certification exam Flashcards

1
Q

the formula to calculate Celcius

A

C=(F-32) x .56

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2
Q

how many drops in 1 ml

A

20 gtts

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3
Q

how many mL in 1 tsp

A

15mL

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4
Q

how many mL in 1 cup

A

240 mL

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5
Q

how many mL in 1 pint

A

480mL

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6
Q

how many ounces are in 1 cup

A

8oz

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7
Q

how many mL in 1 quart

A

960mL

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8
Q

how many mL in 1 gallon

A

3840mL

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9
Q

how many quarts in 1 gallon

A

4 quarts

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10
Q

how many pounds in 1 kg

A

2.2 lb

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11
Q

how many grams in 1 oz

A

30 grams

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12
Q

how many tsp in 1 tbsp

A

3 tsp

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13
Q

how many tsp in 2 tbsp

A

6 tsp

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14
Q

how many oz in 1 pint

A

16 oz

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15
Q

the formula to calculate Fahrenheit

A

F=(C x 1.8) +32

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16
Q

CDC

A

Center of Disease Control

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17
Q

ad

A

right ear

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18
Q

as

A

left ear

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19
Q

au

A

both ears

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20
Q

bu

A

buccal

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21
Q

im

A

intramuscular

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22
Q

it

A

intrathecal

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23
Q

od

A

right eye

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24
Q

os

A

left eye

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25
Q

ou

A

both eyes

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26
Q

po

A

by mouth

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27
Q

pr

A

rectal

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28
Q

pv

A

vaginal

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29
Q

sc, sq, sub q

A

subcutaneous

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30
Q

sl

A

sublingual

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31
Q

ac

A

before meals

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32
Q

bid

A

twice daily

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33
Q

hs

A

at bedtime

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34
Q

pc

A

after meals

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35
Q

prn

A

as needed

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36
Q

qh

A

every hour

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37
Q

qid

A

4x daily

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38
Q

tid

A

3x daily

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39
Q

wa

A

while awake

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40
Q

aaa

A

apply to affected area

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41
Q

gtts

A

drops

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42
Q

ha

A

headache

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43
Q

qs

A

quantity sufficient

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44
Q

ung

A

ointment

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45
Q

ss

A

1/2

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46
Q

qod

A

every other day

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47
Q

sig codes

A

prescription abbreviations

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48
Q

ROP

A

re oder quantities (how much needs to be ordered)

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49
Q

ROQ

A

re order quantities (how much meds need to be ordered)

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50
Q

FIFO

A

first in first out

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51
Q

20’C (68’F) - 25’C (77’F)

A

Room Temperature

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52
Q

1.7’C (35’F) - 7.8’C (46’F)

A

Fridge temperature

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53
Q

-15’C (5’F) or below

A

Freezer temperature

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54
Q

FDA

A

Food and drug administration

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55
Q

Class l recalled medication

A

Med is being recalled bc of a chance of serious affects/death

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56
Q

Class ll recalled medication

A

temporary (reversible) cahnce, little chance of adverse affects

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57
Q

Class lll recalled medication

A

caused by a problem that isnt likely to cause adverse affect

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58
Q

USP

A

united states of pharmacopia

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59
Q

Chapter 800

A

addresses proper handling of hazardous drugs

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60
Q

NIOSH

A

national institute for occupational safety and health

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61
Q

EPA

A

environmental protection agency

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62
Q

RCRA

A

resource conservation and recovery act

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63
Q

DOT

A

department of transportation

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64
Q

P listed hazardous drugs

A

acutely hazardous (Epinephrine, Warfarin, Nicotine)

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65
Q

D listed hazardous drugs

A

Toxic/ignitable/corrosive/reactive

benzoyl alcohol, albuterol inhalers, silver sulfadiazine

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66
Q

U listed hazardous drugs

A

Toxic/Chemotherapy

cyclophosphamide, mercury, mitamycin

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67
Q

Med Watch

A

voluntary reporting system where health care professionals, consumers and patients can report events related to medication

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68
Q

CSA

A

controlled substance act

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69
Q

HIPPA

A

health information portability and accountability

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70
Q

PHI

A

protected health information

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71
Q

NPI

A

national provider identifier (a unique 10 digit number for that particular pharmacy)

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72
Q

how long should controlled substances lll, lV, V records be kept?

