early runnings of the distillate

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20
Q

What are feints/aftershots?

A

Late runnings of the distillate

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21
Q

What is the cut?

A

Middle of the running

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22
Q

What is a spirit safe?

A

Brass-bound glass-fronted box

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23
Q

What is spent lees?

A

The later part of the second distillation joins the early part in the low wines and feints receiver to undergo re-distillation, and the still is then run down to 1% ABV

*this ends up as waste

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24
Q

What is clearic?

A

“New-make-spirit”

spirit before ageing

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25
Q

What are American Standard Barrels?

A

“After-Bouron Barrels”

180-200L capacity

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26
Q

What is a dump-hogshead?

A

Remade hogshead with a capacity of 55 gallons / 250L

  • Also called “re-made hogshead” or “hogshead”
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27
Q

What are shooks?

A

American Standard Barrels are transported as these bundles of staves, then reassembled in Scotland with new heads

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28
Q

What are ex-sherry casks? (puncheons and butts)

A

110 gallons / 500L barrels

*Sherry butts are taller and more narrow than puncheons

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29
Q

What is first-fill?

A

The first time a cask is filled with Scotch Whisky

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30
Q

What is refill cask?

A

A cask that has previously been filled with Scotch Whisky

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31
Q

What is an Angel’s share?

A

The 2% of the whisky that evaporates each year

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32
Q

What happens if the grist is too fine?

A

The mash tun will not drain quickly enough

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33
Q

What happens if the grist is too coarse?

A

The liquor will drain too fast and maximum extraction cannot occur

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34
Q

A washback is typically made of what material(s)?

A

Pine or stainless steel

  • Pine can be larch or Oregon pine/Douglas fir
  • Oregon pine/Douglas fir is preferred, as it grows tall and has a fine grain with few knots
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35
Q

True/False: Whisky fermentation is non-sterile

A

True

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36
Q

Describe the character of a spirit fermented from a wash that has been fermented for 2 days.

A

Malty and cereal-like

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37
Q

Describe the character of a spirit fermented from a wash that has been fermented over 60 hours.

A

Complex, fruity, and floral

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38
Q

Through the second run, feints (increase/decrease) while esters (increase/decrease).

A

Feints increase while esters decrease

*Feints are biscuit-y, then go through a honey phase, then rapidly deteriorate into sweat and stale fish aromas

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39
Q

Organo-(nitrogen/sulphur) compounds are the acceptable feints.

A

Organo-nitrogen

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40
Q

What did the Illicit Distillation Act (1822) accomplish?

A

It abolished the Highland/Lowland distinction

*The Small Stills Act was introduced in 1816 and lead to the abolition of the Highland Line

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41
Q

Gorda cask size.

A

130 gallons / 600 litres

  • “bodega butt”
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42
Q

Pipe cask size.

A

110 gallons / 500 litres

  • formerly used for maturing port
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43
Q

Puncheon cask size.

A

120 gallons / 545 litres

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44
Q

Butt cask size.

A

110 gallons / 500 litres

*formerly used for maturing sherry

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45
Q

Dump Puncheon cask size.

A

100 gallons / 460 litres

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46
Q

Hogshead cask size.

A

55 gallons / 250 litres

  • The most common cask for whisky
  • Also named “re-made hogshead” or “dump hogshead”
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47
Q

“Barrel” cask size.

A

40 gallons / 180 litres

  • Usually referred to as “American Barrel”
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48
Q

Kinderkin cask size.

A

18 gallons / 82 litres

  • In old Scots, “Kinken”
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49
Q

Quarter cask size.

A

9-10 gallons / approx. 45 litres

  • Also called “Firkin”
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50
Q

Anker cask size.

A

8-10 gallons / approx. 45 litres

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51
Q

Octave cask size.

A

5 gallons / 22.5 litres

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52
Q

Wash Act (1784).

A

Drew a national line diagonally across Scotland, the “Highland Line”, which ran from the First of Clyde on the west coast to the Firth of Tray on the east coast

  • William Pitt’s Wash Act
  • William Pitt became prime minister in 1783
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53
Q

This producer pioneered “sherry-finishing” in the North Highlands.

A

Glenmorangie

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54
Q

What is a Dark Plains Plant?

A

Where draff is sent if it is to be dried and compressed into “cattle-cake”

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55
Q

Name the raw materials of Scotch Whisky production.

A

Water, yeast, malted barley

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56
Q

Name the three main parts of production that must happen prior to maturation.

A

Mashing, fermentation, distillation

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57
Q

Many argue soft, peaty water is best for Scotch Whisky production because of ______.

