Certified Nutrition Specialist Flashcards
Fundamental Principles of Nutrition (181 cards)
1
Q
Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to pregnancy-induced:
A
Hypertension and Asthma
Pregnancy-induced hypertension can cause cardiovascular and kidney problems later. Premature delivery is a leading cause of death among newborns. Inadequate nutrition of the mother is related to both mental and physical birth defects.
2
Q
ALT (alanine aminotransferase) is an enzyme found in the largest concentrations in which of the following?
A
Liver
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), also known as serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT), is an enzyme found in large concentrations in the liver and to a lesser extent in the kidneys, skeletal muscles, and myocardium. Injury to the liver is the usual cause of elevated serum ALT levels.
3
Q
Which of the following tools for gathering dietary information is prospective in nature?
A
Food record
Prospective is essentially using a food diary to track all intake. They’re not working from memory but a written record.
4
Q
Smokers have a higher daily requirement than non-smokers for which vitamin?
A
Vitamin C
5
Q
Regular cigarette smokers should consume how much vitamin C daily?
A
125 mg
An excess of vitamin C can cause diarrhea, nausea, cramps, and an excessive absorption of food iron, rebound scurvy when mega doses are stopped abruptly, and possible oxalate kidney stones.
6
Q
In terms of ethical considerations for research, which of the following statements is least accurate?
A
Any present (but not potential) conflict of interest must be stated.
This is the least accurate statement. Any present or potential conflicts of interest must be stated. Such things as owning stock in the company, or being a consultant to the company must be reported by the researcher – both present and potential.
7
Q
The study of how nutrients and genes interact to influence health is called
A
Nutrigenetics
8
Q
The reduced secretion of HCl due to the loss of parietal cells decreases the absorption of:
A
Ca and Fe
9
Q
Currently, ________________% of calories in U.S. diets is derived from fat.
A
30%
The recommendation is that dietary fat intake should be between 20 and 35% but we’re consuming more and more fat daily.
10
Q
What is the American Heart Association’s newest recommendation in reference to fat consumption?
A
less or no more than 7% of saturated fats, 8% polyunsaturated fats and 15% monounsaturated fats
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6213099/
11
Q
When glucose levels fall, the liver also produces additional glucose through the conversion of amino acids to glucose, which is called _____.
A
Gluconeogensis
12
Q
Elevated bilirubin is:
A
neurotoxic
Elevated bilirubin is neurotoxic and can lead to jaundice. It is conjugated with glucuronic acid in the liver and excreted into bile from the liver.
13
Q
____ and ____ work together to form hemoglobin.
A
Iron, copper
14
Q
Which of the following serum proteins has the function of transporting vitamin A in plasma?
A
retinol-binding protein:
Retinol-binding protein transports vitamin A in plasma. It also binds noncovalently to prealbumin. It is catabolized in renal proximal tubular cells.
15
Q
What is the term for a patient who has returned to his or her old behaviors?
A
Relapse
16
Q
_____ is the study of the distribution of disease within populations.
A
Epidemiology
17
Q
Insulin promotes the conversion of _____ into _____ in the liver.
A
Glucose to glycogen
Insulin signals the liver that blood glucose is too high. The liver works to convert the glucose to glycogen via the action of glycogenesis.
18
Q
Which of the following fatty acids is the precursor for many lipid mediators that are involved in the immune response?
A
Arachidonic
Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid. Following irritation or injury, arachidonic acid is released and oxygenated by enzyme systems leading to the formation of an important group of inflammatory mediators, the eicosanoids.
19
Q
If your patient is morbidly obese, she or he is likely experiencing _____ with regards to her/his adipocytes, which can make sustained weight loss more difficult.
A
hyperplasia and hypertrophy
Hyperplasia refers to the process where cells in an organ or tissue increase in number, so it’s like hiring a bigger pack of lumberjacks. Hypertrophy is when these cells in an organ or tissue increase in size, like if the lumberjack gets really tough so that she can cut down twice as many trees.
As we gain weight, our fat cells increase in size and and in number leading to increased adipose tissue in the body.