A

up to 2 years and kept separate

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73
Q

not accepted for med use and has high potential fro abuse (heroin, LSD, marijuana, ecstasy, methaqualone, peyote)

A

Schedule l controlled substances

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74
Q

high potential for abuse. not accepted for med use. can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. (vicodin, coke, meth, mehtadone, hydromorphone/dilaudid, dermoral, oxycontin, fentanyl, dexedrine, adderall, and ritalin)

A

Schedule ll controlled substances

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75
Q

moderate to low potential for abuse and dependence (products containing less than 90 mgs of codeine, tylenol w/ codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone)

A

Schedule lll controlled substances

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76
Q

low potential for abuse/ dependence (xanax, soma, darvon, darvocet, valium, ativan, talwain, ambien, tramadol

A

Schedule lV controlled substances

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77
Q

lower potential for abuse. contain limited quantities of certain narcotics. used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, analgesic purposes. (cough preparations, robitussin, lomotil, motofen, lyrica, parepectolin)

A

Schedule V controlled substances

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78
Q

Allows providers to write prescriptions for controlled substances including opiods, morphine, and steroids. allows DEA to monitor who is prescribing controlled substances and the quantities prescribed.

A

DEA number

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79
Q

how to validate DEA number?

A

> add 1st. 3rd, 5th numbers.
add 2nd, 4th, 6th numbers and double it
add two totals together
second digit in the total is the check digit

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80
Q

number of refills for controlled ll meds

A

0

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81
Q

number of refills for schedule lll and lV medications

A

5x within 6 months after date of issue

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82
Q

number of refills for schedule V medications

A

5x in 6 months

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83
Q

CMEA

A

Combat methamphetamine epidemic act

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84
Q

what does the CMEA regulate?

A

Schedule V and BTC products.

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85
Q

how much of pseudoephedrine or phenylpropanolamine can be sold daily and/or monthly?

A

Daily- 3.6 g

Month- 9 g

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86
Q

Which form needs to be filled out in order to order C-ll meds?

A

DEA form-222

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87
Q

CSOS

A

controlled substance ordering system

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88
Q

how long is the DEA-222 form valid for

A

60 days

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89
Q

what form do you need to fill out to dispose of controlled meds

A

DEA form-41

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90
Q

what form do you need to fill out if a control med has been reported lost or stolen

A

DEA form-106

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91
Q

intravenous

A

in the veins

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92
Q

intramuscular

A

in the muscle

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93
Q

intradermal

A

in the top layer of skin

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94
Q

subcutaneous

A

under the skin

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95
Q

eternal administration

A

gastrointestinal + digestive system

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96
Q

parenteral administration

A

injections/ non-oral

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97
Q

OTC

A

over the counter

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98
Q

BTC

A

behind the counter

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99
Q

Legend label

A

“federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”

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100
Q

What do vaccines treat

A

viruses, specific pathogens, provide active immunity that produces anti bodies in response to the entry of antigens

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101
Q

these are expected and can occur with a usual dosage. non life threatening, and could even be beneficial

A

Side effects

102
Q

these are undesirable sometimes dangerous effects of a med. Can affect the organs and body system

A

adverse effects

103
Q

what is required on a patients profile?

A
> full name/address
> DOB, weight and sex
> known diagnosis, medical conditions
> allergies of any kind
> medication sensitivity, history
> third party payer info
104
Q