A

The combined content of carbon dioxide and the presence of acid-producing bacteria from the peat.

  • Water’s capacity to dissolve solubles is enhanced if it contains carbon dioxide.
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58
Q

How does granite affect water?

A

Granite is so hard it will not impart any minerals to water running through it

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59
Q

Name a distillery that uses hard water.

A

Glenmorangie, Glenkinchie, Highland Park

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60
Q

Calcium, magnesium, and zinc are essential for good fermentation; if soft water is used, how can these be obtained?

A

Through the malt itself

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61
Q

Is distilled water used in whisky production?

A

No, soft water is almost as pure as distilled water

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62
Q

Water in the ______ (region) is especially soft.

A

Highlands

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63
Q

Where is peaty water mostly used?

A

Islay

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64
Q

Barley is graded on a scale of ______-______.

A

1-9

  • The top three grades are suitable for malting
  • The top three grades have the capacity to germinate and grow
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65
Q

Quality barley for Scotch Whiskey production has a (low/high) starch content.

A

High

  • High starch = high sugar = high alcohol potential
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66
Q

Quality barley for Scotch Whiskey production has (low/high) protein content.

A

Low, less than 1.5%

  • Higher protein = lower starch
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67
Q

Quality barley for Scotch Whiskey production has (low/high) nitrogen content.

A

Low, less than 1.7%

  • High nitrogen indicates high protein
  • Nitrogen is an active ingredient in fertilizers
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68
Q

True/False: quality barley must be easy to mill and mash because some varieties become glue-like in the must-tun.

A

True

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69
Q

Barley will likely go moldy with more than ______% moisture.

A

16%

  • This is not as much of a problem today as most barley is artificially dried.
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70
Q

True/False: most barley today is artificially dried.

A

True

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71
Q

In what ways is barley purchased?

A
  1. Direct from farmers
  2. On the “spot market”
  3. By specifying to a grain merchant exactly what is required
  • The 1st guarantees tonnage, but not quality
  • The 2nd gives access to the pick of the crop, but can be volatile
  • The 3rd is the most common
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72
Q

Where is barley for Scotch Whisky produced?

A

Scotland (75%)
England (15%)
Oversees; France and Denmark (10%)

*Distillers tend to prefer Scottish barley

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73
Q

What type of soil conditions yields quality barley?

A

Poor soils

  • Low yield and high quality
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74
Q

How does cold weather benefit barley production in terms of sustainability?

A

Cold winters kill bugs, so there is less need for pesticides

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75
Q

How may long northern sunlight hours affect barley production?

A

The long daylight hours help concentrate flavors

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76
Q

The UK is divided into 5 barley regions, name them.

A

Northwest (including Northern Ireland and North Wales), Northeast, Central, Southwest, and Southeast

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77
Q

What is the most popular barley variety today?

A

Laureate

  • Yields up to 420 litres alcohol per tonne
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78
Q

Why might some producers prefer Golden Promise over Laureate?

A

Golden Promise yields a richer, more oily spirit and some smaller distilleries are increasing the demand, even at the expense of yield

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79
Q

Yeast is pitched at what percent of the weight of the malt mashed?

A
  1. 2%

* ex. a typical mash of 8 tonnes will take about 175 kg yeast

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80
Q

How is the foam in a washback broken up today?

A

Modern wash backs are fitted with mechanical switchers to break the foam and stop it from overflowing

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81
Q

Congeners include ______.

A

Esters, aldehydes, acids, and higher alcohols

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82
Q

Name the two parts of barley.

A

Embryo and endosperm

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83
Q

What is the embryo of barley?

A

Living structure that will grow into a new plant

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84
Q

What is the endosperm of barley?

A

Store of starch that will feed the young plant until it can fend for itself

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85
Q

Name the steps of the malting process.

A

Steeping, germination, kilning

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86
Q

In simple terms, what is malting?

A

Controlled germination

  • The process is essentially to progress germination to a point where the cell walls have broken down, but before the starch begins to be used by the growing plant
  • The growth is stopped by drying the “green malt” (after it has germinated) in a kiln
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87
Q

Barley requires ______% moisture for the enzymes to be activated.

A

46%

  • The enzymes are amylase and cytase
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88
Q

How is barley steeped?

A

It is first cleaned, then immersed in water 3 times.

  • This lasts 2-3 days
  • The time length depends on the nitrogen level, temperature of the water, the ambient temperature, the size of the grains and their absorption capacity
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89
Q

How would you fix over-steeped and under-steep grains?