20
Q
Recent research has studied the effect of which two hormones on the regulation of appetite and fat storage
A
Ghrelin and leptin
21
Q
The functions of the stomach include which of the following?
A
temporary storage of food, mixing of food with gastric juices and regulation of a slow, controlled emptying of food into the intestine
22
Q
Vitamin K is often given to patients after extensive anticoagulant therapy because:
A
these drugs destroy the bacteria in the intestines and to treat causes of hemorrhage
Vitamin K can be given as an antidote for an overdose of anticoagulant (blood thinner) such as warfarin - sometimes sold as Coumadin or Jantoven.
23
Q
Vitamin K is made up of several compounds that are essential to blood clotting. Vitamin K is found in dietary sources, especially which of the following?
A
leafy greens, spinach and animal tissue
Vitamin K is synthesized in the intestine by bacteria and is also found in animal tissue. Synthetic vitamin K is available as well.
24
Q
Fats have all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A
acting as a carrier for vitamin C
25
In terms of the pathophysiology of ingestion, a dysfunction of the esophagus is which of the following?
Achalasia
Achalasia is a dysfunction of the esophagus. There are two clinical conditions: cardio spasm and hiatal hernia. Achalasia is dangerous because the person may aspirate food in the esophagus into the lung, leading to serious infection.
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining. Steatorrhea is fat in the stool. And pinocytosis is the ingestion of water into cells.
26
Which of the following chronic conditions has a three-fold increase in prevalence in those who are obese?
Type 2 diabetes
27
Deficiencies of iron generally would result in which type of anemia?
Microcytic
Microcytic encompasses several types of anemia but is most specifically attributed to low iron.
Megaloblastic anemia is specific to B12 deficiency.
Macrocytic anemia is most specifically attributed to low B12 but could also be characterized as non-megaloblastic being caused by other issues.
Hemolytic anemia is caused when the RBCs are being destroyed faster than they can be made. This is rare and is usually linked with diseases such as sickle cell and lupus.
28
If a person is on a low-residue diet, he or she should avoid which of the following?
Dried fruit
Dried fruit tends to be high in fiber and can be difficult to digest, so it's typically avoided on a low-residue diet.
29
Which of the following accurately describes the effect on iron absorption?
iron from animal sources is better absorbed
Higher intake of meats allows for more iron to be in the body for possible increased absorption. Concomitant intake of vitamin C aids in iron absorption (it doesn't decrease iron absorption).
Phytates can decrease iron absorption, not increase it.
Calcium can decrease iron absorption but there are conflicting studies on this.
30
Which of the following is consistent with the DASH diet?
Increased amounts of fruits and vegetables
31
Which of the following fats is associated with increased risk of myocardial infarction and increased inflammatory response?
trans fat
The best answer would be trans fat. MUFA and PUFA are healthy fats and would not increase the risk of heart issues. Dietary cholesterol has been shown not to increase cardiac episodes. But trans fat has been show to increase the risk of inflammation and CVD.
32
Which of the following is considered a learned response?
appetite
Hunger and/or starvation are physiological phenomenon; appetite is a learned response. Food intake is regulated by appetite control.
33
Phenytoin, a common drug used to treat epilepsy, depletes with which of the following nutrients?
Folate
Several studies have shown that folate is significantly decreased during the use of epileptic medications. This increases the individuals homocysteine readings. Supplementing with folate is ideal.
34
Nutrition therapy interventions for Parkinson's patients may include limiting overall protein intake because:
this may improve drug effectiveness
Levodopa is a common medication used to treat Parkinson's. It is a protein building block and competes with absorption of dietary protein. If dietary protein is taken with medication use, it will interfere with the medication absorption.
35
Calcium carbonate supplementation can interfere with the absorption of:
Iron
36
A patient was diagnosed with gout; you tell this patient that she/he should avoid purine-rich foods. Therefore, you recommend avoiding the following except ______.
Nuts
37
Abnormal findings commonly seen in metabolic syndrome include:
Increased TGs, weight, and BP
An increase in triglycerides, weight, and BP are an indication that someone's body is needing support and they're likely going to develop some disease or condition. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms that increase the risk of developing disease.