BIN

A

bank identifier number

105
Q

PCN

A

processor control number

106
Q

person code

A

spouse or dependent

107
Q

group code/number

A

identifies employer plan

108
Q

DDI

A

drug to drug interactions

109
Q

the practice of ensuring that insurance claims are not paid multiple times

A

coordination of benefits

110
Q

types of 3rd party payers

A

Medicare, medicaid services

111
Q

DME

A

durable medical equipment

112
Q

En

A

each nostril

113
Q

IV

A

intravenous

114
Q

IVPB

A

intravenous piggy back

115
Q

LOC

A

locally

116
Q

UD, UT

A

as directed

117
Q

TOP

A

topically

118
Q

VAG

A

vaginally

119
Q

AMP

A

ampule

120
Q

CAP

A

capsule

121
Q

CR

A

cream

122
Q

ELIX

A

elixir

123
Q

EXPECT

A

expectorant

124
Q

FL

A

fluid

125
Q

LIQ

A

liquid

126
Q

LOT

A

lotion

127
Q

PULV

A

powder

128
Q

SOL

A

solution

129
Q

SUPP

A

suppository

130
Q

SUSP

A

suspension

131
Q

SYR

A

syrup

132
Q

TAB

A

tablet

133
Q

TINC

A

tincture

134
Q

UNG, OINT

A

ointment

135
Q

AD, LIB

A

as often as needed

136
Q

AM

A

morning

137
Q

ASAP

A

as soon as possible

138
Q

ATC

A

around the clock

139
Q

H, HR

A

hour

140
Q

NOC

A

night

141
Q

NV

A

nausea/vommitting

142
Q

PC, HS

A

after meals, at bedtime

143
Q

PM

A

afternoon, evening

144
Q

Q

A

every

145
Q

Q4H

A

every 4 hours

146
Q

QHS

A

every night at bedtime

147
Q

STAT

A

at once or immediately

148
Q

UD, UT

A

as directed

149
Q

W/

A

with

150
Q

w/o

A

without

151
Q

PSP

A

prescription monitoring programs

152
Q

DUR

A

drug utilization review

153
Q

ADM

A

automated dispensing machine

154
Q

NDC

A

national drug code

155
Q

medications that should not be repackaged

A

Pradaxa
Azithromycin (z pack)
Methylprednisone (medrol)
Accutane

156
Q

An agent or factor that causes malformation of an embryo and has special handeling requirments

A

Teratogen medications

157
Q

inhibiting the maturation and proliferation of malignent cells

A

Anti-neoplastic

158
Q

REMS

A

Risk evaluation and mitigation strategies

159
Q

strategies made by manufactures to ensure the benefits out weigh the risk

A

Risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS)

160
Q

ETASU

A

elements to assure safe use

161
Q

requirements that are intended to reduce specific risk

A

elements to assure safe use (ETASU)

162
Q

Garbing

A

PPE requirements/process of putting PPE on for function to be performed

163
Q

equipment that provides therapeutic benefits to a patient in need due to medical conditions/illnesses

A

durable medical equipment (DME)

164
Q

OBRA

A

Omnibus budget reconciliation act

165
Q

a law that changed reimbursement limits and mandated drug utilization evaluation, pharmacy and patient consultation, and educational out reach programs

A

omnibus budget reconciliation act (OBRA)

166
Q

signs of false prescriptions

A

of refills, red ink, 2 different handwriting, blurry, tampered, not signed, long time after prescription date, misspelling, improper sig codes, DEA number, Expo date

167
Q

what are the 3 systems of measurement

A

metric system, apothecary system, avoirdupois system

168
Q

how to calculate doses for children.

A

Clark’s Rule

169
Q

a publication issues by the US pharmocopeia to improve the safety of the compounding environment and products produced here. defines risk levels

A

USP 797

170
Q

types of PPE

A

gowns, gloves, goggles, face shields, bootie covers, and bouffant caps

171
Q

Anteroom

A

where technicians perform garbing before starting a compound

172
Q

ADM

A

automated dispensing machines

173
Q

comprised of cabinets of various sizes that contain drawers and compartments for different medications. Also known as unit-based cabinets

A

automated dispensing machine (ADM)

174
Q

technology based on human characteristics that is often used for identification and access control

A

biometrics marker

175
Q

systems that dispense medication one at a time

A

unit-dose/ unit-of-use

176
Q

identifies the drug establishment, the formulation, the package size/type of product packaging

A

NDC

177
Q

a required return of a possibly harmful or defective product

A

recall

178
Q

what drugs should be avoided to those who are pregnant for the fact that these meds can be absorbed through skin

A

finasteride (proscar, propecia), dutasteride (Avodart), methotrexate, thalidomide

179
Q

inhibiting the maturation and proliferation of malignant cells

A

antineoplastic

180
Q

a label added on to a dispensed medication package intended to provide supplementary information regarding safe administration, use and storage of the med

A

auxiliary label

181
Q

some of the most common medication classes that require medication guides are

A

NSAIDS, anti-depresssnts, ADHD, ADD, insomnia medications long acting beta agonists and products containing isotretinoin

182
Q

for controlled substance prescriptions to be written on what? the type of paper contains a special watermark of the word “copy” that is visible in the background

A

tamper resistant paper

183
Q

a pharmacy tech should identify that levothyroxine (synthroid) should have which auxiliary label on the bottle?