A

Over-steeped grains can be dried by a tumble drying process

Under-steeped grains can be sprayed, but this leads to uneven uptake

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90
Q

The barley seed produces enzymes during what part of the malting process?

A

Germination

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91
Q

What does cytase do?

A

Breaks down the cell walls and makes the starch accessible for growth

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92
Q

What does amylase do?

A

Converts the starch into its soluble form, dextrin

  • During the mashing process, amylase converts dextrin into maltose
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93
Q

Why does germinating barley need to be turned?

A

When the grain sprouts, it creates heat. The roots can slo get tangled.

  • This process is called “turning the piece” and lasts about 1 week
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94
Q

What is “modification”?

A

Spreading out the grain more and more until the rootlets begin to wither and the green malt becomes mealy

  • If the grain is chalky and smooth, it is ready
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95
Q

Name a distillery that has its own floor malting.

  • 2 of them produce 100% of their own needs.
A

Bowmore, Laphroaig, Balvenie, and Highland Park produce 10-20% of their needs

Springbank and Glen Ord produce 100% of their own needs

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96
Q

What are the benefits of having your own floor maltings?

A

This allows for greater control of the flavor sought

  • The process is slower and more natural
  • The process does not force germination
  • The process is labor intensive and limits the amount of malt that can be made at a time
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97
Q

What is a pneumatic malting system?

A

Each rotary drum is charged with damp grain from the steeps, then turned by gravity as the drum rotate. Humidity and temperature are controlled by internal sprays and by blowing air through the grain.

  • This way the batch size can be greatly increased
  • SGKVs were invented in the 1970s at Moray Firth Maltings
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98
Q

There are two pneumatic malting systems operating today, name one.

A

Rotary Drums

Steep, Germinating and Kilnking Vessles (SGKVs)

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99
Q

Name the two types of modern kiln.

A

Direct fired and indirect fired

  • With direct fired, gases of combustion pass through the malt bed
  • With indirect fired, air is heated by oil-burners or steam-heated radiators before it passes through the malt
100
Q

Name the three stages of kilning.

A

Free drying, forced drying, and cooling

101
Q

When is peat used?

A

If used, it will be thrown in during the first phase of kilning.

  • The temperature must be kept below 60º C or else the phenols in the peat will be destroyed
  • These phenols only adhere to the barley when they are still damp, so you want smoke, rather than heat, at this stage
  • The lower the temperature, the higher the peatiness
102
Q

How is heat drawn out of the kiln?

A

Through a tapering roof

103
Q

Describe the free drying phase of kilning.

A

This stage evaporates moisture on the surface of the green malt. Air is drawn through the malt at a temperature of 60-65ºC (140-149ºF). Peat, if used, will be added at this phase and the temperature should be below 60ºC (140ºF).

104
Q

Describe the forced drying phase of kilning.

A

Temperature is increased 70-75ºC (158-167ºF) and the airflow is decreased. The moisture content of the malt will now have decreased by 5%

105
Q

Describe the cooling phase of kilning.

A

The temperature is reduced to 30ºC (86ºF) to prevent further curing of the malt

  • The entire kilning process takes between 20 and 48 hours, depending on the type of kilning, the size of the kiln, and the amount of malt
106
Q

What is peat?

A

Acidic, decayed vegetation made from bog plants, such as sphagnum moss, heather, sedges, and grasses

  • For peat to develop there must be high rainfall, a cold atmosphere, and poor soil draining or aeration
  • The waterlogged ground cannot break down the vegetation, so a thickening layer of peat develops
107
Q

How is peat cut?

A

Peat is cut in May/June, then laid out on the heather around the pet bank for 2 weeks, then stacked in small pyramids, “cas bhic”, Gaelic for “little feet”, to dry thoroughly for a year

108
Q

Describe Lowland peats.

A

Looser, softer texture, containing more vegetable matter

  • Burn more rapidly and give off more dust
109
Q

In Orkney, what are “fog”, “yarphie”, and “moss” peats?

A

Fog: the rooty top layer
Yarphie: the small roots
Moss: the deepest, darkest layer – best for heat, but not smoke

110
Q

How is the intensity of peating categorized?

A

3 categories: lightly peated, medium peated, and heavily peated

Lightly peated: 1-5 ppm total phenols
Medium: 10-20 ppm total phenols
Heavily: 30-50 ppm total phenols

111
Q

What is the “culm”?

A

Withered shoots of the malted barley

112
Q

What is the malt tested for at the distillery prior to milling?