38
Children are likely to develop rickets if their diet provides insufficient quantities of which nutrients?
Vit D and calcium
Rickets is a bone disease in children that creates bone deformities from soft bones. While minerals are important for bone development, the most important nutrients are D and calcium.
39
Seafood, legumes, and nuts are primary sources of:
Magnesium
40
Which mineral increases blood pressure in some people, and which tends to lower it?
Sodium increases, potassium lowers
41
Which animal product is a source of potassium?
yogurt
42
The primary physiological role of which mineral is as a constituent in the thyroid hormones?
Iodine
43
You have a client who has iron and copper-dependent anemia. Which nutrient will enhance the absorption of iron and copper?
Vit C
44
The inability to produce intrinsic factor protein and R protein can result in a severe _____ deficiency.
B12
45
Which of the following foods provide the highest amount of folate?
Leafy greens
46
What regulates blood levels of magnesium?
Small intestine, kidneys
47
Hemoglobin and hematocrit are common measurements for assessment of nutrition for which mineral?
Iron
48
How are vitamins classified?
Based on solubility
49
You have a new client who is depressed and overweight. Which of the following approaches has the strongest research evidence?
Exercise
50
Salt water fish is a natural source of _____
Iodine
Iodine is not found in many food sources. It is in fish and certain crops from iodine rich soil. This is why iodized salt was introduced.
51
Which of the following is least likely to be an indicator of stress in your client?
decreased fat around the abdomen
An increase of fat around the abdomen is more likely an indicator of stress. Other indicators besides the other three choices include: suppressed immunity; increases in blood sugar; increased levels of cortisol; and increases in blood cholesterol levels.
52
Scurvy and beriberi can be prevented by
Vitamin supplements.
Vitamin supplements can prevent scurvy and beriberi. These deficiencies occur when dietary intake is inadequate.
53
Which of the following foods impairs the calcification of bone in developing children?
Sodas
54
A low oxalate diet can be useful for someone who:
Gets kidney stones
55
C-reactive protein is the most sensitive indicator for:
Inflammation
56
When every available bond in the hydrocarbon chain is attached to a molecule of hydrogen this is which of the following?
saturated fatty acid
Saturated fatty acids are those in which every available bond in the hydrocarbon chain is attached to a molecule of hydrogen. Foods containing primarily saturated fatty acids are generally solid at room temperature and come primarily from animal sources.
57
Which of the following statements regarding oxidative stress is accurate?
Some medications can cause oxidative stress ;
The human immune response makes extensive use of oxidative molecules;
Radicals of different kinds are potentially involved in both initiation and promotion in multistage cancer development.
58
In terms of drug-induced nutrient deficiencies which of the following statements is least accurate?
Taking Prozac may deplete the supply of, increase the need for, or interfere with the activity of vitamin C.
This is the least accurate statement. Taking Prozac may deplete the supply of, increase the need for, or interfere with the activity of melatonin.
59
What are the major dietary energy sources that are composed of two simple sugars?
Disaccharides
60
In what form do carbohydrates enter the bloodstream?
Monosaccharides
61
The major end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrate include:
Water, CO2, and energy
62
What is the role of cholesterol in phospholipid membrane structure?
Regulate fluidity
63
Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid?
It must be supplied by the diet
64
What is the primary biochemical mechanism of statin (eg Lipitor) drugs for lowing cholesterol?
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
65
In what form is most body fat stored?
TGs
66
In what organelle are the enzymes that catalyze the citric acid cycle located?
Mitchondira
67
Two hormones that stimulate glycogenolysis in the muscle and liver, respectively, are _____.
epinephrine and glucagon
68
Insulin in the bloodstream is a response to increased blood glucose, and it:
stimulates glycogen synthesis in muscle and liver
69
The most common clinical manifestations of hepatitis include all of the following except:
elevated blood glucose levels
70
Which of the following measures is used to best estimate kidney disease progression?
GFR
71
In the acid-base imbalance acidosis, what happens to respiratory activity?
Increases
Respiratory rate increases to eliminate acid in the form of CO2. This is why C is the best answer.