A

take on an empty stomach

184
Q

what is a pharmacy techs role in using the ADM in a hospital setting

A

to restock medication in the system

185
Q

EC

A

enteric coated

186
Q

brand name for hydrocodone-Apap

A

vicodin, norco, lortab

187
Q

brand name for levothyroxine

A

synthroid, tirosint

188
Q

brand name for prednisone

A

rayos, deltasone

189
Q

brand name for lisinopril

A

zestril, prinivil

190
Q

brand name for amoxicillin

A

amoxil

191
Q

brand name for gabapentin

A

neurontin

192
Q

brand name for metformin

A

glucophage

193
Q

brand name for atorvastatin

A

lipitor

194
Q

brand name for alprazolam

A

xanax

195
Q

brand name for amlodipine

A

norvasc

196
Q

antianginals

A

stop chest pain

197
Q

antibiotics

A

kill bacteria

198
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

lowers blood pressure

199
Q

anticoagulants

A

delay blood clotting

200
Q

anticonvulsants

A

prevent or treat seizures

201
Q

antidepressants

A

lessen depression

202
Q

antidiarrheals

A

relieve diarrhea

203
Q

antiemetics

A

prevent/ relieve nausea/vomitting

204
Q

antipyretics

A

reduce fever

205
Q

antitussives

A

relieve cough

206
Q

beta blockers

A

regulate heart rate

207
Q

bone resorption inhibitors

A

prevent/treat bone density loss

208
Q

bronchodilators

A

open the airways

209
Q

calcium channel blockers

A

reduces the hearts work load

210
Q

corticosteroids

A

reduce inflammation

211
Q

decongestants

A

reduce nasal congestion

212
Q

hormones

A

regulate body functions

213
Q

hypothyroid agents

A

reduce thyroid hormone excess

214
Q

laxatives

A

promotes bowel movement

215
Q

lipid-lowering agents

A

reduces cholesterol

216
Q

NSAIDs

A

reduce inflammation

217
Q

opiod analgesics

A

relieve pain

218
Q

sedative/hypnotics

A

promote sleep

219
Q

vascular HA suppressants

A

ease migraines and cluster HAs

220
Q

brand for donepezil

A

aricept

221
Q

brand for enoxaparin

A

lovenox

222
Q

brand for azithromycin

A

zithromax

223
Q

brand for zolipidem

A

ambien

224
Q

brand for sumatriptan

A

imitrex

225
Q

brand for ondansetron

A

zofran

226
Q

brand for acetaminophen (APAP)

A

tylenol

227
Q

brand for fluctisone/salmeterol

A

advair HFA

228
Q

how many cups in 1 quart

A

4 cups

229
Q

how often should floors and counters be cleaned

A

daily

230
Q

how often should walls and ceilings be cleaned

A

monthly

231
Q

how often should a high risk gloved finger tip test be taken

A

bi-annually

232
Q

how often should a medium to low risk gloved finger tip test be performed

A

yearly

233
Q

how often should a high risk media fill test be performed

A

bi- annually

234
Q

how often should a medium to low risk media fill test be performed

A

yearly

235
Q

language used to describe anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, treatments, and processes

A

medical terminology

236
Q

an enacted law

A

statutes

237
Q

moral principles that govern a persons behavior and actions

A

ethics

238
Q

a fixed amount a patient pays at the time of receiving a med or service that health insurance covers

A

co pay

239
Q

sublingual

A

under the tongue

240
Q

a liquid preparation consisting of solid particles dispersed through out a liquid in which they are not soluble

A

suspension

241
Q

referring to a cream, ointment, lotion or other preparation for external use only

A

topical

242
Q

process of submitting third party insurance claims for payment

A

adjudication

243
Q

a medication that blocks the effects of histamine, relieves allergy symptoms

A

antihistamine

244
Q

a series of steps and precautions that are used to decrease the chance of contamination during preparation of a sterile product

A

aseptic technique

245
Q

how many ounces in a pound

A

16 oz

246
Q

a group of medications that treat seizures, anxiety, panic, insomnia, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawal, and other conditions

A

benzodiazepine

247
Q

the slanted part of the needle tip

A

bevel

248
Q

the date assigned to a compound prescription beyond which the compound should not be used

A

beyond use date (BUD)

249
Q

state board that regulates pharmacy practice

A

the board of pharmacy (BOP)

250
Q

trademark of a medication or device created by the originating manufacturing companies for marketing purposes

A

brand/trade name

251
Q

a disorder affecting the respiratory system that causes difficulty breathing and a high risk for infection

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)