A
  1. Moisture: 12% maximum permitted
  2. Viability of germination: must be 99% viable
  3. Insect infestation: this can destroy a hopper-full in hours
  • The malt is then screened to remove any reamining dust, stones, and small grains
113
Q

What does it mean when a malt has been “dressed”?

A

Passed over a reverberating wire-mesh that removes the “culm” and rootlets produced during malting

114
Q

How is grist made?

A

In a mill hopper
• Malt is loaded in hundredweight (50kg) lots
• Mill has two sets of rollers: one to crack the husks, one to grind the malt
• It must produce 10% flour, 20% husk, and 70% grist

  • If it is too fine, the mash tun will not drain quickly enough
    If it is too coarse, the liquor will drain too fast and maximum extraction will not occur
115
Q

What is the first things that happens in a mash tun?

A

The grist is mashed with hot water in order to extract the maximum amount of soluble starch

116
Q

What is a mash tun?

A

A large circular vessel with perforated floors through which “worts” can drain after mashing is complete

  • Usually covered, often with copper, to retain heat and is made from stainless steel or cast iron
117
Q

How is the mash stirred?

A

Revolving mechanical rakes periodically stir the mash

118
Q

What is the size of a mash tun?

A

Varies from 1 to 15 tonnes

  • The size is related to the capacity of the fermentation vessel it will later fill
  • 1 tonne of malt should produce 5.000 litres of wort
119
Q

What is a Lauter tun?

A

A German invention, widely used by brewers, designed to increase extraction

  • Most distilleries have adopted this tun
120
Q

How many waters (“extractions”) are used in the mashing process?

A

3

  • The first includes the third water leftover from the previous mashing
121
Q

Describe the process of the three waters of the mashing process.

A

1st: heated to around 63-64ºC (147ºF), then mixed with the grist in a mashing machine and filled into the mash tun. If the water is too hot, it will kill the enzymes; if it is too cool, the amount of grist will have to be reduced.
2nd: water is pumped into the mash tun, this time at 70ºC (158ºF), stirred, left for 30 minutes, then emptied into the under back.
3rd: the “sparge”. Goes into the mash tun at 85ºC (185ºF), takes 15 minutes to fill and settles, then is pumped into the hot water tank to be used as the first water of the next mashing. This contains about 1% sugar.

122
Q

What happens to the wort after the mashing process?

A

The warm wort is then passed from the under back through a heat exchanger to reduce the temperature to below 20ºC (68ºF).

  • If the wort is not cooled, the maltose will decompose and the yeast will be killed off
123
Q

What is a “pot ale”?

A

Residues of wash still distillation

  • Combined with draff at a dark grains plant to be compressed into a “cattle-cake”
124
Q

What happens to the worts after being chilled in a heat exchanger?

A

The chilled worts are pumped into the washback (fermentation vessel)

125
Q

After the washback is initially filled, about 2/3 full with wort for fermentation, what happens?

A

Yeast is pitched in, usually as the worts enter the back

  • The worts from now on become the wash
126
Q

Describe the first phase of fermentation.

A

The “log phase” typically lasts a couple hours and the yeast gets used to its surroundings

127
Q

Describe the second phase of fermentation.

A

During the second phase, yeast cells rapidly multiple, consuming the sugars in the wash and turn the mixture into CO2 and alcohol.

This causes the wash to seethe and froth.

The temperature of the wash increases to 35ºC (95ºF).

128
Q

Describe the third (final) phase of fermentation.

A

The final phase lasts about 12 hours and the wash calms down as the alcohol inhibits the activity of the yeasts cells.

The growth of bacteria dramatically increases; this bacteria growth makes a second, bacteriological, fermentation possible.
• The bacteria come mainly from the malt and are basically lactic acid
• Lowering the pH, these lactic acids allow further flavors to develop

129
Q

How often are washbacks cleaned?

A

After each fermentation, as excessive bacterial infestation can render yeasts useless

130
Q

In simple terms, what is distillation?

A

Distillation separates the alcohol in the wash from the water and concentrates it

131
Q

What has a lower boiling point, alcohol or water?

A

Alcohol

132
Q

True/False: wash still are typically larger than low wines stills.

A

True

  • Wash still must hold a greater quantity of liquid
133
Q

What are the three basic pot still designs?

A

Plain/onion, boil-ball, and lantern

  • Plain/onion is the most common
134
Q

How do direct-fired pot stills prevent solids from sticking to the bottom and burning?

A

They are fitted with “rummagers”, revolving arms that drag heavy, copper, chain-mail around their bases

135
Q

What are rummagers?