72
Mrs G. has an MTHFR SNP insufficiency. The MTHFR gene insufficiency is exacerbated by a(n) _____ deficiency; therefore, you will counsel Mrs. G on how to achieve optimal levels in her diet.
Folate
73
The primary goal of nutrition therapy for cancer patients is:
to prevent negative nitrogen balance
74
The challenges facing herbal medicine research include all of the following except:
using the same plant materials
The challenges faced in herbal medicine research include variability of plant materials, unknown active compounds, difficulties in quality control, and lack of safety evaluation. Challenges also include the selection and implementation of appropriate high-throughput screening bioassays, unclear mechanism of action, and the scale-up of active compounds.
75
Which of the following can be described as a supportive process, characterized by a collaborative clinician-client relationship, to set priorities, establish goals, and create action plans?
Nutrition counseling
76
The factor that has the largest impact on an individuals health is
socioeconomic status:
77
Which of the following hormones signals the kidneys to reabsorb more sodium?
Aldosterone
Adrenal glands will secrete aldosterone to signal the kidneys to reabsorb more sodim in order to increase blood pressure.
78
All of the following factors may help activate BDNF (Brain-derived neutrophic factor) production except:
Increase caloric intake
The gene that turns on BDNF production is activated by several factors. These include calorie restrictions, curcumin, docosahexaenoic acid, intermittent fasting, exercise, intellectual stimulation, and mediation
79
Food additives that are considered neurotoxins or excitotoxins include all of the following except:
Cochineal extract
Cochineal extract is a natural food dye made from an insect and is considered safe to conume, with no know neurotoxic effects.
80
For the average 7-12 years old, a serving size of protein could be any of the following except
1 egg
For the average 7-12 year old, 2 eggs is an appropriate serving size of protein
81
Of the following, this nutrient is lost in the greatest quantities through sweating:
Sodium and chloride are lost in the largest quantities via sweat. Lesser amounts of calcium are also lost via sweat
82
If your client was overweight at the start of her pregnancy, how much healthy weight should she gain throughout her entire preganancy?
15-25 ib
Overweight women should gain 15 to 25 ibs during pregnancy. Normal weight women should tain 25 to 35 ibs
83
Acetate and butyrate are both classified as:
short chain fatty acids
Short chain fatty acids (SCFA) are produced by bacteria in the colon. SCFA's fatty acids with less than six carbon atoms
84
Ideally, an athlete will consume a pregame meal how many hours before their event
3-4 hours allows for partial digestion, provides additional muscle glycogen, additional blood sugar, and allows enough time for the stomach to empty.
85
Which of the following is the primary purpose of edma during pregnancy
Increase blood flow and nutrient transfer to the placenta and fetus
Edema during pregnancy can actually be beneficial because it increases the blood flow and nutrient transfer to the placenta and fetus.
86
Your client's pediatrician told her not to introduce cows milk to her 8 month old until after 1 year of age. Why is this>
Dairy can induce iron deficiency anemia
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that whole cow' milk, skim milk, and reduced-fat milk not be used in infancy. Iron-deficiency anemia has been linked to early introduction of whole cow's milk. An important feature of several of the minerals (magneisum, calcium, iron, zinc) in human milk is the packaging that makes them highly available (bioavailable). The protein in cows milk is also harder for the baby to breakdown. The realtively low protein content of breast milk compared to cow's milk meets the infants needs witout overloading the immature kidneys with nitrogen.
87
Which of the following nutrients is needed in order to convert niacin from tryptophan
vitamin B12, vitamin B6, Iron
The body can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan, but the synthesis is extremely slow; 60 mg of tryptophan are required to make one milligram of niacin
88
Absorption of non-heme iron is most likely to be inhibited by all of the following except:
Leucine
Non-heme iron is found in plants
89
Immunosuppressive drug therapy is associated with which of the following conditions?
Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia = high serum potassium
90
Your client smokes and he came to you stating that he already consumes the RDA for vitamin C. How much more vitamin C should he be consuming if he's a cigarette smoker?
35 mg more
Smokers should consume 35 mg more than the RDA. For the general population, females need approximately 75 mg of vitamin C per day. Males need approximately 90 mg of vitamin C per day.