A

Revolving arms that drag heavy, copper, chain-mail around the bases of direct-fired pot stills

136
Q

How does a narrow neck of a copper pot still affect the flavors of the spirit?

A

A narrow neck will increase the velocity of the ascending caper and reduce contact with the copper, thus being less pure

137
Q

After fermentation, the wash is pumped from the washback to the wash charger, then to the wash still. What happens next?

A

First distillation

138
Q

What does the first stage of distillation accomplish?

A

It extracts alcohol from the wash

139
Q

Describe the first distillation.

A

The wash is heated, comes to a boil, then begins to froth up within the vessel.

As soon as the froth is visible in the sight glass, the heat is reduced.

The wash then settles, then the heat is gradually increased. This process is repeated a few times to “break the head” of the froth, then steadily distills off the low wines.

140
Q

At the beginning of distillation, the wash is about ______% ABV.

A

8

141
Q

The low wines begin at ______% ABV.

A

21

  • They pass to the low wines and feints charger where their strength is raised to at least 28% ABV by the heads and tails already there from the previous low wines distillation
142
Q

What is the main purpose of the second distillation?

A

It further purifies and concentrates the spirit

143
Q

Congeners include ______.

A

Furfural, esters, aldehydes, and other compounds of hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon

144
Q

At what temperature do foreshots begin to run?

A

84ºC (183ºF)

  • Foreshots will have a high alcoholic strength – 75-80% ABV
145
Q

What is the demisting test?

A

Purity test by adding water

  • A cloudy result mens the spirit is not pure
  • The strength is also tested with a hydrometer
146
Q

After the cut begins to be saved and the run proceeds, the temperature rises to ______.

A

100ºC (212ºF)

Water boiling temperature

147
Q

About halfway through the second running, ______ begin to emerge. They quickly go from pleasant to unpleasant and the cut must be stopped before this happens, even though the spirit strength may still be high.

A

Feints

  • They begin with biscuit and cereal-like aromas, then rapidly move to sweat and stale fish aromas
  • If the cut is stopped too early, there will not be enough of the pleasant feints
148
Q

What is the optimum strength of clearic/new-make-spirit for maturing?

A

63.5% ABV

149
Q

True/False: since 1990, casks are legally required to be made of oak.

A

True

150
Q

Whisky is matured almost entirely in Quercus ______.

A

Quercus alba (american white oak) with a percentage of Quercus robur

  • Alba can give sharp, pine-like aromas to the whisky
  • robur can give resinous characteristics and astringency
151
Q

All trees for oak must be at least ______ years old.

A

80 years

152
Q

Why is oak ideal for maturing Scotch Whisky?

A

It contains:
• Cellulose: contributes little to maturation
• Hemicellulose: caramelizes, adding sweetness and color
• Lignin: a good blending agent, pulling flavors together, increasing complexity and producing vanilla-like notes
• Tannins: producing astringency, fragrance, and delicacy
• Wood extractives: bourbon, sherry, etc.

• It also facilitates oxidation, reducing harshness increasing fruitiness, and adding complexity

153
Q

Why do casks undergo charring?

A

It removes undesirable off-notes

154
Q

Most Scotch Whisky is aged in what type of cask? (from pervious use)

A

Bourbon

  • Accounts for about 90% of casks
155
Q

Ex-sherry casks are typically from what type of sherry?

A

Oloroso, sometimes fino

156
Q

What types of wine cask (not sherry) may be used for maturation of Scotch Whisky?

A

Typically port

  • Sometimes madeira, burgundy, Rhône, Sauternes, etc.
157
Q

Why are wine casks (not sherry) usually used as “finishing casks”?

A

The whisky is re-racked into these casks for a limited period with a view of rounding it off and adding more flavor

158
Q

Whisky ages faster in (smaller/larger) casks.

A

Smaller

159
Q

The 3 basic cask functions are additive mechanism, subtractive mechanism, and interactive mechanism. Describe them.

A
  1. Additive mechanism: added desirable flavors to the spirit
  2. Subtractive mechanism: removes unwanted flavors
  3. Interactive mechanism: allows the spirit to interact with its environment, losing harsh alcohols and developing complexity though oxidation
160
Q

What is the difference between After Bourbon Barrels (or “American Standard Barrels”) and Remade Hogsheads?

A

After Bourbon Barrels are transported whole and have a capacity of 180-200L, whereas remade hogshead is transported as staves and is reassembled in Scotland, with new heads, and has a capacity of 250L

161
Q

What type of cask is more likely to impart sulphur-y notes? Why?

A

Ex-sherry cask

• It is not charred; carbon char forms a purifier that removes unwanted sulphur compounds

162
Q

After how many fills does a cask become “neutral”?

A

3-4

  • They are deemed to be “exhausted” or “spent”
163
Q

What is “de-char/re-char”?

A

After a cask has lost its initial character it may be “rejuvenated” by being reamed out and re-toasted/charred, which reactivates the layer of wood underneath the char, but it is not “good as new”

164
Q

What does “dunnage” refer to?

A

A traditional bonded warehouse
• Low, stone-built and earth-floored with casks racked 3 high
• More humid than modern warehouses

165
Q

Describe a modern racked warehouse.

A

These are much larger than traditional bonded warehouses
• Temperature controlled
• Casks are stacked up to 12 high

166
Q

What happens to the ABV and volume of the spirit while in the warehouse?

A

Traditional warehouse: volume remains high, but ABV declines
• these will be more mellow

Modern warehouse: ABV remains high, but volume declines

167
Q

Spirit cannot be called Scotch Whisk until it has been aged ______ (years).

A

3 years

168
Q

In general, (lighter/heavier) whiskies mature more quickly.

A

Lighter

169
Q

What was the Excise Act (1823)?

A

Halved duty, permitted small stills (40 gallon) in the Highlands, and allowed thin washes, encouraging smugglers to go legal

170
Q

While the ______ ______ established the Highland Line in 1784, an intermediate area was defined in 1797 that changed the Highland Line.

A

Wash Act

171
Q

True/False: all North Highland distilleries are coastal

A

False, Glen Old and Wolfburn are not

  • Some of the coastal distilleries’ whiskies have a distinct saltiness
172
Q

Why are Northern Highland malts not typically fully matured in sherry wood?

A

They are too delicate, but they may be “sherry-finished”

173
Q

Describe the characteristics of a North Highland Scotch Whisky.

A

Complex, medium-bodied, and sometimes faintly smoky

  • Malt is typically unpeated
174
Q

After the Ferintosh distillery was sacked in 1689, who was granted the right to distil free of duty from grain grown on his own lands?

A

Duncan Forbes

*Ferintosh was the first reference to a commercial distillery

175
Q

When their duty-free right was revoked in 1784, this family was producing almost 2/3 of all legally produced whisky in Scotland.

A

Forbes

176
Q

In 1893, this distillery took the name Ferintosh and operated until 1926.

A

Ben Wyves (not the one at the Invergordon complex in the 1960s-70s)

177
Q

Which whisky region contains the most malt whisky distilleries in Scotland today?

A

Speyside

178
Q

During the whisky boom, blenders could not get enough of the sweet, fragrant malts of ______.

A

Speyside

179
Q

Describe typical Speyside whiskies.

A

Sweet and high in esters notes, which makes them redolent of pear-drops and acetone, even of carnations, Parma, violets, roses, apples, bananas, cream soda, and lemonade

  • They are the most complex and sophisticated of all malt whiskies
  • Generally made from unpeated malt, although some smoky notes may come from the barley itself
180
Q

Speyside malt whiskies are 3 broad styles. What are they?

A

Light, medium, and full-bodied

  • Some of the full-bodied whiskies spend time in European oak
181
Q

Speyside is located in the northern foothills of the ______ mountains.

A

Cairngorm Mountains

  • Base in the Moray Firth
182
Q

Where would you find the river Spey?

A

Speyside

183
Q

What type of soil is found in the Laich o’Moray (“The Garden of Scotland”)?

A

Rich and fertile soils running 1.8 metres (6 feet) deep in the alluvial plain

184
Q

In Glenlivet, what special type of soil is found under almost every field?

A

Limestone

  • This increased the water’s alkalinity and hardness
185
Q

Who registered the name Glenlivet in 1870?

A

George and John Smith

186
Q

In Strathspey, Cardhu, Knockando and Tamdhu utilize water from the springs here that flow over what soil types?

A

Granite, schist, and sedimentary rock

  • High mineral content
187
Q

Dufftown soils are largely composed of ______.

A

Granite

188
Q

Where would you find the river Tay?

A

Central Highlands

189
Q

Describe the characteristics of Central Highland malt whisky.

A

Lighter body and sweeter than other Highland malts, apart from Speyside
• These can be fragrant with blossoms, elderflowers, heather, honey, and spice with a dry finish

190
Q

Describe Eastern Highland malt whiskies.