91
Which of the following vitamins function as a cofactor in methionine synthesis?
vitamin B12
Vitamin B12 dependent methionine synthase catalyses' the conversion of 5-methyltetrahydrofolate and L-homocysteine to tetrahydrofolate and L-methionine as the final step. The enzyme requires B12 (methycobalamin) as a cofactor
92
A client on antidepressants has heard about the benefits of St. John's wort (SJW) on depression. This client should be advised that:
SJW is contraindicated with antidepressants, so should be avoided.
While there is some evidence on the benefits of SJW on depression, a nutritionist should never take a client off a medication without the supervision of a medical doctor & should advise this client that SJW is contraindicated with antidepressants.
93
Which of the following increases vitamin C requirements the most?
Smoking
Smoking increases free radicals and also depletes vitamins. Individuals who smoke require 35 mg/day more vitamin C than nonsmokers
94
What is considered the RDA for magnesium for adult women?
310 mg/day
Women hold consume 310 mg of magneisum per day. Men should consume 400 mg of magnesium per day
95
Fructose may have all the following effects except:
May decrease urinary excretion of uric acid
Fructose is the only carbohydrate known to increase the production of uric acid and urinary excretion of uric acid
96
Which of the following vitamins increases the absorption of aluminum?
Vitamin C
Vitamin C may bind aluminum in the gut and increase the absorption of aluminum-containing compounds, which is why some sources recommend not to use tomato juice, paste, sauce from an aluminum can.
97
The primary action of neurotensin is to:
Inhibit release of gastric emptying and acid secretion
Neurotensin functions as a neurotransmitter. It is specifically involved in regulating LH and prolactin release.
98
A 3 credit course from an accredited nutrition course is eligible for continuing education credits from the BCNS
45
Nutrition courses at a US regionally accredited college or university. Each semester hour of a course taken for credit is eligible for 15 CE credits (e.g. a 3 credit course is 45 hours of classroom instructions, thus 45 CE credits)
99
A late clinical finding for iron deficiency anemia is:
Gastritis
Gastritis may result after a period of undetected iron deficiency anemia.
100
Triggers for thyroid dysfunction typically do not include:
Breastfeeding
Triggers for thyroid dysfunction include restrictive diets, over exercising, Agin, and pregnancy.
101
Which of the following promotes enterocyte proliferation?
L-glutamine
Although the body can naturally produce L-glutamine, it is conditionally essential amino acid which mean dietary sources or supplementation may be beneficial at times, such as when an injury or illness is present.
102
All of the following phytonutrients may assist in blood sugar regulation except:
Hydroxytyrosol
Phytonutrients that assist in blood sugar regulation: 4-hydroxyisoleucine in fenugreek seeds, charantin from bitter melon, cinnamaldehyde in cinnamon, isoflavones from soybeans, beta-glucan from oats and barley. Hydroxytyrosol is a phytonutrient found in olive oil that may assist in the reduction of LDL-cholestrol oxidation.
103
A sore, reddened tongue is a clinical sign for which nutrient deficiencies/insufficiencies?
Niacin, folate, vitamin B12, B6, biotin, and riboflavin
Because of its clinical relevance on nutrient status, a tongue examination is typically recommended as part of a clinical nutrition physical visit.
104
Which of the following is the RDA for vitamin D?
600-811 IU day
The RDA for vitamin D in adults is 600-800 IU/day or 40-70ng/day
105
For nondialysis patients with acute renal failure, what is generally the recommended protein intake?
0.5-0.8 g/kg
Protein requirements decrease for non-dialysis patients with acute renal failure.
106
The anemia of chronic renal disease is caused by the kidney's inability to produce:
Erythropoietin
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone roduced primarily by the kidney. It plays a key role in the production of red blood cells
107
NAD is a coenzyme derived from:
vitamin B3
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is a cofactor found in all living cells
108
The Respiratory Quotient for a mixed diet is:
.85
Relative amounts of carbon dioxide production can be expressed by Respiratory Quotient (RQ) = CO2 expired/O2 consumed
109
Common nutrition diagnoses in individuals with chronic kidney disease do not include:
inadequate fluid intake
Depending on the nutrition diagnosis, medical nutrition interventions are adjusted for various intakes of minerals, protein, and fluids
110
Intestinal gases do not include
SO2
Sulfur dioxide is not an intestinal gas. Intestinal gases include carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, and sometime methane..