A

Medium to full-bodied, smooth and sweet-ish, but with the recognizably dry Highland finish
• Malty and sometimes fudge or toffee-like with notes of citrus, ginger, and spice

  • These whiskies benefit from maturation in sherry wood
191
Q

Why is barley imported to the West Highland?

A

Crop is small due the high rainfall and lack of fertile areas of any size

192
Q

Why was Campbeltown whisky referred to ask “stinking fish”?

A

Many distilleries exported to the Caribbean during Prohibition and it was believed that old herring barrels had been pressed into service

193
Q

Who opened Glengyle?

A

Springbank

  • Named after a previous distillery that closed in 1925
  • Glengyle opened in 2004
194
Q

Describe the characteristics of whisky of the isles.

A

Noticeably peaty, but less so than Islay
• Peppery finish, though not the case with Isle of Arran

  • Arran whisky is sweeter and more floral than the rest
195
Q

What is a “skalk”?

A

Morning dram

  • Name in the isles
196
Q 
Describe each of these morning drams:
• Sgalic-nide
• Friochd-uilinn
• Deoch Chasruisgte
• Deoch Bleth
A
  1. Sgalic-nide: a full bumper of whisky while still laying down
  2. Friochd-uilinn: taken when proper up on an elbow
  3. Deoch Chasruisgte: drunk “while still barefoot”
  4. Deoch Bleth: while waiting for breakfast porridge
  • not necessary to know, just a good conversation starter with guests
197
Q

Who were the “custodians of a secret recipe for a liqueur [Drambuie]”?

A

The Mackinnons of Corrie

  • Shortly before WWI, the liqueur began to be made in commercial quantities in Edinburgh by the descendants of the Skye Mackinnons
198
Q

Why was legal distilling unattractive in the isles?

A

Inconvenience and cost of sea transportation

199
Q

Name an island that can more easily grow barley.

A

Lewis, Tiree, Orkney

200
Q

Which of the Western Isles is the southernmost?

A

Islay

201
Q

What is Oa?

A

The peninsula in the southern part of Islay

202
Q

Malt Mill was established within Lagavulin distillery to produce a malt similar to that of its close neighbor, ______.

A

Laphroaig

203
Q

Islay
3 distilleries, ______, ______, and ______, have their own floor maltings. Most buy part or all of their malt from ______ ______ Maltings, specifying the degree of peating they require.

A
  1. Laphroaig, Bowmore, Kilchoman

2. Port Ellen Matlings

204
Q

What are gales?

A

Strong winds

205
Q

Describe typical characteristics of Islay malt whisky.

A

Smoky, which is attributed to the peat burned during kilning

206
Q

(Lowland/Highland) distilling became large scale and industrialized first.

A

Lowland

207
Q

Describe the characteristics of typical Lowland malt whisky.

A

Historically, these are lighter than Highland whisky
• Today, these are generally light in color and weight, typically with a dry finish
• The aromatic intensity is low and tends to be grassy, green or herbal, with grainy and floral notes
• These are typically unpeated, which lends a sweetened mouthfeel and flavor

  • Some say Lowland malts have a brandy-like flavor
208
Q

Name a distillery that continues to triple distil today.

A

Auchentoshan

209
Q

What is the Lomond still?

A

A pot still that contains adjustable plates in its neck which increases reflux and gives the resulting spirit a characteristic oily/fruity quality

  • This was pioneered by Hiram Walker & Company
  • The first was installed in 1959 at Inverlevel Distillery, within Hiram Walker’s Dumbarton complex
  • The last Lomond still to be installed instead of a wash still was at Scapa, Orkney and is still there
210
Q

When were the Shawfield Riots in Glasgow?

A

1725 and they were a reaction to tax rates

211
Q

In 1822, the ____________ abolished the Highland/Lowland distinction.

A

Illicit Distillation Act

212
Q

What was the first blended whisky?

A

“Old Vatted Glenlivet”

* Andrew Usher

213
Q

What did the Gladstone’s Spirits Act do?

A

Raised duty, but allowed blending of malt and grain whiskies under bond

214
Q

What was the “What is Whisky” case?

A

1906-08, the Royal Commission on whisky decided that grain and malt (and thus, blended) can be described as “whisky”

215
Q

What is the “Keepers of the Quaich”?

A

An organization that recognizes those who have given significant service to the Scotch Whisky industry

216
Q

What is a “Kinken”?

A

Kinderkin

• An 18 gallon / 82 L cask

217
Q

What is a “Firkin”?

A

Quarter

• A 9-10 gallon / 45 L cask

218
Q

Why might you add water to whisky while tasting?

A

To remove any burn and bring out some aromatic compounds that tend to show more when exposed to water

  • 20-30% ABV is best for tasting
219
Q

What is the difference between objective and subjective tasting?

A

Objective tasting is typically only used by a tasting panel and is limiting in terms used to describe the spirit, while subjective is creative and typically used by professionals explaining the spirit to a guest or by connoisseurs

220
Q

True/False: organo-nitrogen compounds are found in all malt whiskies.

A

True

221
Q

Ethyl acetate is responsible for (fruity/fragrant/peaty) notes in malt whisky.

A

Fruity

  • Ethyl acetate, isoamyl, acetate, hexyl acetate
  • These are often found in Speyside malts
222
Q

Acetal is responsible for (fruity/fragrant/peaty) notes in malt whisky.

A

Fragrant

  • Acetal, acetaldehyde, beta ion one, poly ethanol
  • These are perfumed, floral, and fresh
  • Sometimes found in Lowland malts
223
Q

Phenols are responsible for (fruity/fragrant/peaty) notes in malt whisky.

A

Peaty

  • Phenols are a large group of chemical compounds
  • Can be either smoky or medicinal, or both
  • Typical of Islay malts
224
Q

(Soft/hard) water is best for cutting the spirit while tasting.

A

Soft

  • Minerals in hard water can make a big difference in the taste and smell
225
Q

What is the ideal temperature of malt whisky for tastings?

A

15º C (59ºF)

226
Q

True/False: Most whisky undergoes chill filtration prior to bottling.

A

True

  • Cooled to about 0ºC in order to precipitate, then pressed through a bank of filters
  • The process is sometimes called “polishing”
227
Q

What is “polishing”?

A

Chill filtration

228
Q

If malt whisky goes hazy when water is added, what may that be a sign of?

A

A malt whisky that has not been chill filtered

229
Q

What is “akavit”?

A

Danish for “water of life”

230
Q

In 1609, the Statutes of ______ legalized the distilling of whisky of the Highlands and Islands.

A

Iona

231
Q

Private distilling became illegal in ______ (year).

A

1781

232
Q

Who created the continuous still? (hint: two patents were taken out)

A
  1. Robert Stein (took out a patents in 1826)

2. Aeneas Coffey (took out patent in 1831)

233
Q

When was the Scotch Whisky Association founded?

A

1942

  • It replaced the Whisky Association
234
Q

How is the strength of the distilling spirit tested?

A

With a hydrometer

235
Q

Place the following in order, smallest to largest in capacity: Quater, Kinderkin, Octave, Anker.

A

Octave | 22.5 L
Anker | 45 L
Quarter | 45 L
Kinderkin | 82 L

236
Q

Place the following in order, smallest to largest in capacity: Barrel, Dump Puncheon, Butt, Hogshead.

A

Barrel | 180 L
Hogshead | 250 L
Dump Puncheon | 460 L
Butt | 500 L

237
Q

Place the following in order, smallest to largest in capacity: Puncheon, Pipe, Gorda.

A

Pipe | 500 L
Puncheon | 545 L
Gorda | 600 L

238
Q

What is a ‘vatted malt’?

A

Mix of single malts

239
Q

_____________ was the first to be granted a monopoly for making aqua vitae in 1505.

A

The Guild of Surgeon-Barbers of Edinburgh

240
Q

True/False:

Prior to 1781 private distilling was legal for domestic consumption and sale.

A

False, it was legal for domestic consumption, but not for sale

*Private distilling was made illegal for domestic consumption in 1781

241
Q

True/False: the replaceable stopper cork was invented in the 19th century.

A

False, it was created by William Manera Bergius in the early 20th century (1913).

*White Horse Distillers created a screw cap closure in 1926

242
Q

During Prohibition, DCL, along with the Big Three companies, formed “Scheduled Area Organisation”. What was this?

A

A covert body which would control prices and quality, regulate credit and vet customers, avoiding, where possible, dealing with bootleggers

  • they were concerned that their well-known brands would be swamped by low-quality, low-priced Scotch
  • DCL= Distillers Company Limited
243
Q

What is “worts”?

A

Maltose-rich liquor created during mashing

244
Q

What is the intermediate spirits receiver, “ISR”?

A

This is where the cut, or “heart of the run” goes before going to the spirit vat

*It is reduced in strength with water in the spirit vat before being filled in casks

245
Q

How long must Scotch Whisky be aged?

A

Minimum 3 years

Whiskey/Whisky (1 decks)

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