111
All of the following are involed in normal glucose hoemostatsis except:
mineralocorticoids
## Footnote
Mineralocorticoids are produced in the adrenal cortex and influence salt and water balance.
112
Allostasis is primarily achieved via all of the following mechanisms except:
somatic nervous system
## Footnote
Allostais is the automatic processess with which the body responds to stressors in order to regain homeostasis. The smatic nervous system is the part of the peripheral nervous system associated with the voluntary control of body movements via skeletal muscles.
113
Daily intake requirements increase during pregnancy for all of the following nutrients except:
Vitamin E
## Footnote
Vitamin E recommended daily intakes do not increas during preganancy.
114
Which of the following triggers glucagon to be released?
decreased plasma glucose
## Footnote
Glucagon is released from the pancreatic alpha cells when there is low plasma glucose.
115
The only type of alcohol that raises prolactin is:
beer
## Footnote
Beer contains hops which are considered a galactagogue, a stimulant of prolactin which increases milk supply.
116
The FDA's tips for minimizing exposure to BPA include all of the following except:
avoid plastic marked with recycle code 2
## Footnote
Plastics marked with recycle codes 3, 6, & 7 should be avoided to avoid BPA exposure
117
Which of the following hormones stimulates ovulation an develops the corpus luteum?
LH
## Footnote
LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the gonadtrophic cells in the anterior pituitary gland. A rise in LH stimulates ovulation.
118
Which of the following is not categorized as a disaccharide?
galactose
## Footnote
Galactose is a monosaccharide
119
Fructose may have all the following effects except:
May decrease urinary excretion of uric acid
## Footnote
Fructose is the only carbohydrate known to increase the production of uric acid and urinary excretion of uric acid
120
Which of the following hormones is released when protein is in the stomach and acts on parietal and chief cells?
Gastrin
## Footnote
Gastrin is released when protein is in the stomach. It also actis on parietal an chief cells to stimulate HCI and pepsinogen.
121
When using a logic model to show how a public health progra aligns with the mission and goals of an organization, there will typically be a flow chart with at least which three categories?
inputs, outputs, outcomes
## Footnote
The main components of logic models include: situation, inputs, outputs, outcomes, assumptions, and external factors.
122
Too much exercise for too long can produce high levels of:
reactive oxygen species
## Footnote
Too much exercise for too long can produce high levels of reactive oxygen specis (ROS), a normal byproduct of metabolism of oxygen. This has the potential to cause oxidative stress damage.
123
Which of the following research designs examines correlatons between disease status and dietary exposure of several populations or of one population observed at several times?
ecological
## Footnote
Ecological studies are studies that identify the risk-modifying factors on health based on populatons geographically.
124
Which of the following hormones respond to reduced blood pressure?
ADH and aldosterone
## Footnote
Mechanisms to maintain water equilibrium come from a number of hormones including antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone, angiotensin II, corisone, norephinephine, and epinephrine. Increased serum osmolarity or decreased blood volume lead to the release of antidiuretic home which signals the kidneys to conserve water, resulting in increased blood pressure. Aldosterone keeps the sodium and potassium in your blood balanced by increasing reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys, which helps control your blood pressure and the balance of fluids in your body.
125
Which of the following lipoproteins contain the most protein?
HDL
## Footnote
The ratio of protein to fat determines the densisty; thus particles with higher levels of protein are the most dense.
126
The most widely distributed coenzyme in the body is:
ATP
## Footnote
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an example of essential non-vitamin coenzyme, and it is the most widely distributed coenzyme in the body.
127
The bioavailability of phosphorus may be most reduced by:
the concurrent ingestion of calcium
## Footnote
The bioavailability of phosphorus is enhanced by the concurrent ingestion of vitamin D/
128
The bioavailability of vitamin B6 is reduced by all of the following except:
low amounts of dietary fiber
## Footnote
High amounts of dietary fiber may reduce the bioavailability of vitamin B6
129
Which if the following nutrient deficiencies is most closely associated with hearning loss in aging adults
Vitamin B12
## Footnote
Elderly indiviuals are more prone to vitamin B12 deficiency because of their commonly depleted stomach acide levels.
130
For a competitive athlete, preseason training will typically not include:
higher carbohydrate needs to support high intensity regime
## Footnote
Higher carbohydrate needs to support high intensity competition are typically part of the competitive season, not preseason training which focuses more on preparation.
131
Your 3-year old client was weighed at his pediatricians office today and they determined he was in the 95th percentile for weight. Which of the following describe your client?
obese
## Footnote
For children 2 years of age or older, a BMI in the the 85th prcentile or greater but leass than the 95th percentile indicates over-weight, and a BMI in the 95th percentile or greater indicates obesity.
132
Which of the following organic acids is produced by pyruvate?
acetate
## Footnote
Acetate is a small chain fatty acid produced by pyruvate. Acetate & coenzyme A (coA) join togetherto create acetyle-coA for the citric acid dydle.
133
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vitamin K deficiency
A. Increased activity of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X
B. Decreased PT
C. No Change in PTT
D. Caused by malabsorption of fat
E. All of the above are true
D - Vitamin K deficiency could be caued by the malabsorption of fat. This is common due to pacreatic and Gi dysfunction.
134
Which of the following would not be a cause of vitamin D deficiency?
A. decreased dietary intake
B. malabsorption
C. increased phosphate intake
D. decreased sunlight exposure
Answer: Increased phosphate intake is not a cause of vitamin D deficiency; the opposite is true. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to numerous diseases of the bone, including osteoporosis and osteomalacia.
135
Which of the following is not a cause of vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. pernicious anemia
B. duodenal resection
C. gastric resection
D. specific dietary deficiency
Answer: B - Duodenal resection would not cause vitamin B12 deficiency.
136
Which of the following is the main purpose of public policies that require manufacturers to add vitamins and minerals to cereal and milk sold in the United States?
A. Extending the shelf life of food products.
B. Protecting the public from food-borne illnesses.
C. increasing the nutrient value of food products.
D. Minimizing the development of food intolerance conditions.
Correct Response: C. Milk and cereal in the United States are fortified by adding vitamins and minerals to increase the nutrient value of these food products. For example, studies suggest that Americans consume limited amounts of vitamin D–rich foods. By adopting policies that require manufacturers to add vitamin D to milk and cereal, the likelihood that people will consume at least the minimum required amount of vitamin D increases. Adding vitamins and minerals to food products does not generally extend their shelf life (A), protect the public from food-borne illnesses (B), or minimize the development of food intolerance conditions (D).
137
A client is found to have a BMI of 37. This indicates the client is in which category?
C- Obese
Answer: A BMI of 37 is considered obese. However, this scale can be problematic, of course, due to significant variations in body type. BMI should only be used as a directional heuristic and combined with other factors in considering an individual's health.
If your BMI is less than 18.5, it falls within the underweight range.
If your BMI is 18.5 to <25, it falls within the healthy weight range.
If your BMI is 25.0 to <30, it falls within the overweight range. If your BMI is 30.0 or higher, it falls within the obese range.
138
Qualitative Study Design
Qualitative sits in the gray area. This means that qualitative studies collect experiences and opinions. These are primarily population-based as well so they'll include a large number of people in their studies.
139
Quantitative Study Design
While quantitative studies are more black and white, meaning they're strongly based on facts and numbers. Since these don't focus on opinions and experiences, they'll have a small population or a smaller amount of information to analyze. Because these aren't opinion-based, context isn't taken into play with the results.
139
What is an Epidemiology Study?
Epidemiology is the study of populations and existing characteristics of those populations. For example, the instance of a health-related issue in a specific population.
140
4 Type of epidemiological Study?
Cross-sectional studies -look at disease status and how it relates to nutritional intake
Ecological studies - look at the correlation between nutrition and disease of several populations
Cohort studies - look at subgroups of populations over a period of time
Case-control studies - look at the relationship between disease status and nutrition based on common characteristics (age, sex, etc)
141
Which of the following can be described as a supportive process, characterized by a collaborative clinician-client relationship, to set priorities, establish goals, and create action plans?
Nutrition Assessment and Intervention
Counseling is a relationship. All others are protocols provided to clients for use of action OR are records.
142
ACHALASIA
disorder of the esophagus, failure of the smooth muscle to relax, difficulty swallowing, food sticking in esophagus
143
ANOSMIA
Inability to perceive odor or smell
ANURIA: passage of less than 100 ml of urine a day
143
ADDISON’S DISEASE
adrenocortical insufficiency (atrophy of the adrenal cortex) Treatment-hormones, high protein, moderate carbs high salt. Salt secretion is high therefore dietary potassium may be restricted
144
ASCITES
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Fluids and salt may be restricted with cirrhosis of the liver
145
APLASIA
the failure of a tissue or organ to develop correctly
ATAXIA: lack of muscle control during voluntary movements like walking and picking up objects (neurological)
146
CACHEXIA
severe malnutrition and body wasting caused by chronic disease
147
DIPLOPIA
double vision
148
DYSGEUSIA
No taste Zinc deficiency
149
DYSPEPSIA
indigestion, heartburn
150
DYSPHAGIA
difficulty swallowing, usually a problem with esophagus
151
EXOPHTHALMOS
bulging or protruding eyeballs
152
GASTRITIS
stomach lining becomes inflamed and irritated
153
GRAVES DISEASE
abnormal antibodies released that mimic TSH, metabolism goes into high gear producing pounding heart, sweating, trembling and weight loss. Protruding eyeballs
154
HYPOALBUMINEMIA
low albumin in urine, which could indicate liver failure or disease, chronic malnutrition, May cause generalized edema
155
HYPOPLASIA
underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ
156
ISCHEMIA
restriction to blood supply in tissues
157
KETONEMIA
abnormal increase of ketone bodies in the bloo
158
KWASHIORKOR
extreme malnutrition with severe edema, large distended abdomens due to ascites, cracking/peeling skin, and sparse hair
159
MARASMUS
sever, chronic, overall malnutrition, fat and muscle tissue are depleted. Skin hangs loose, bones visible under skin
160
MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
autoimmune illness blocks stimulation of muscles by nerves (double vision, drooping eyelids are early signs)
161
MYELOMA
Cancer of the plasma cells
162
NEOPLASIA
abnormal growth of tissue, if malignant equals cancer
163
OSTEOMALACIA
softening of bone due to defective bone mineralization, low Vit D (rickets in kids)
164
POLYDIPSIA
excessive thirst, one if the initial symptoms of diabetes
165
POLYNEURITIS
weakness, numbness and pain from nerve damage, usually in the hands and feet
166
POLYPHAGIA
excessive appetite, cause by inability to metabolize glucose which results in body breaking down its own tissue for protein and fat resulting in loss of weights and fatigue
167
POLYURIA
excessive or abnormally large production or passage of urine
168
WILSON’S DISEASE
rare inherited disorder that causes too much copper to accumulate in the liver, brain and other vital organs
169
XANTHURENATE
170
XEROSTOMIA
dry mouth resulting from reduced or absent saliva flow
171
What is the methyl-folate trap?
Accumulation and entrapment of folate due to low vitamin B1
172
Treatment of chronic kidney disease with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers has limited efficacy in the absence of a _________diet.
Low-sodium
173
All of the following are sources of foodborne illness except?
1) All of these are sources.
2) Chemical contaminants
3) Biological contaminants
4) Physical hazards
All of these are sources
174
Which zymogen, once activated in the duodenum, plays a crucial role in activating other zymogens and the enzyme phospholipase?
Trypsinogen
175
Which of the following is not a consequence of impaired folate status?
Increased methionine production
176
What is the name of vitamin D2?
Ergocalciferol
177
How does vitamin B6 contribute to nucleic acid production?
By serving as a coenzyme in one-carbon metabolism alongside folate.
178
Which of the following conditions is not associated with an increased need for zinc intake?
Asthma
179
